Dentist Abroad
What is the primary cause of suppuration in periodontal disease?
1) Presence of lymphocytes
2) Collection of neutrophils
3) Necrosis
4) Accumulation of tissue fluid
Suppuration is primarily due to the accumulation of neutrophils at the site of infection, which leads to the formation of pus.
Which of the following actions is NOT a responsibility of a dental professional when they suspect abuse or neglect?
1) Reporting the suspicion to the appropriate authorities
2) Investigating the situation personally
3) Documenting observations in the patient’s record
4) Providing support to the patient
Dental professionals should report their suspicions rather than investigate, as this is outside their scope of practice.
A 65-year-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is:
1) Extreme susceptibility to pain
2) Tendency towards prolonged hemorrhage
3) Recurring oral infection
4) Increased tendency to syncope
ADC Test Answer: 2
Severe cirrhosis affects blood clotting abilities, which can lead to increased risk of hemorrhage during dental procedures.
Which of the following does NOT require informed consent?
1) General clinical examination
2) Removal of an impacted third molar
3) Periodontal probing
4) Administering medication with high risks
Informed consent is generally not required for diagnostic
procedures such as general clinical examinations, as they are considered part of
the initial assessment that patients expect when they visit a healthcare
professional.
What is a common consequence of prolonged exposure to loud noises in a dental office? 1) Increased risk of infection 2) Hearing loss 3) Skin irritation 4) Respiratory issues
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Prolonged exposure to loud noises from dental equipment can lead to noise-induced hearing loss, making it important to use hearing protection when necessary.
Which of the following is not a function of a rest in a removable partial denture (RPD)?
1) To provide resistance against occlusal load
2) To maintain occlusal contact with opposing teeth
3) To act as a direct retainer
4) To prevent extrusion of abutment teeth
The primary functions of a rest in a removable partial denture include providing vertical support, resisting occlusal load, maintaining occlusal contact, directing forces along the long axis of the abutment, preventing impingement of soft tissue, and preventing the extrusion of abutment teeth.
Recurrent unilateral submandibular swelling and pain just prior to meals is
indicative of
1) an odontogenic infection.
2) sialolithiasis.
3) ranul1)a
4) sarcoidosis.
E. Sjögren’s syndrome.
Salivary stones block ducts, causing pain and swelling when saliva production
increases, such as during meals.
What is TRUE in regards to osteogenesis imperfecta?
1) Manifests with blue sclera
2) May be associated with deafness
3) Sex-linked disorder of bones that develop in cartilage
4) All of the above
ADC Test Answer: 1
Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by fragile bones, blue sclera due to thin collagen in the eye, and may also have associations with hearing loss.
What is the primary aim of infection control in dentistry?
1) To ensure patient comfort
2) To prevent the spread of infections
3) To maintain a clean and organized workplace
4) To reduce treatment costs
Infection control is a set of precautions taken to prevent the
spread of diseases during dental treatment. It is essential to ensure patient
safety and maintain a healthy environment for both patients and dental staff.
Modern dental noble metal casting alloys generally have equiaxed fine grain structures because of the incorporation of small amounts of
1) Chromium
2) Indium
3) Iridium
4) Palladium
The term equiaxed refers to the fact that three dimensions of each grain are similar.
crack propagation.
Addition of about 1 wt% of ruthenium, Iridium or rhenium as grain refiners makes modern dental noble metal casting alloys as equiaxed microstructures.
Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent in dentistry?
1) The patient's ability to make a decision
2) The dentist's disclosure of all treatment options
3) The patient's signature on a consent form
4) The presence of a witness during the consent process
While a witness may be necessary in certain situations (e.g., for patients with diminished capacity), it is not a universal component of informed consent. The core elements are the patient's capacity to make a decision, the dentist's thorough disclosure, the patient's comprehension, and voluntary agreement.
What is the effect on local anesthetic when used with sodium bicarbonate?
1) Increases speed and quality of anaesthesia
2) Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
3) Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
4) Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
The speed of onset of Anaesthesia is raised by Sodium bicarbonate and further enhances its quality by elevating the intensity and duration of block.
What is a common appearance of vertical tooth fracture?
1) Perio abscess-like appearance
2) Displacement of fragments
3) A clear film of pus
4) Tooth mobility
ADC Test Answer: 1
Vertical root fractures often present as periodontal abscesses, as the fracture involves the root structure and can lead to localized periodontal inflammation.
Drug of choice for cholera prophylaxis
1) Chromphenicol
2) Procaine Penicillin
3) Doxycycline
4) Erythromycin
Treatment with a single 200-mg dose of doxycycline has been recommended As studies in volunteers demonstrated conclusively, the disease is an immunizing process. Patients who have recovered from cholera are solidly immune for at least 3 years
The type of assertion that can be used when another person is involved in a
situation is:
1) Basic assertion.
2) Discrepancy assertion.
3) Empathic assertion.
4) Negative feelings assertion.
Empathic assertion is the type of assertion that can be used when another person
is involved in a situation. This type of assertion involves expressing one's
thoughts, feelings, and needs while also considering and acknowledging the
thoughts and feelings of the other person. It aims to create a balance between
assertiveness and empathy, allowing for effective communication and
understanding between both parties.
Maximum decrease in cardiac output is caused by:
1) Enflurane
2) Halothane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Methoxyflurane
Enflurane causes the maximum decrease in cardiac output, followed by halothane.
The smallest and most inaccessible root canal-in the maxillary second molar is the 1. faciolingual 2. mesiobuccal 3. lingual 4. distobuccal
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4The smallest and most inaccessible root canal-in the maxillary second molar is the distobuccal
What percentage of children suffer from dental trauma?
1) 5% at age 8
2) 11% at age 12
3) 13% at age 15
4) All of the above
The percentages of children suffering from dental trauma increase with age, with 5% at age 8, 11% at age 12, and 13% at age 15.
Which of the following series of cements have anticariogenic properties? 1. zinc phosphate, silicate, and polycarboxylate cements 2. silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements 3. zinc oxide eugenol, ethoxybenzoic, and zinc oxide eugenol polymer reinforced cements 4. calcium hydroxide and ethoxybenzoic cements
Dental Material Answer: 2Cements with anticariogenic properties are silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements
When is the best time to schedule an appointment for an asthmatic patient?
1) Morning
2) Afternoon
3) Evening
4) Anytime
Asthma attacks are known to be more frequent in the morning and evening due to various physiological factors.
Maximum decrease in cardiac output is caused by:
1) Enflurane
2) Halothane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Methoxyflurane
Cardiac output is maximally decreased by enflurane followed by halothane.
Secondary infections in HIV-infected patient are classified under
1) Class I
2) Class II
3) Class III
4) Class IV
General Medicine Answer: 4
Common opportunistic infections associated with HIV include: cryptococcal meningitis. toxoplasmosis.
What is a key responsibility of dental professionals regarding patient records?
1) To alter records as needed
2) To ensure records are legible and accurate
3) To keep records confidential from all staff
4) To share records freely with anyone
Dental professionals must maintain the integrity and accuracy of patient records to ensure quality care and legal compliance.
What is the most likely cause for the failure of a long-standing post-crown?
1) The post was too narrow
2) The post was too short
3) Failing root canal treatment
4) Presence of a vertical root fracture
Vertical root fractures often lead to the failure of a post-crown, especially if there are no other evident issues like caries or post malposition.
What is the GDC's guideline regarding the use of abbreviations in dental records?
- Abbreviations should be avoided altogether
- Only standardized dental abbreviations should be used
- Abbreviations are acceptable as long as they are legible
- It is up to the dentist's discretion
The GDC advises that abbreviations should be kept to a minimum and only standardized abbreviations should be used to avoid misunderstandings or misinterpretations of the recorded information.
Correction of a lingual crossbite of tooth 1.2 has the best long-term prognosis if 1.2 is:
1) Ideally inclined, with 5% overbite.
2) Ideally inclined, with 50% overbite.
3) Lingually inclined, with 5% overbite.
4) Lingually inclined, with 50% overbite.
Orthodontics Answer: 4Lingual inclination combined with significant overbite allows better stabilization of tooth position after correction.
Which of the following drugs is known for potentially causing gingival hyperplasia?
1) Phenytoin
2) Aspirin
3) Metoprolol
4) Clindamycin
Phenytoin is associated with gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which is characterized by the overgrowth of gum tissue.
What is the typical pain description for a dry socket?
1) Continuous, severe, and throbbing
2) Sharp and intermittent
3) Mild and constant
4) Only present with biting or chewing
Dry socket pain is characteristically severe, continuous, and throbbing, differing from the milder pain of a normal extraction site.
Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon an adequate dietary supply of 1 Vitamin A 2 Vitamin E 3 Vitamin K 4 None of the above
Biochemistry Answer: 3Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon Vitamin K intake
What is the role of Campylobacter rectus in dental biofilm
metabolism?
1) It produces formate and hydrogen gas as metabolic byproducts.
2) It has no role in biofilm formation.
3) It is exclusively an aerobic organism.
4) It utilizes formate and hydrogen gas as energy sources.
Campylobacter rectus is capable of using formate and hydrogen gas as energy sources and electron donors for its metabolic activities, which contributes to its role in dental biofilm ecology and metabolism.
You notice that your patient's submandibular lymph nodes are enlarged. You would look for potential infection sites in the?
1) Hard palate, upper lip, upper central incisor, and lower first molar
2) Hard palate.
3) Hard palate and upper lip.
4) Hard palate, upper lip, and upper central incisor.
The correct answer is hard palate, upper lip, upper central incisor, and lower first molar.
What is the best way to communicate with an anxious patient during a dental procedure?
1) Speak in a loud, firm voice
2) Use technical dental terms
3) Speak in a calm, gentle, and reassuring manner
4) Avoid eye contact
Communicating with a calm and gentle tone helps to reduce the patient's anxiety and maintains trust in the dental professional.
What is the best treatment for chronic periodontitis?
1) Scaling and root planing alone.
2) Antibiotics alone.
3) Surgical intervention alone.
4) Combination of scaling, root planing, and surgical intervention with adjunctive antibiotics.
ADC Test Answer: 4
Chronic periodontitis typically requires a multi-faceted approach that includes non-surgical periodontal therapy (scaling and root planing), surgical intervention if necessary, and adjunctive antibiotics to manage the infection effectively.
What type of dental chair is most suitable for a patient with severe mobility issues?
1) A standard chair with a transfer board
2) A chair with power-operated height and tilt adjustments
3) A chair designed for pediatric patients
4) A chair with wheels for easy movement
A chair with power-operated height and tilt adjustments allows for greater accessibility and comfort for patients with severe mobility issues, making it easier to perform necessary dental procedures.
What is the importance of informed consent in research involving children?
1) It protects the child from unnecessary risk
2) It allows researchers to conduct the study without parental input
3) It ensures the child's confidentiality
4) It is not required for research purposes
Informed consent is crucial in research involving children to ensure that they are not exposed to procedures that could harm them and to maintain their rights to refuse participation.
Baker anchorage utilizes
1) Intermaxillary anchorage with screws
2) Intramaxillary anchorage with screws
3) Intermaxillary anchorage with elastics
4) Intramaxillary anchorage with elastics
SOLUTION Intermaxillary anchorage or Baker's Anchorage.
Intramaxillary anchorage is also used in the form of E-chain, when elastics are used from the back molar teeth to the front teeth in the same jaw to move teeth back of the mouth.
If the sealant or bonding agent is not placed on part of the enamel that has been etched by an acid solution, you would expect:
1) Arrest of enamel caries by organic sulfides
2) The enamel to return to normal within 7 days
3) Continued enamel demineralization in the etched area
4) Slight attrition of the opposing tooth
If the etched area is not sealed, it may remineralize over time, but the risk of continued demineralization exists if not properly managed.
Which immunoglobulin exists as both a monomer and a dimer?
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgE
4) IgA
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is unique because it can exist both in a monomeric form found in serum and as a dimer (secretory IgA) predominant in mucosal areas.
Which of the following lesions cannot be classified as an intra-epithelial lesion?
1) Herpes simplex infections
2) Pemphigus vulgaris
3) Herpangina
4) Lichen planus
ADC Test Answer: 4
Lichen planus is characterized by a band-like infiltrate of lymphocytes at the epithelial-connective tissue interface, rather than being classified as an intra-epithelial lesion.
Which ion acts as a second messenger?
1) Sodium
2) Potassium
3) Calcium
4) Magnesium
Calcium ions serve as important second messengers in various cellular signaling pathways, facilitating communication within and between cells.
Which of the following cements bonds to tooth structure, which has an anticariogenic effect, has a degree of translucency and does not irritate the pulp?
1) Polycarboxylate cement
2) Resin cement
3) Silicate Cement
4) Glass ionomer cement
Chelation of carboxyl groups of the polyacids with the calcium in the apatite of enamel and dentin is the main mechanism through which glass ionomer bonds to tooth structure. Glass ionomers release fluoride which results in the inhibiton of the progression of secondary caries.
They elicit a greater pulp reaction as compared to ZnoE but generally less compared to zinc phosphate cement.
Sickle cell anemia is precipitated when:
1) Oxygen tension goes down
2) Increased viscosity of blood is there
3) There is dehydration
4) All of the above
Sickle cell disease results from mutation, or change, of certain types of hemoglobin chains in red blood cells (the beta hemoglobin chains). When the oxygen concentration in the blood is reduced, the red blood cell assumes the characteristic sickle shape.
What is more likely to happen to an interproximal composite filling rather than amalgam?
1) Fracture
2) Polymerization shrinkage
3) Marginal leakage
4) Discoloration
Composite materials are more prone to polymerization shrinkage, which can lead to gaps and sensitivity compared to amalgam.
Common cause of allergy in orthodontics:
1) Composite resin.
2) Vinyl.
3) Nickel.
4) Acrylic.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Nickel is a common allergen found in many orthodontic appliances, particularly in metal brackets or wires.
Regarding hand washing, which of the following is true?
1) Alcohol is the only effective agent
2) Chlorhexidine gel is used for surgical hand washing
3) Povidone iodine is not effective
4) Hand washing is not necessary before procedures
Chlorhexidine gel is an effective antiseptic used in surgical hand washing, along with alcohol and povidone iodine.
What is the most commonly used topical anesthetic in dentistry?
1) Lidocaine
2) Benzocaine
3) Articaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is frequently used as a topical anesthetic in dentistry due to its effectiveness and rapid onset of action.
Which type of caries is characterized by a brown or black appearance and is
resistant to caries?
1) Acute caries
2) Chronic caries
3) Arrested caries
4) Incipient caries
Arrested caries are brown or black and become caries-resistant, especially when exposed to fluoride.
What is a common cause of facial angioedema?
1) Cough medicine
2) ACE inhibitors
3) Antihistamines
4) Statins
Facial angioedema is frequently precipitated by ACE inhibitors, which are known to induce this reaction in sensitive individuals.
What is the typical duration of action of procaine?
1) 30 minutes.
2) 1-2 hours.
3) 2-4 hours.
4) 4-6 hours.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Procaine is a local anesthetic with a relatively short duration of action, typically lasting 1-2 hours.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in therapeutic doses?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Clindamycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Tetracycline
Clindamycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal cramps, even at therapeutic doses.
Which one of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility?
1) Glycopyrrolate.
2) Atropine.
3) Neostigmine.
4) Fentanyl.
Synthetic opioids, sharing properties of opium and morphine, include meperidine, propoxyphene, diphenoxylate, fentanyl, buprenorphine, methadone, and pentazocine.
Fentanyl (80 to 100 times more powerful than morphine) is especially dangerous.
Atropine blocks the muscarinic receptors. Atropine decreases gastrointestinal tract motility and secretion and causes constipation.
Although various derivatives and congeners of atropine (such as propantheline, isopropamide, and glycopyrrolate) have been advocated in patients with peptic ulcer or with diarrheal syndromes
Neostigmine is Cholinesterase inhibitors that enhance the effects of parasympathetic stimulation and leads to reversal of intoxication by agents with a anticholinergic action
Which medication is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)?
1) Verapamil
2) Spironolactone
3) Candesartan
4) Atenolol
Candesartan is an ARB, which lowers blood pressure by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
Informed consent for geriatric patients should consider:
1) Only the patient/’s preferences
2) The patient/’s cognitive function and capacity
3) Family members’ opinions exclusively
4) Standard treatment protocols
The patient/’s cognitive function and capacity
Explanation: It is crucial to assess a geriatric patient's cognitive function to
ensure they can give informed consent, recognizing that some patients may have
diminished capacity due to age-related cognitive decline.
What is the primary function of salivary IgA?
1) To neutralize bacterial toxins
2) To prevent bacterial adhesion to tooth surfaces
3) To initiate the immune response against caries-causing bacteria
4) To provide a source of calcium for remineralization
Salivary IgA is an antibody that specifically targets bacteria in the mouth, helping to prevent their colonization and the initiation of the caries process.
The average overall length of the permanent maxillary central incisor is 22.5 mm
What is the primary goal of the Gillies approach in zygomatic arch fractures?
1) To minimize scarring
2) To allow for accurate fracture reduction
3) To prevent nerve damage
4) To facilitate faster healing
The Gillies approach is designed to provide direct access to the zygomatic arch, enabling precise reduction of fractures through a bimanual technique.
For an amalgam restoration of a weakened cusp you should:
1) Reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance
2) Reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp
3) Reduce 2mm for retention form
4) Reduce cusp by 1mm only
ADC Test Answer: 1
Reducing the cusp by 2mm on a flat base enhances the resistance of the restoration, preventing future fracture and ensuring the longevity of the amalgam restoration.
What happens when rests are not properly designed?
1) They could be aesthetically displeasing
2) They may not transfer occlusal stresses effectively
3) They could enhance retention
4) They become more comfortable
Poorly designed rests may fail to effectively transfer occlusal stresses, potentially compromising the stability of the RPD.
How many grams of high-density noble metal alloy is required for casting of a molar?
1) 3 gms
2) 6 gms
3) 9 gms
4) 12 gms
With high-density noble metal alloy 6 grams is adequate for premolar and anterior castings, 9 grams is adequate for molar casting and 12 grams is adequate for pontics.
Which of the following is NOT a protective component of saliva against dental
caries?
1) Urea
2) Lactoferrin
3) Statherin
4) Sodium lauryl sulfate
Saliva contains urea, lactoferrin, glycoproteins, lysozyme, lactoperoxidase, sIgA, and calcium/phosphate ions that help protect against caries. Sodium lauryl sulfate is a detergent and not a natural component of saliva with known caries-fighting properties.
What is the most common site for oral cancer within the mouth?
1) Hard palate
2) Lateral borders of the tongue
3) Floor of the mouth
4) Buccal mucosa
The lateral borders of the tongue are the most frequently affected site for oral cancer, particularly in the context of squamous cell carcinoma.
The fibres of Purkinje?
1. Are remains of embryonic cardiac muscle fibres
2. Are placed over the pericardium
3. Arise from the sinu-arterial noded a and b both
4. a and b both
These form specialized fibres of the heart and are supposed to be terminal filaments of bundle of His.
Where is bone lost most in periodontal disease?
1) Buccal surface
2) Lingual surface
3) Interdental (approximal) areas
4) Palatal surface
Bone loss in periodontal disease is most pronounced in the interdental areas, where plaque accumulation and inflammation are often greatest.
What treatment is indicated for severe cases of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) Increased platelet count
2) Supportive care and treating underlying causes
3) Administration of antibiotics
4) Hormonal therapy
Management of severe cases of DIC involves supportive care and addressing the underlying condition that has triggered the coagulopathy.
What are effective strategies to decrease polymerization shrinkage of a composite?
1. Incremental placing of composite using techniques like herringbone and lateral filling methods.
Utilizing incremental builds reduces the stress of polymerization shrinkage by minimizing wall-to-wall effects.
An overjet of 8mm is usually associated with:
1) Angle Class I cuspid relationship.
2) Angle Class II cuspid relationship.
3) Angle Class III cuspid relationship.
4) Angle Class I molar relationship.
Orthodontics Answer: 2Excessive overjet is a hallmark of Angle Class II occlusion due to mandibular retrusion or maxillary protrusion, leading to an increased horizontal distance between the arches.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of meningococcal meningitis in patients allergic to penicillin?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Teicoplanin
3) Meropenem
4) Chloramphenicol
Pharmacology Answer: 4
Treatment of meningococcal meningitis: In case of penicillin resistance, third generation cephalosporins should be used ( Ceftriaxone / CefotaximeIn case of penicillin / cephalosporin allergy, Chloramphenicol is used
Drug of choice – Penicillin G
A patient expresses extreme anxiety about getting needles. What is the most appropriate response?
1) Tell them not to worry
2) Avoid discussing needles altogether
3) Explain the procedure and show the needle in a non-threatening way
4) Schedule their appointment without discussing their fears
Providing clear information and familiarizing the patient with the process can help reduce anxiety associated with needles.
Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except:
1) Head injury
2) Asthma
3) Hypothyroidism
4) Diabetes
Morphine is contraindicated in head injury for the following reasons: Causes carbondioxide retention – this in turn increases intracranial tension
Therapeutic doses can cause respiratory depression in head injury patients Vomiting, miosis and altered mentation caused by morphine can interfere with assessment of neurological status
Morphine should be avoided in those with bronchial asthma as it can precipitate an attack of asthma.
What should be avoided when documenting patient records?
1) Using clear language
2) Omitting relevant information
3) Keeping records up to date
4) Documenting consent
It is crucial to provide a complete picture of the patient's dental health to ensure proper care and treatment planning.
What is the primary risk associated with the use of nitrous oxide in a dental practice? 1) Allergic reactions 2) Environmental pollution 3) Potential for abuse and addiction 4) Exposure to infectious agents
Occupational Hazards Answer: 3Nitrous oxide can be misused, leading to potential abuse and addiction, making proper ventilation and safety protocols essential.
What is the most effective non-pharmacological method for managing dental anxiety?
1) Tell-Show-Do technique
2) Breathing exercises
3) Positive reinforcement
4) Nitrous oxide sedation
Breathing exercises, such as deep breathing or diaphragmatic breathing, are widely recognized as effective non-pharmacological methods for reducing anxiety. They help the patient to relax and can be performed easily without additional equipment.
What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dysplasia
Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the loss of intercellular adherence of suprabasal spinous cells, leading to acantholysis and the formation of vesicles.
The formation of oxyhemoglobin is influenced by
Diagnosis of Congenitally Missing Mandibular Second Premolar
What is the earliest age to confirm the diagnosis of a congenitally missing mandibular second premolar?
1) 1 year.
2) 3 years.
3) 5 years.
4) 7 years.
Pediatric Dentistry Answer: 4At around 7 years of age, most permanent teeth in the mandible begin to erupt. Radiographic evaluation at this stage confirms the absence of a tooth germ for the second premolar.
The junction between primary and secondary dentine is:
1) A reversal line
2) Sharp curvature
3) A resting line
4) A reduction in the number of tubules
ADC Test Answer: 2
The relationship between primary and secondary dentine is characterized by a sharp transition in the curvature of dentinal tubules as changes in odontoblast activity occur post-eruption.
What is the primary feature of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.
What is the purpose of the Caldicott Principles in dental record keeping?
- To provide a framework for the use and sharing of patient information
- To dictate the physical layout of dental records
- To outline the responsibilities of dental nurses in record keeping
- To detail the storage requirements for dental x-rays
The Caldicott Principles are designed to ensure the confidentiality of patient information and to provide guidance on when and how patient data can be used or shared appropriately.
What is the purpose of a progress note in a dental record?
- To document the patient's current condition and the treatment provided
- To outline the patient's future treatment needs
- To communicate with the patient's other healthcare providers
- To justify the fees charged for services
A progress note is used to record the patient's current condition, any changes observed since the last visit, the treatment provided during the appointment, and the dentist's observations and findings.
Informed consent for children typically requires consent from:
1) The child
only
2) The healthcare provider
3) The child's guardian or parent
4) The child's teacher
The child's guardian or parent
Explanation: Parents or guardians are responsible for providing
consent for medical treatment for minors.
What is the main characteristic of smooth surface lesions?
1) They are wider on the surface and narrow as they penetrate.
2) They are always cavitated.
3) They only occur on occlusal surfaces.
4) They are less common than pit and fissure lesions.
Smooth surface lesions widen on the surface and narrow as they penetrate the enamel.
At what age is the BCG vaccine recommended?
1) At birth
2) At 6 months
3) Up to 1 year
4) At 2 years
The BCG vaccination is recommended for all babies up to one year old, especially those born in areas with high rates of tuberculosis (TB) or with a family history of TB.
What is the best method for managing dental emergencies in gerodontology?
1) Immediate referral to a specialist
2) In-office emergency care
3) Prescribing pain medication
4) Encouraging self-management
Rapid assessment and treatment in the dental office is typically the best approach for managing dental emergencies in elderly patients.
Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of local
anesthesia in a geriatric patient?
1) Hypertension
4) Cardiovascular disease
3) Diabetes
4) All of the above
All of the listed conditions can influence the patient's response
to local anesthetics. It is important to carefully consider the patient's
medical history and current medications before administering local anesthesia.
A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the kidney presented with a radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. The disease that you would immediately suggest is:
1) Diabetes
2) Thyrotoxicosis
3) Hyperparathyroidism
4) Osteoporosis
ADC Test Answer: 3
Hyperparathyroidism can lead to radiolucent lesions in the jaw due to increased osteoclastic activity and calcium mobilization from bones.
what %age of NaF is used in iontophoresis:
1.1%
2.2%
3.3%
4.4%
2% NaF is used in iontophoresis. This fluoride treatments brings about granular precipitation in dentinal tubules and reduces tubular diameter.
Thiamine is useful in:
1) Collagen synthesis
2) Clotting factor production
3) Epithelial integrity
4) Cellular energy production
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) is a vital coenzyme in the metabolism of carbohydrates, playing a crucial role in the production of energy.
False statement regarding phenytoin is?
1) It is a teratogenic drug
2) Highly protein bound
3) Induces insulin secretion
4) Follows saturation kinetics
Phenytoin inhibits insulin secretion and causes hyperglycemia.
Which of the following conditions might warrant caution when using benzodiazepines?
1) Young adults
2) Pregnant women
3) Healthy athletes
4) Non-smokers
Caution is especially required when prescribing benzodiazepines to pregnant women due to potential risks and complications that could affect fetal health, including withdrawal symptoms and respiratory problems in the neonate.
Which of the following local anaesthetic is sympathomimetic:
1) Cocaine
2) Procaine
3) Lignocaine
4) Tetracaine
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
Lateral canals are commonly found:
1) In the middle third of the root
2) In the apical third of the root
3) Near the crown
4) Throughout the entire root
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lateral canals are typically located in the apical third of the root and provide pathways for communication between the pulp and periodontal structures.
What is the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient?
- To establish a baseline for future comparisons
- To screen for cavities
- To assess the patient's overall oral health
- To plan for a specific treatment
Although radiographs are used for various purposes, including detecting cavities and planning treatment, the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient is to assess the patient's overall oral health and identify any underlying conditions that may require attention.
The growth of the alveolar process has a major effect on
1) Anteroposterior jaw relationship
2) Vertical jaw relationship
3) Both
4) None of the above
Penicillinase may inactivate penicillin by splitting the beta-lactum ring
What is the primary ethical concern regarding informed consent in dental
tourism?
1) Cost of treatment
2) Quality of care
3) Patient autonomy and safety
4) Availability of specialists
Informed consent in dental tourism raises ethical concerns about ensuring that patients are fully informed about the risks, benefits, and continuity of care when seeking treatment abroad.
Where is bone lost most in periodontal disease?
1) Buccal surface
2) Lingual surface
3) Interdental (approximal) areas
4) Palatal surface
Bone loss in periodontal disease is most pronounced in the interdental areas, where plaque accumulation and inflammation are often greatest.
Which of the following medications is known to potentially cause a lichenoid reaction?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Beta blockers
3) Paracetamol
4) Antibiotics
Beta blockers and certain other medications, including NSAIDs and antimalarials, can cause lichenoid drug reactions, characterized by oral lesions resembling lichen planus.
What is the purpose of Formocresol in pulpotomy?
1) Remove bacteria from the pulp chamber.
2) Prevent further decay of the tooth.
3) Promote the formation of dentin.
4) Seal the pulp chamber after amputation.
Formocresol is used to sterilize the pulp chamber after amputation, reducing the risk of infection.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors reduce blood pressure by:
1) Increasing heart rate
2) Blocking calcium channels
3) Inhibiting angiotensin II formation
4) Blocking aldosterone receptors
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and lowering blood pressure.
Premature exfoliation of primary mandibular canine is most often the sequelae of:
1) Caries
2) Trauma
3) Serial tooth extraction
4) Arch length inadequacy
SOLUTION The two major symptoms of severe crowding in the early mixed dentition are severe irregularity of the erupting permanent incisors and early loss of primary canines caused by eruption of the permanent lateral incisors.
After a definitive analysis of the profile and incisor position, these patients face the same decision as those with moderate crowding; whether to expand the arches or extract permanent teeth. In the presence of severe crowding, limited treatment of the problem will not be sufficient and permanent tooth extraction is most likely the best alternative.
Current evidence indicates that endorphins are 1. endogenous molecules having morphine like properties 2. receptors located in the periaqueductal grey area of the brain Which are sensitive to opiates 3. large polypeptides that regulate renal activity 4. central nervous system transmitters implicated in depressive psychoses
Pharmacology Answer: 1endorphins are endogenous molecules having morphine like properties
For a 26-year-old with a missing lateral incisor, what is the recommended treatment?
1) Dental implant
2) Resin bonded bridge
3) Removable partial denture
4) Orthodontic treatment
In adults, a dental implant is a more permanent and stable solution for replacing a missing tooth.
What is the primary purpose of dental sealants?
1) To restore decayed teeth
2) To reduce caries in pits and fissures
3) To whiten teeth
4) To enhance the appearance of teeth
Dental sealants are protective coatings applied to the chewing surfaces of molars to prevent food particles and bacteria from collecting in pits and fissures, thereby reducing the risk of caries.
How much lidocaine is in 3 cartridges of 2% lidocaine?
1) 66 mg
2) 132 mg
3) 44 mg
4) 88 mg
Each cartridge contains 36 mg of lidocaine (1.8 ml x 20 mg/ml), so 3 cartridges contain 108 mg (3 x 36 mg).
What material is LEAST usable for an impression of PFM (Porcelain-Fused-to-Metal)?
A. Alginate
B. Polyvinyl siloxane
C. Polyether
D. Agar
Alginate is primarily used for making preliminary impressions due to its set time and hydrophilic properties but does not provide the necessary detail and stability required for precise impressions needed for PFMs.
Which of the following is NOT a component of personal protective equipment
(PPE) for dental healthcare workers?
1) Masks
2) Gloves
3) Gowns
4) Eye protection
PPE includes masks,
gloves, and gowns, which are essential to protect against the transmission of
infections. However, eye protection such as goggles or face shields is also a
critical component to prevent the spread of pathogens through splashes or
aerosols.
What is the best method to disinfect a dental bridge before sending it to the lab?
1) Soaking in bleach
2) Autoclaving
3) Using 70% isopropyl alcohol
4) Rinsing with water
70% isopropyl alcohol is effective for disinfecting dental appliances as it kills bacteria and viruses without damaging the material of the bridge.
What is more likely to happen to an interproximal composite filling rather than amalgam?
1) Fracture
2) Polymerization shrinkage
3) Marginal leakage
4) Discoloration
Composite materials are more prone to polymerization shrinkage, which can lead to gaps and sensitivity compared to amalgam.
What is the significance of a tooth undergoing 30-40% mineral loss for
radiographic detection of caries?
1) It indicates the lesion is only visible with advanced imaging techniques
2) It is the threshold for a lesion to be considered a cavity
3) It means the lesion is likely to be visible on a radiograph
4) It signifies that the tooth is beyond repair
Radiographs typically detect lesions that have undergone significant mineral loss, which is roughly 30-40%. At this stage, the lesion is usually large enough to be seen on a radiograph.
What is the main purpose of performing a pulp test on a recently traumatized tooth?
1) Obtain baseline response
2) Confirm pulp necrosis
3) Prepare for extraction
4) Assess dental caries
ADC Test Answer: 1
A pulp test after trauma provides a baseline response to gauge changes in pulp vitality over time due to potential nerve recovery or damage.
What type of sedation is preferred for a patient with a severe gag reflex?
1) Oral
2) Topical
3) Inhalation or IM/IV
4) None
For patients with a severe gag reflex, sedation methods that provide deeper relaxation, such as inhalation sedation or intramuscular/intravenous (IM/IV) sedation, are preferred to help manage anxiety and facilitate treatment.
Not true about Na+ K+ 2Cl- Co-transporter:
1) It is a glycoprotein
2) 12 membrane spanning domains
3) There are distinct isoforms for secretory and absorptive function
4) The secretory form is found exclusively in thick segment of ascending limb of loop of Henle
Pharmacology Answer: 4
In the mandible, the main growth site is in the:
1) Gonial angle.
2) Condylar cartilage.
3) Posterior border of the ramus.
4) Inferior and lateral aspects of the body of the mandible.
Orthodontics Answer: 2Excessive overjet is a hallmark of Angle Class II occlusion due to mandibular retrusion or maxillary protrusion, leading to an increased horizontal distance between the arches.
The characteristic translucency of the incisal portion of natural teeth, is achieved in porcelain restorations by the addition of 1.body porcelain 2: enamel porcelain 3. aluminous porcelain 4. opaque porcelain
Dental Material Answer: 2The characteristic translucency of the incisal portion of natural teeth, is achieved in porcelain restorations by the addition of enamel porcelain
Which of the following statement is not true about diuretics:
1) Acetazolamide is a carbonic acid anhydrase stimulant
2) Thiazides act on cortical diluting segment of loop of Henle
3) Frusemide is a high ceiling diuretic
4) Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist
Acetazolamide is a carbonic acid anhydrase stimulant Acetazolamide, non-competitively (but reversibly) inhibits carbonic anhydrase in proximal tubular cells.
The extraction of a primary maxillary central incisor at the age of 6 years will
cause
1) loss of intercanine space.
2) increased intercanine space.
3) no change in intercanine space.
4) decreased overjet.
Primary incisors generally do not influence intercanine space, as it is
maintained by the canine teeth.
What is a potential use of dental records in forensic dentistry?
1) To determine the patient's insurance coverage
2) To identify a dead or missing person
3) To track treatment costs
4) To evaluate staff performance
Dental records can provide antemortem information that assists forensic odontologists in identifying deceased individuals.
Which of the following is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent?
- Cyclopropane
- Barbiturates
- Propofol
- Etomidate
Cyclopropane is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent.
What causes clasp breakage in removable partial dentures
(RPD)?
1) Excessive force
2) Work hardening
3) Poor design
4) Material fatigue
Clasp breakage in removable partial dentures (RPDs) is often attributed to work hardening of the metal used in the clasps. Work hardening occurs when the metal is subjected to repeated stress, causing it to become more brittle and less ductile. This increased brittleness can lead to fractures under normal functional loads, making proper design and material selection critical in RPD construction.
White coat hypertension refers to: 1) Low blood pressure when seeing a doctor 2) Elevated blood pressure only in a medical setting 3) Consistently high blood pressure at all times 4) Normal blood pressure at all times
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2White coat hypertension occurs when blood pressure is elevated only in the presence of healthcare workers.
The alpha-2 function pre-synaptically at the neuromuscular junction is
responsible for:
1) Facilitation of transmitter release
2) Inhibition of transmitter release
3) Activation of cholinergic receptors
4) Blockade of sodium channels
Alpha-2 receptors located pre-synaptically can inhibit the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
What is the typical healing time for a simple extraction of a tooth?
1) 3-5 days
2) 1-2 weeks
3) 2-4 weeks
4) 4-6 weeks
Healing after a simple tooth extraction typically occurs within 1 to 2 weeks, although complete healing may take longer.
Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent in dentistry?
1) Explanation of the diagnosis
2) Description of the proposed treatment
3) Discussion of the risks and benefits of the treatment
4) Patient's agreement to pay for the treatment
While financial considerations are important in the overall decision-making process, informed consent specifically pertains to the patient's understanding and agreement to the medical aspects of the treatment, not the financial agreement.
What percentage of hypertension cases is accounted for by primary or essential hypertension? 1) 50% 2) 60% 3) 75% 4) 90%
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 4Primary or essential hypertension makes up about 90% of all hypertension cases, typically with no identifiable cause and is associated with factors like genetics, smoking, and obesity.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is known for its cardio stability, making it a preferred choice in patients with cardiovascular issues.
Which of the following antiviral drugs cannot be given orally?
1) Zidovudine
2) Zalcitabine
3) Acyclovir
4) Iodoxuridine
Idoxuridine acts as an antiviral agent against DNA viruses by inhibiting thymidilate phosphorylase and viral DNA polymerases.
The effect of Idoxuridine results in the inability of the virus to reproduce or to infect/destroy tissue.
This product is available in the following dosage forms:Solution and Ointment
Glycine is a Glycogenic amino acid, only
What is the primary use of nitrous oxide in dentistry?
1) To strengthen teeth
2) To relieve anxiety and create mild sedation
3) To enhance local anesthesia
4) To improve the taste of dental materials
Nitrous oxide is commonly used for its anxiolytic properties and ability to induce a relaxed state without deep sedation.
Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias induced by bupivacaine:
1) Bretylium tosylate
2) Lignocaine
3) Nifedipine
4) Verapamil
Bupivacaine has got high cardiotoxic potential.
Most potent inhaled anaesthetic is:
- Halothane
- Isoflurane
- Sevoflurane
- Desflurane
Among the inhalational agents used commonly, halothane is most potent (MAC 0.74%) while isoflurane and sevoflurane have moderate potency (1.15% and 2.0% respectively) and desflurane has low potency (MAC 6.0%).
What is the penultimate tooth to erupt in permanent dentition?
1) Mandibular first molar
2) Second molar
3) Canine
4) Incisor
The second molars are typically one of the last teeth to erupt in the permanent dentition, following the eruption of all others.
What causes early childhood caries (ECC)?
1) High protein diet
2) Fruit-based drinks
3) Low carbohydrate intake
4) Regular dental check-ups
One of the primary causes of early childhood caries is the frequent consumption of fruit-based drinks, which can contain high levels of sugar.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is known for its cardiovascular stability.
An approach to an impacted mandibular molar is achieved by:
1) Envelop flap
2) Bayonet flap
3) L-shaped flap
4) All of the above
All the listed flap techniques (envelop flap, bayonet flap, and L-shaped flap) are types of mucoperiosteal flaps used in oral surgery to access impacted teeth. Each flap has its indications and advantages, and the choice of flap depends on the specific clinical situation. The L-shaped flap, also known as Ward's incision, is commonly used for the removal of impacted teeth due to its effectiveness in providing access while minimizing tissue trauma.
Lip cancer survival rates are generally:
1) Higher in black males
2) Higher in white females
3) Higher in Hispanic males
4) Higher in Asian females
Lip cancer survival rates are influenced by various factors, including the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, the individual's health, and the effectiveness of treatment. Although the question implies that white females have the highest survival rates, it's essential to note that survival rates can be different across different populations. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in lip cancer, regardless of ethnicity.
Hemorrhagic shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by
1) increase in blood pressure.
2) alteration in circulating blood volume.
3) elevation of temperature.
4) decrease in amount of interstitial fluid
Hemorrhagic shock occurs due to significant blood loss, reducing effective circulation and oxygen transport.
The concentration of ketones is increased in body due to: 1. Starvation 2. High fat diet 3. Diabetes mellitus
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a high-risk patient?
1) 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient
2) 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient
3) Level of viruses are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
4) Level of virus in saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
ADC Test Answer: 2
Hepatitis B is known to be significantly more infectious than HIV, and small amounts of Hepatitis B virus can lead to transmission.
Hyperthermia can be seen with:
1) Lithium toxicity
2) Opium withdrawal
3) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
4) Eclampsia
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome, often caused by phenothiazine used for neuroleptanalgesia and premedication, can cause hyperthermia.
What is the recommended method for labeling the outside of a patient's dental record?
- With the patient's full name, date of birth, and social security number
- With the patient's initials and the first three digits of their phone number
- With the patient's full name and a unique identifier
- With the patient's full name and medical history
The outside cover of the chart should only display the patient's name to maintain confidentiality.
Ropivacaine is pharmacologically similar to:
1) Lignocaine
2) Mepivacaine
3) Etidocaine
4) Bupivacaine
Ropivacaine is newer drug which is pharmacologically similar to bupivacaine with less cardiotoxicity.
What is the correct sequence of events in tooth development?
1) Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then enamel formation
2) Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of enamel epithelium
3) Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation
4) None of the above
ADC Test Answer: 3
The processes in tooth development unfold with the elongation of the enamel epithelium followed by odontoblast differentiation and the sequential formation of dentine and enamel.
What is the purpose of using a dental dam during a restorative procedure?
1) To prevent cross-contamination
2) To keep the area dry
3) To isolate the tooth from saliva and debris
4) To provide a clear visual field for the dentist
A dental dam is a thin piece of rubber or latex that is placed over the tooth being worked on to keep it dry and free from saliva and debris during a restorative procedure like a filling or root canal treatment.
What is the purpose of using a biosafety cabinet during dental procedures?
1) To protect the patient from infection
2) To protect the dental staff from infection
3) To protect the environment from infection
4) To protect the instruments from contamination
A biosafety cabinet is used in the dental setting to protect the dental staff from infection by minimizing exposure to aerosols and splatter generated during procedures. It does not directly protect the patient or the environment but is part of a larger infection control strategy.
The best way to clean a cavity before the placement of GIC is:
1) H2O2
2) Phosphoric Acid
3) Polyacrylic acid
4) Saline
ADC Test Answer: 3
Polyacrylic acid is recommended for cleaning a cavity before using GIC as it helps create an effective bond while preserving the integrity of dentin moisture.
What is the recommended approach to treating an acute dental infection in an
elderly patient?
1) Antibiotic therapy
2) Drainage of the abscess
3) Extraction of the infected tooth
4) Immediate root canal therapy
Initially, the primary goal is to drain the infection and alleviate pain before considering further treatment options like antibiotics or tooth preservation procedures
Hypochromic anemia is associated with
1) iron deficiency.
2) aminopyrine therapy.
3) vitamin B12 deficiency.
4) folic acid deficiency.
Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by small (microcytic), pale
(hypochromic) red blood cells due to inadequate hemoglobin synthesis.
Common causes include poor dietary intake, chronic blood loss, or malabsorption.
Hyperemia of the pulp is
1) an acute inflammation with intermittent paroxysms of pain which may become
continuous.
2) an increased volume of blood within dilated vessels and increased blood flow.
3) a chronic situation whereby minute arterioles of pulpal tissue are engorged
for long periods creating temporary
episodes of pain.
4) a transient invasion of bacterial elements into the outer lying stroma of the
pulpal tissue.
Hyperemia refers to an increase in blood flow to the pulp, often due to inflammation or irritation. This condition can lead to symptoms such as pain and sensitivity.
What is the primary mechanism by which S. mutans contributes to the
formation of dental caries?
1) Production of lactic acid
2) Formation of dental plaque
3) Secretion of hydrogen sulfide
4) Breakdown of collagen in dentin
S. mutans produces glucosyltransferases that convert dietary sugars into extracellular polysaccharides and lactic acid, which lowers the pH and leads to demineralization of tooth structure.
What is the purpose of a pulp vitality test before a restorative procedure?
1) To determine the presence of pulp infection.
2) To assess the depth of the cavity preparation.
3) To evaluate the need for endodontic treatment.
4) To ensure that the patient is not allergic to the restorative material.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Pulp vitality tests are conducted to assess the health of the tooth's pulp and identify any signs of infection before proceeding with a restorative treatment.
Which of the following is a lifestyle factor that can modify the severity of hypertension? 1) Genetic predisposition 2) Physical inactivity 3) Age 4) None of the above
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Physical inactivity, along with factors like obesity and high sodium intake, can worsen hypertension.
Before restoring a tooth with composite, the area is etched. Accidental contamination occurs with saliva, Therefore
1) the area is re-etched before restoration
2) the area is air-dried using an air spray and continue with restoring
3) wipe the saliva with cotton and continue to restore.
4) add excess composie material and cure it
Etching of tooth surface with 37% phosphoric acid creates microporosities in the enamel and dentin.
After etching the surface energy of the enamel will increase. This will make it very sticky to any kind of contaminants. If salivary contamination will occur, the salivary proteins will precipitate in the microporosities. This will prevent the adequate penetration of the bonding agent, therby reducing the micotag formation. Hence, complete isolation is essential.
What can be a sign of dental phobia?
1) Occasional apprehension before visits
2) Excessive avoidance of dental care
3) Pleased demeanor when discussing dental procedures
4) Knowledge of dental health
Dental phobia often manifests as a persistent and overwhelming fear that leads to significant avoidance of dental treatment.
Which antihypertensive agent is a direct renin inhibitor?
1) Aliskiren
2) Ramipril
3) Valsartan
4) Verapamil
Aliskiren directly inhibits renin, reducing the production of angiotensin I and lowering blood pressure.
What is the primary cause of an elevator fracture during tooth extraction?
1) Excessive force
2) Incorrectly angled elevator
3) Weak tooth structure
4) Inadequate anesthesia
Applying too much force can lead to tooth fracture, especially if the elevator is not inserted correctly.
What is the primary concern during the first trimester of pregnancy?
1) Organogenesis of the fetus
2) The risk of preterm labor
3) Fetal movement
4) The development of the baby's teeth
The first trimester is a critical period for fetal development, and the fetus is highly susceptible to malformations if the mother experiences stress or other adverse conditions.
Which treatment is best for an alveolar abscess?
1) Endontic treatment or extraction.
2) Incision and drainage alone.
3) Extraction.
4) Endodontic treatment.
ADC Test Answer: 1
An alveolar abscess can be treated with either endodontic therapy (root canal treatment) to save the tooth or extraction if the tooth is non-restorable or if the patient does not wish to preserve it.
Who checks if there is a written protocol for radiation protection in the clinic?
1) The dentist
2) The radiation protection supervisor
3) The clinic manager
4) The health and safety officer
The radiation protection supervisor is responsible for ensuring that protocols are in place and adhered to for the safety of both patients and staff.
All the following are part of the HURIER Model of Listening, except:
1) Hearing.
2) Remembering.
3) Responding.
4) Encouraging.
The HURIER Model of Listening is a framework that outlines the different stages
of effective listening. It stands for Hearing, Understanding, Remembering,
Interpreting, Evaluating, and Responding. Encouraging is not part of this model
because it does not represent a specific stage of the listening process.
Encouraging is more related to the communication skills of the listener, rather
than a distinct step in the listening model.
Which group of medications is primarily used to manage pain and inflammation in dental procedures?
1) Opioids
2) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
3) Antibiotics
4) Anxiolytics
NSAIDs are commonly prescribed for pain and inflammation control in dental procedures due to their efficacy and relatively low side-effect profile compared to opioids.
A tooth makes its appearance in the oral cavity usually when 1. all of the crown is completed 2. all of the root is completed 3. one half of the root is completed 4. one half of the crown is completed
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3A tooth makes its appearance in the oral cavity usually when one half of the root is completed
What should a dentist do if a patient presents with a dental emergency that appears to be the result of abuse or neglect?
1) Treat the emergency and report the incident to the authorities
2) Refuse treatment until the patient provides a satisfactory explanation for the injury
3) Treat the emergency without reporting the incident
4) Report the incident to the authorities and delay treatment until they arrive
In the case of a dental emergency, the dentist should provide immediate care and report the suspicion of abuse or neglect to the authorities.
What is the primary purpose of informed consent in the context of medical and
dental procedures?
1) To ensure the patient has financial capacity to pay for the procedure
2) To establish legal protection for the healthcare provider
3) To respect the patient's autonomy and allow informed decision-making
4) To provide detailed instructions for post-treatment care
Informed consent is essential for respecting a patient's right to
make choices regarding their treatment and ensuring they have the necessary
information to make an informed decision.
When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification of dentin matrix then
1 Interglobular dentin is formed
2 Dead tracts are found in formed dentin
3 Irregular dentin results
4 None
Sometimes, mineralization of dentin begins in small globular areas that fail to coalesce into a homogenous mass.
These zones are known as globular dentin or interglobular spaces. Thus, demonstrating defect of mineralization and not of matrix formation, the dentinal tubules pass uninterruptedly through interglobular dentin.
what do u understand by isograft
1.bone taken frm same individual
2.bone taken frm genetically same individual
3.bone taken frm identical twin
4.bone taken frm same individual
A graft of tissue that is obtained from a donor genetically identical to the recipient.
Digoxin:
1) clearance is by the liver
2) increases conduction of the AV node
3) decreases the force of myocardial contraction
4) may cause atrial tachycardia in overdosage
Digoxin is a positive inotrope, hence it increases the force of myocardial contraction and may be effective in heart failure.
Digoxin has a long half-life and is given once daily. It is cleared by the renal system and hence renal impairment requires the reduction of digoxin dose.
Arrhythmias, such as atrial tachycardia, may be a sign of digoxin toxicity.
Digoxin toxicity is enhanced if there are 67 electrolyte disturbances, especially hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia and hypercalcaemia.
The biologic standard used to test the efficiency of sterilization involves the use of spores of a harmless bacillus
Which of the following is considered a biological hazard in a dental practice? 1) Chemical spills 2) Noise from dental equipment 3) Bloodborne pathogens 4) Ergonomic strain
Occupational Hazards Answer: 3Biological hazards include exposure to infectious agents such as bloodborne pathogens (e.g., HIV, Hepatitis B and 3) that can pose risks to dental professionals.
At which angle should the external surface of proximal cavity walls in a Class II preparation for amalgam be finished?
1) An acute angle
2) An obtuse angle
3) A right angle
4) An angle of 45°
An obtuse angle is preferred for amalgam preparations to enhance the retention and resistance form of the restoration.
Lignocaine can be used in all, except:
1) Ventricular fibrillation
2) Spinal anaesthesia
3) Epidural
4) Convulsions
Lignocaine rather in toxic doses can produce convulsion.
A 30 year old pregnant woman developes tuberculosis. Which of the following antitubercular drugs should not be used:
1) INH
2) Rifampicin
3) Streptomycin
4) Ethambutol
Streptomycin is contraindicated in pregnant women because of fetal ototoxicity.
Local anaesthetic agent which has antimuscarinic action on heart muscle receptors is:
1) Procaine
2) Cocaine
3) Chloroprocaine
4) None of the above
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic (and thus antimuscarinic) local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
Beta-blockers reduce blood pressure primarily by:
1) Blocking angiotensin II receptors
2) Reducing heart rate and cardiac output
3) Increasing diuresis
4) Vasodilation
Beta-blockers lower blood pressure by decreasing heart rate and the force of contraction, which reduces cardiac output.
Pethidine should not be given with:
1) Reserpine
2) Propranolol
3) Atenolol
4) MAO inhibitors
Pethidine can cause severe excitatory response and arrhythmias in patients on MAO therapy.
What is the definition of syncope?
1) A prolonged seizure
2) Transient loss of consciousness due to cerebral anoxia
3) A chronic condition resulting from a brain tumor
4) A mental health disorder
Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a lack of oxygen to the brain. It is characterized by pallor, dilated pupils, coldness of skin, and unconsciousness.
Which type of cells is seen in the early stage of chronic periodontitis?
1) Basophils
2) Eosinophils
3) Lymphocytes
4) Neutrophils
5) Macrophages
In the early stages of chronic periodontitis, lymphocytes are predominant, indicating an adaptive immune response to periodontal pathogens.
What is the importance of maintaining confidentiality in dental records?
- It is not important as long as the records are accurate
- It encourages patient honesty and trust in the dentist-patient relationship
- It is only important for insurance purposes
- It is only relevant for HIPAA compliance
Confidentiality is crucial for fostering a relationship of trust and respect between the patient and the dental team.
What is the primary focus of the General Dental Council (GDC) regarding record keeping?
1) Financial management
2) Patient care and safety
3) Marketing strategies
4) Staff training
The GDC emphasizes the importance of maintaining accurate records to ensure high standards of patient care and safety.
Not a physical property of propofol:
1) Water based preparation
2) Colour of the solution is white
3) It contains egg lecithin
4) Used as 2% strength
Propofol is oil based preparation containing soybean oil, egg lecithin and glycerol. The colour is milky white and available as 1% and 2% strength.
What is the purpose of using cotton pellets during a pulpotomy procedure?
1) To achieve hemostasis.
2) To remove caries.
3) To reduce occlusal surface.
4) To mix IRM.
Cotton pellets are used to achieve hemostasis during a pulpotomy procedure.
A successful stellate ganglion block can produce:
1) Hypotension
2) Horner syndrome
3) Brachial plexus involvement
4) All of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
All of the above Successful stellate ganglion will produce Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis.
At what age do the sphenoid and mastoid fontanels close?
1) 1 month
2) 3 months
3) 6 months
4) 1 year
The sphenoid fontanel typically closes around 3 months, while the mastoid fontanel closes near the end of the first year.
Which functional assessment tool is commonly used to evaluate the dental
treatment needs of geriatric patients?
1) Barthel Index
2) Katz Index of Independence in Activities of Daily Living (ADL)
3) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
4) Geriatric Depression Scale
The Katz Index assesses a patient's ability to perform daily
activities, influencing their capacity to maintain oral hygiene and attend
dental appointments.
Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is:
1) Thermodynamic action
2) Activation of tissue enzymes
3) Osmotic pressure
4) Protein precipitation
ADC Test Answer: 4
Trichloroacetic acid works by precipitating proteins, which helps in cauterizing tissues and managing lesions.
Tourniquet cannot be released before ....... minutes after Beir's block
1) 5 minutes
2) 10 minutes
3) 30 minutes
4) 60 minutes
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
30 minutes Tourniquet once inflated and drug given, it cannot be released before half an hour as it is assumed that it takes this much time for drug to be completely out of vascular compartment.
Which of the following conditions is an example of a mucous retention
phenomenon?
1) Nasopalatine cyst.
2) Koplik’s spots.
3) Ranula
4) Residual cyst.
A ranula is a mucous cyst caused by obstruction of the sublingual or
submandibular salivary glands.
It presents as a swelling in the floor of the mouth, typically painless unless
infected
What is the cellularity of exocrine glands?
1) Multicellular
2) Unicellular
3) Both multicellular and unicellular
4) None of the above
Most exocrine glands in the human body are multicellular, with the exception of unicellular glands like goblet cells.
The principal internal retention for a Class V amalgam cavity preparation is
established at the
1) occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line angles.
2) mesio-axial and disto-axial line angles.
3) mesio-gingival and disto-gingival line angles.
4) none
These line angles provide resistance and retention in a Class V preparation by
preventing dislodgment of the restoration.
The parasympathetic fibers to pterygopalatine ganglion come from greater petrosal nerve
Which antihypertensive agent is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker?
1) Clonidine
2) Doxazosin
3) Enalapril
4) Furosemide
Doxazosin is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker that works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, reducing blood pressure.
The pain after the application of force after activation during fixed mechanotherapy is likely to disappear within how much time ?
1) 24 hours
2) 2 to 4 days
3) 4 to 8 days
4) 10 days
SOLUTION If heavy pressure is applied to a tooth, pain develops almost immediately as the PDL is literally crushed. If appropriate orthodontic force is applied, the patient feels little or nothing immediately.
There is no excuse for using force levels for orthodontic tooth movement that produce immediate pain of this type.
The pain typically lasts for 2 to 4 days, and then disappears until the orthodontic appliance is reactivated. At that point, a similar cycle may recur, but for almost all patients, the pain associated with the initial activation of the appliance is the most severe.
What should a dental practitioner do if a patient’s blood pressure is 185/115 mmHg? 1) Proceed with all treatments 2) Defer elective treatments, provide only emergency care 3) Treat as normal with local anesthesia 4) Administer sedative and treat immediately
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Blood pressure readings ?180/110 mmHg require deferral of elective treatments, focusing only on emergency care.
What is the primary function of a wedge in oral surgery?
1) To remove teeth
2) To split teeth
3) To expand the tooth socket
4) To elevate the tooth
A wedge is used to create space in the tooth socket, facilitating tooth elevation and reducing the risk of fracture during extraction.
What is the dentist's evaluation of a patient's general health and appearance part of?
- Medical history
- Dental history
- Informed consent
- Treatment plan
The dentist's evaluation of a patient's general health and appearance is a critical component of the medical history, which informs the treatment approach.
The beginning of active eruption of a human tooth occurs 1. before the root has begun to develop 2. coincidental with the beginning of root formation 3. before the root has begun to develop 4. after one half of the root is formed
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4The beginning of active eruption of a human tooth occurs after one half of the root is formed
All are fluorinated anaesthetics except:
1) Methoxyflurane
2) Halothane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Isoflurane
Halothane is fluorinated but does not undergo desfluorination under normal conditions.
What is the most benign tumor among the following options?
1) Kaposi sarcoma
2) Burkitt's lymphoma
3) Adenolymphoma
4) Acinic cell carcinoma
Adenolymphoma, also known as Warthin’s tumor, is a benign glandular tumor typically found in the parotid gland, characterized by two layers of eosinophilic epithelial cells.
What is the altered cast technique used for?
1) Full dentures
2) Tooth-supported dentures
3) Mucosa and tooth-borne partial dentures
4) Single tooth restoration
The altered cast technique is specifically designed to improve the fit of partial dentures by capturing better detail from both the mucosa and the involved teeth.
Which of the following drug can be accumulated in foetus in very significant amount if given to pregnant mother:
1) Thiopentone
2) Propofol
3) Midazolam
4) Lignocaine
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
Lignocaine Local anaesthetic and opioids are bases.
What is the primary goal of behavior management in pediatric dentistry for a child with special needs?
1) Completing the dental treatment as quickly as possible
2) Minimizing the child's fear and anxiety
3) Maximizing parental involvement during procedures
4) Ensuring the child is fully sedated for all dental visits
Behavior management in pediatric dentistry for children with special needs focuses on creating a positive experience and reducing fear and anxiety.