Dentist Abroad
What is the typical duration of pH recovery in the oral cavity after
exposure to sugars or acids?
1) 10 minutes
2) 30 minutes
3) 1 hour
4) 24 hours
Saliva's natural buffering capacity typically allows for pH recovery in the oral cavity within 30 minutes after exposure to acids or sugars. However, this can vary based on individual factors and the presence of protective agents like fluoride.
What is the purpose of a comprehensive medical history in dental care?
- To bill the patient's insurance
- To tailor treatment plans based on the patient's health
- To determine the patient's credit score
- To market dental services to the patient
Knowing the patient's medical history helps the dentist make informed decisions about the patient's treatment and overall care.
The parasympathetic fibers to pterygopalatine ganglion come from greater petrosal nerve
Which type of cells is seen in the late stage of chronic periodontitis?
1) Basophils
2) Eosinophils
3) Lymphocytes
4) Neutrophils
5) Macrophages
In the late stages of chronic periodontitis, macrophages are more prevalent, reflecting ongoing inflammation and tissue destruction.
What is the typical onset of pain for a dry socket?
1) Immediately post-extraction
2) 3-4 days post-extraction
3) 1 week post-extraction
4) 2 weeks post-extraction
Dry socket pain typically starts 3-4 days after tooth extraction due to clot breakdown and bone exposure.
The rough surface of porcelain (porosity) is mainly the result of:
1) Sudden high temperature
2) Lack of compression
3) Inadequate cooling
4) Improper mixing
ADC Test Answer: 2
A rough surface can occur due to insufficient compression during the fabrication of porcelain, leading to porosity and a less smooth finish.
The bull's eye type of appearance in IOPA (Intraoral Periapical radiograph) is
seen in:
1) Lingually placed mandibular third molar
2) Buccally placed mandibular third molar
3) Inverted mandibular third molar
4) Distoangular impaction
The bull's eye appearance on an IOPA radiograph is typically
associated with a lingually positioned mandibular third molar. This appearance
is due to the radiographic projection of the tooth and surrounding structures,
which can create a characteristic circular pattern that resembles a bull's eye.
The presence of schistocytes in a blood smear is indicative of what condition?
1) DIC
2) Thrombocytosis
3) Genetic clotting disorder
4) Stable hemoglobinopathy
Schistocytes, or fragmented red blood cells, are often observed in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and indicate mechanical hemolysis.
The deciduous teeth which provide the adequate space is an important factor in relation of
1) Normal occlusion
2) Malocclusion
3) High caries index
4) Early exfoliation of deciduous teeth
Compared to the permanent dentition the mesio distal diameter of the primary dentition is larger .
All of the following statements are true regarding the cephalosporin antibiotics except 1. they are bactericidal 2. they are ineffective against gram negative microorganisms 3. they are potentially cross allergenic with penicillin 4. they are resistant to penicillinase
Pharmacology Answer: 2cephalosporin are bactericidal, are potentially cross allergenic with penicillin, resistant to penicillinase
The most common permanent tooth found to be ankylosed is
1) 1st molars
2) 2nd molars
3) Canines
4) Premolars
ankylosed teeth are also known as submerged teeth.
submerged teeth are decidous teeth most commonly mandibular second molars
Most common permanant tooth found to be ankylosed is premolars.
What is the recommended practice for handling sharps in the dental office?
1) Recapping needles before disposal
2) Placing used sharps in a designated sharps container immediately after use
3) Reusing needles and syringes
4) Placing sharps in the regular trash
The recommended practice for handling sharps in the dental office is to place them in a designated sharps container immediately after use to prevent accidental injury and reduce the risk of transmission of bloodborne pathogens.
A 58-year-old male presents complaining of sharp pain lasting 30 minutes in his upper left molar region. This pain is elicited by cold stimuli. What is the most likely cause of the pain?
1) Acute/reversible pulpitis
2) Dentin sensitivity
3) Chronic/irreversible pulpitis
4) Periapical periodontitis
The sharp pain triggered by cold that persists post-stimulation indicates that the pulp is most likely irreversibly inflamed.
What is the most critical aspect of communication with geriatric patients?
1) Using technical dental terminology
2) Using complex sentence structures
3) Speaking loudly
4) Being patient and empathetic
Effective communication with elderly patients often involves
patience, empathy, and simplifying explanations to address potential hearing or
cognitive impairments.
What is the correct order for the administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen to a patient?
1) Oxygen for 5 minutes, then nitrous oxide
2) Nitrous oxide for 5 minutes, then oxygen
3) Simultaneous administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen
4) Nitrous oxide for 5 minutes, followed by oxygen for 2 minutes
Nitrous oxide is always administered with oxygen to prevent hypoxia. The typical mixture is 30-50% nitrous oxide with 50-70% oxygen.
Who checks if there is a written protocol for radiation protection in the clinic?
1) The dentist
2) The radiation protection supervisor
3) The clinic manager
4) The health and safety officer
The radiation protection supervisor is responsible for ensuring that protocols are in place and adhered to for the safety of both patients and staff.
Glucose can be synthesised from Glyerol, Acetoacetate, Lactic acid
What is the normal blood glucose level measured with a BM stick?
1) 3-5 mmol
2) 4-7 mmol
3) 6-9 mmol
4) 8-10 mmol
A normal blood glucose level in a fasting patient typically ranges from 4 to 7 mmol/L, critical for assessing metabolic health.
What is the purpose of using a rubber dam during dental procedures?
1) To isolate the operative site from the oral cavity
2) To improve visualization and access
3) To reduce the patient's gag reflex
4) To increase patient comfort
A rubber dam is used to create a barrier between the patient's oral
tissues and the rest of the mouth, thereby reducing the risk of
cross-contamination and protecting the patient and the dental team from bacteria
and saliva.
The point at which a stress of a material exhibits a specific limited deviation P Is called
1) Proportional limit
2) Tensile strength
3) Ultimate strength
4) Yield strength
Yield strength is the stress required to produce plastic deformation.
What enzyme assists microorganisms in the dentin caries process?
1) Enolase
2) Collagenase
3) Amylase
4) Lactoferrin
Enolase plays a crucial role in the metabolic processes of bacteria involved in dentin caries, facilitating their growth and acid production.
What is the purpose of using a biosafety cabinet during dental procedures?
1) To protect the patient from infection
2) To protect the dental staff from infection
3) To protect the environment from infection
4) To protect the instruments from contamination
A biosafety cabinet is used in the dental setting to protect the dental staff from infection by minimizing exposure to aerosols and splatter generated during procedures. It does not directly protect the patient or the environment but is part of a larger infection control strategy.
Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage expected from tissue that is:
1) Fibroedematous
2) Edematous
3) Fibrotic
4) Formed within an infrabony pocket
Edematous tissue contains excess fluid, which can lead to greater shrinkage after curettage compared to fibrotic tissue, which is denser and less likely to shrink significantly.
Untrue about desflurane is:
1) Rapid induction and recovery
2) High vapour pressure
3) Induction is very smooth
4) Does not produce fluoride
Desflurane has a pungent odor, making induction unpleasant and potentially causing laryngospasm or bronchospasm.
What should a dentist do if a patient presents with a dental emergency that appears to be the result of abuse or neglect?
1) Treat the emergency and report the incident to the authorities
2) Refuse treatment until the patient provides a satisfactory explanation for the injury
3) Treat the emergency without reporting the incident
4) Report the incident to the authorities and delay treatment until they arrive
In the case of a dental emergency, the dentist should provide immediate care and report the suspicion of abuse or neglect to the authorities.
The first tapping sound, known as the Korotkoff sound, represents the systolic pressure.
Which of the following lesions cannot be classified as an intra-epithelial lesion?
1) Herpes simplex infections
2) Pemphigus vulgaris
3) Herpangina
4) Lichen planus
ADC Test Answer: 4
Lichen planus is characterized by a band-like infiltrate of lymphocytes at the epithelial-connective tissue interface, rather than being classified as an intra-epithelial lesion.
An increase or decrease in the Y axis is related to:
1) The growth pattern
2) Extrusion of molars
3) Intrusion of molars
4) All of the above
SOLUTION
A patient with an upper complete denture with porcelain teeth and lower anterior natural teeth, what will be the consequences?
1) Bone loss in lower anterior.
2) Flabby ridge.
3) Reduced mastication efficiency.
4) Increased sensation in the lower anterior.
ADC Test Answer: 1
When a patient has a complete denture in the upper arch and natural teeth in the lower arch, the lack of occlusal support from the denture may lead to increased bone resorption in the lower anterior area due to unopposed natural teeth.
Nonselective beta blocker possessing quinidine-like membrane stabilizing effects.
1) pindolol
2) acebutolol
3) sotalol
4) esmolol
Beta-blockers, such as propranolol, labetalol, and pindolol, can have membrane stabilizing effects (eg, quinidinelike effects, Vaughan-Williams class I antiarrhythmic effects).
What are the layers of the skin from innermost to outermost?
1) Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
2) Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
3) Stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale, stratum corneum, stratum lucidum
4) Stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
These layers represent the structure of the epidermis, with the stratum lucidum being thickest on the palms and soles.
What is the primary factor contributing to the increased prevalence of
edentulism in older adults?
1) Decreased salivary flow
4) Reduced bone density
3) Systemic diseases and their treatment
4) Dental anxiety
Systemic diseases such as diabetes and cardiovascular diseases,
along with their treatments, can impact oral health and increase the risk of
tooth loss.
The alpha-1 function post-synaptically at the neuromuscular junction
is responsible for:
1) Smooth muscle contraction
2) Skeletal muscle contraction
3) Cardiac muscle contraction
4) Inhibition of muscle contraction
Alpha-1 receptors mediate the contraction of skeletal muscles.
What protein has I, T, and C subcomponents in muscle fibers?
1) Myosin
2) Actin
3) Troponin
4) Tropomyosin
Troponin is a regulatory protein complex in muscle fibers that includes I (inhibitory), T (tropomyosin-binding), and C (calcium-binding) subcomponents.
What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dysplasia
Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the loss of intercellular adherence of suprabasal spinous cells, leading to acantholysis and the formation of vesicles.
Not a physical property of propofol:
- Water based preparation
- Colour of the solution is white
- It contains egg lecithin
- Used as 2% strength
Propofol is oil based preparation containing soybean oil, egg lecithin and glycerol.
Which of the following is NOT a consideration for endodontic treatment in
the elderly?
1) Diminished pulp vitality
2) Reduced healing capacity
3) Systemic health conditions
4) All of the above are considerations.
While systemic health conditions are a consideration, endodontic
treatment can still be successful in the elderly with careful management and
patient selection.
The increased venous return to the heart causes: 1. End diastolic volume increase 2. End systolic volume decrease 3. Decrease stroke volume 4. Decreased isovolumetric ventricular contraction.
Physiology Answer: 1The increased venous return to the heart causes End diastolic volume increase
Which of the following has highest minimum alveolar concentration?
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Nitrous oxide has the highest MAC value of 104 among all inhalational anaesthetics.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is known for its cardio stability, making it a preferred choice in patients with cardiovascular issues.
Following the injection of 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, a
nervous 22 year old male with well
controlled insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels dizzy and weak. Beads
of sweat have accumulated on
his forehead and upper lip. He is quite pale. The initial management of this
patient is to
1) administer glucagon 1.0mg.
2) administer epinephrine 0.5mg.
3) administer diphenhydramine 50mg.
4) elevate the patient's legs and administer 100% oxygen.
These symptoms suggest vasovagal syncope or hypoglycemia; elevating legs improves circulation, and oxygen supports recovery.
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of ?
1) Generalized tonic clonic seizures
2) Absence seizures
3) Simple partial seizures
4) Complex partial seizures
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures. Other drugs used in the management of absence seizures are valproic acid, lamotrigine and clonazepam.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for dental records according to the GDC?
1) Records must be clear and concise
2) Records must include financial information
3) Records must be contemporaneous
The GDC does not require financial information to be included in dental records; the focus is on clinical and patient care information.
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
What is the main function of EDTA?
1) Antimicrobial agent
2) Chelating agent
3) Local anesthetic
4) Antiseptic
EDTA is a chelating agent that helps in negotiating sclerosed canals and dissolving inorganic components of the smear layer.
Which immunoglobulin exists as both a monomer and a dimer?
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgE
4) IgA
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is unique because it can exist both in a monomeric form found in serum and as a dimer (secretory IgA) predominant in mucosal areas.
The primary purpose of surgical therapy for the treatment of periodontitis is to
1) apically position the flap.
2) eliminate periodontal pockets.
3) remove the ulcerated epithelium of the periodontal pocket.
4) improve access for removal of local etiologic factors.
Surgical therapy, such as flap surgery, aims to expose root surfaces and deep
periodontal pockets.
This improves visibility and access for scaling, root planning, and debridement,
which are critical for removing the etiologic factors of periodontitis (e.g.,
plaque and calculus.
Eliminating these factors allows tissues to heal and reduces pocket depths.
What common oral health problem is characterized by an imbalance between the oral microbiome and oral health?
1) Dental caries
2) Periodontal disease
3) Halitosis
4) Oral thrush
Periodontal disease arises from an imbalance in the oral microbiome, leading to inflammation and destruction of periodontal tissues.
What is the critical pH for fluorapatite?
1) 5.5
2) 6.2
3) 4.5
4) 7.0
Fluorapatite has a critical pH of 4.5, below which demineralization occurs. Fluorapatite has a higher resistance to acid damage compared to hydroxyapatite, with a critical pH of 4.5 for demineralization.
Following drug interact with cefotaxime?
1) Digoxin
2) Paracetamol
3) Loop diuretics
4) Nifedipine
Nephrotoxicity of cephalosporins is accentuated by concurrent administration of loop diuretics.
The loss of tooth structure on the root resorption to the periodontal ligament
is referred to as what?
1) External root resorption
2) Internal root resorption
3) Expanded root resorption
4) None of the above
External root resorption refers to the loss of tooth structure on the root due to resorption by the periodontal ligament. This occurs on the outer surface of the root and is often caused by factors such as trauma, orthodontic treatment, or inflammation. Internal root resorption, on the other hand, refers to the resorption of tooth structure within the root canal. Expanded root resorption and none of the above are not accurate terms to describe the loss of tooth structure on the root due to periodontal ligament resorption.
Which of the following is considered a red flag in a special needs patient's medical history?
1) Non-compliance with appointments
2) Family history of cavities
3) Previous dental trauma
4) Rarely visits the dentist
A history of non-compliance with dental appointments may indicate anxiety or other behavioral issues that need to be addressed for successful treatment.
What happens to the solubility of hydroxyapatite when it undergoes carbonate
substitution?
1) It increases
2) It decreases
3) It remains the same
4) It becomes insoluble
Carbonate substitution in hydroxyapatite increases its solubility, making it more susceptible to decay.
Which type of headgear is most appropriate for the management of a 10 year old patient with an increased lower third of the face, incompetent lips, an Angle Class II malocclusion and vertical maxillary excess?
1) High-pull.
2) Cervical.
3) Combination.
4) Protraction.
The high-pull headgear is used in orthodontics to exert a force on the upper
jaw, pulling it backward and upward. This action aims to correct the vertical
excess and improve the skeletal relationship between the maxilla and the
mandible, thus reducing the overjet and improving the overall facial profile. The high-pull mechanism targets the upper molars and can also help to control
the growth of the upper jaw, guiding it into a more favorable position. It is
often used in growing patients to take advantage of their developing
craniofacial structures.
2) Cervical headgear, on the other hand, is typically used to correct a Class II
malocclusion by providing a downward and backward force on the upper molars. However, it does not have the vertical component needed to address the excessive
vertical growth of the maxilla in this case.
3) Combination headgears can also be used for Class II corrections but may not
be as efficient as a high-pull in addressing the vertical excess specifically.
4) Protraction headgears are used to move the upper jaw forward to correct Class
III malocclusions, where the lower jaw is more prominent. Since the patient has
a Class II malocclusion, this would not be the correct type of headgear.
Consent is needed from a patient to share information. Which of the following needs explicit consent?
1) To share information with an insurance company
2) To share information with other doctors in the practice
3) To share information with the therapist treating the patient
4) To share information with the patient's GP
Sharing information with an insurance company typically requires explicit consent due to privacy concerns and regulations.
Which legislation governs the processing of personal data, including dental records, in the UK?
1) Health and Social Care Act 2008
2) Data Protection Act 2018
3) Access to Health Records Act 1990
4) NHS Records Management Code of Practice
The Data Protection Act 2018 supplements the GDPR and outlines the conditions for processing personal data, including health-related data.
The administration of penicillin G along with probenacid results in 1. increased excretion of probenacid in the feces and perspiration 2. increased excretion of probenacid in urine 3. increased metabolism of penicillin G 4. decreased renal excretion of penicillin G
Pharmacology Answer: 4The administration of penicillin G along with probenacid results in decreased renal excretion of penicillin G
What defines the action of zinc oxide eugenol in promoting healing?
1) Analgesic properties
2) Antibacterial activity
3) Tissue regeneration
4) Promotes rapid bone growth
Zinc oxide eugenol dressings are known for their properties that facilitate healing and promote rapid bone growth in post-extraction sites.
What is the most common complication associated with local anesthesia in the
elderly?
1) Dizziness and lightheadedness
2) Inadvertent intravascular injection
3) Increased risk of infection
4) Prolonged numbness
Due to altered pharmacokinetics, elderly patients may experience prolonged anesthesia and delayed recovery of normal sensation.
The concentration of ketones is increased in body due to: 1. Starvation 2. High fat diet 3. Diabetes mellitus
In the inferior alveolar block, the needle goes through or close to which muscles?
1) Buccinator and superior constrictor
2) Medial and lateral pterygoid
3) Medial pterygoid and superior constrictor
4) Temporal and lateral pterygoid
The inferior alveolar nerve block involves passing the needle close to the buccinator and superior constrictor muscles.
Two important factors for initiation of caries by oral streptococci are 1 production of glucosyl transferase and synthesis of insoluble dextran 2. production of acid and production or protease 3. production of collagenase and pro- duct ion of hyaluronidase 4. fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol and production of protease.
Microbiology Answer: 1Two important factors for initiation of caries by oral streptococci are production of glucosyl transferase and synthesis of insoluble dextran
What is the first step in managing trismus?
1) Prescribing muscle relaxants
2) Applying heat to the affected area
3) Administering corticosteroids
4) Performing surgical intervention
Initial treatment for trismus includes applying heat and administering anti-inflammatory medications to reduce muscle spasm.
What is the most common occupational disease among dentists?
1) Hepatitis B
2) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
3) Tuberculosis
4) Oral cancer
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is the most common occupational disease among dentists due to the repetitive and precise hand movements required in their work.
What enzyme does Streptococcus mutans produce that plays a key role in
converting dietary sugars into extracellular polysaccharides, which contribute
to bacterial adherence and biofilm formation?
1) Amylase
2) Glucosyltransferase (GTF)
3) Fructosyltransferase
4) Sucrase
S. mutans produces glucosyltransferase, which converts dietary sugars, particularly sucrose, into extracellular polysaccharides like glucans and fructans that facilitate bacterial adherence to tooth structures and promote biofilm formation.
What is the difference between a cariogenic diet and a non-cariogenic diet?
1) A cariogenic diet is high in sugars and fermentable carbohydrates, while a
non-cariogenic diet is low in these substances.
2) A cariogenic diet contains more calcium, while a non-cariogenic diet is
deficient in calcium.
3) A cariogenic diet is high in phosphorus, while a non-cariogenic diet is low
in phosphorus.
4) A cariogenic diet is high in fluoride, while a non-cariogenic diet has no
fluoride.
Sugars and fermentable carbohydrates provide substrates for cariogenic bacteria to produce acids, while non-cariogenic diets are lower in these substances and less likely to lead to tooth decay.
When adjusting the occlusal plane of natural teeth opposed by a complete or partial denture, it should be completed:
1) After the teeth have been set on the trial denture.
2) Immediately after making the final casts.
3) Upon delivery of the denture.
4) After the diagnosis and treatment plan has been established.
FPD and RPD Answer: 4Adjusting the occlusal plane is a foundational step that impacts all subsequent processes in prosthetic rehabilitation. This adjustment should be based on a comprehensive diagnosis and treatment plan to ensure compatibility with the patient’s anatomy and function.
Highest incidence of intravascular injection is with:
1) Supraclavicular
2) Interscalene
3) Intercostal
4) Axillary
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
Intercostal Highest blood levels of local anaesthetic per volume injected is seen after intercostal nerve block.
The smear layer present on the root canal wall after cleaning and shaping is
best removed by using
1) EDTA
2) hydrogen peroxide.
3) chlorhexidine.
4) isopropyl alcohol.
EDTA effectively removes the smear layer, allowing for better canal cleaning and
sealer penetration.
What is the purpose of using a rubber dam during a stainless steel crown procedure?
1) To isolate the tooth.
2) To remove caries.
3) To reduce occlusal surface.
4) To mix cement.
A rubber dam is used to isolate the tooth during a stainless steel crown procedure.
What is the effect on local anesthetic when used with sodium bicarbonate?
- Increases speed and quality of anaesthesia
- Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
- Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
- Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
The speed of onset of Anaesthesia is raised by Sodium bicarbonate and further enhances its quality by elevating the intensity and duration of block.
In concentrations usually applied for sterilization purposes, ethylene oxide is preferable to formaldehyde becuase it is more penetrating
Which of the following is an example of a violation of patient confidentiality?
1) Discussing a patient's treatment plan in a private setting
2) Sharing patient information with unauthorized individuals
3) Documenting patient records in a secure location
4) Using initials instead of full names in clinical notes
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Sharing patient information without consent or with unauthorized individuals constitutes a breach of confidentiality and violates ethical and legal standards.
What is the role of SmartConsent technology in informed consent?
1) To
replace the need for consent
2) To standardize and communicate information effectively to patients
3) To eliminate the need for written consent
4) To provide legal protection for healthcare providers
SmartConsent aims to improve how information about risks and benefits is communicated to patients.
Which antibiotic can be safely prescribed to a patient who is on warfarin and is not allergic to penicillin?
1) Clindamycin
2) Erythromycin
3) Penicillin
4) Metronidazole
Penicillin is an appropriate choice for patients who are on warfarin and not allergic to penicillin.
After the age of 6 years, where does the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occur?
1) At the symphysis
2) Between canines
3) Distal to the first molar
4) Ramus
After the age of 6, especially during growth spurts, the mandible increases significantly in height and width, particularly in the ramus region, including the area distal to the first molar.
The nerve damaged if injured at the stylomastoid foramen is:
1) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
2) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN 8)
3) Facial nerve (CN 7)
4) Accessory nerve (CN 11)
The facial nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and is therefore at risk of damage at this location.
Developing roots will split when the:
1) Epithelial diaphragm forms too many lateromedial extensions.
2) Dental follicle cells migrate into the epithelial diaphragm.
3) Cementoblasts fail to develop on and stabilize the root’s surface.
4) Periodontal ligament forms too soon.
Oral Embryology Answer: 1Excessive extensions of the epithelial diaphragm during root development result in root splitting and the formation of supernumerary roots.
The first heart sound relates to 1. Closure of the A-V valves 2. Opening of the A-V valves 3. Excitation of the auricles 4. Closure of the aortic valve
Physiology Answer: 2The first heart sound relates to Opening of the A-V valves
Which antihypertensive class includes drugs that are specifically cardioselective or non-cardioselective?
1) ARBs
2) Beta-blockers
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) Diuretics
Beta-blockers can be cardioselective (e.g., Atenolol) or non-cardioselective (e.g., Propranolol), affecting their selectivity on heart rate.
About lidocaine all are true, except:
1) Dose need to altered in renal failure
2) Loading dose before infusion
3) It is little effected by heat & pH
4) Prolongs refractory period
Local anesthetics are poorly water soluble and this limits their renal excretion (of unchanged drug) to less than 5%.
In Class II preparation, it is difficult to place the gingival seat when preparation is extended too gingivally because the:
1) Enamel rods are directed occlusally
2) Marked cervical constriction
3) Dentin is more sensitive
4) Periodontal attachment is compromised
ADC Test Answer: 2
When a Class II cavity is extended gingivally, the marked cervical constriction of the tooth can make it difficult to adequately place a gingival seat, which is necessary for effective retention and proper contouring of the restoration.
Can informed consent be given over the phone or through email?
1) Yes, as long as the patient signs and returns the form
2) No, it must always be obtained in person
3) It is preferred in person, but alternatives can be used in some cases
4) Only for emergency treatments
Informed consent is typically a face-to-face interaction where the
dentist can assess the patient's understanding and answer questions. However,
some jurisdictions may allow for alternative methods under certain
circumstances, such as telemedicine or in emergencies.
How should the floor of the pulp chamber in molars be prepared?
1) Swab and dry with cotton wool and excavate
2) Use a round bur to flatten the floor
3) Under-cut walls
4) Use a flat-end fissure bur to make it leveled
Preparing the pulp chamber floor involves drying the area and then carefully excavating to ensure a clean and manageable working area without damaging surrounding tissues.
What is the term for the process of cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing
reusable dental handpieces?
1) Decontamination
2) Sterilization
3) Reprocessing
4) Disinfection
Reprocessing refers to the steps taken to prepare reusable dental
handpieces for safe use on another patient, including cleaning, disinfection,
and sterilization.
What is the significance of erosive lichen planus?
1) High malignant potential
2) Some malignant potential
3) No malignant potential
4) Always requires surgical intervention
ADC Test Answer: 2
Erosive lichen planus can carry an increased risk for malignant transformation, but this potential varies among individuals.
What is the main function of glucosyltransferase (GTF) produced by S. mutans?
1) It breaks down bacterial cell walls.
2) It converts sucrose into polysaccharides.
3) It neutralizes acids in saliva.
4) It promotes remineralization.
GTF converts sucrose into extracellular polysaccharides, aiding bacterial adherence to tooth surfaces.
In mixed dentition, which of the following may be considered as a self correcting problem with age?
1) Unilateral loss of primary canine
2) Lack of interdental spaces
3) A distal step
4) Open bite
SOLUTION The possibility that a distal step would become class II is very real, and this not self correcting problem.
Normal child will go through a transitory stage of mandibular incisor crowding at age 8 to 9 even if there will eventually be enough room to accommodate all the permanent teeth in good alignment. In other words, a period when the mandibular incisors are slightly crowded is a normal developmental stage.
Continued development of the arches improves the spacing situation, and by the time the canine teeth erupt, space is once again adequate.
What is the significance of the pH buffering capacity of saliva in
preventing dental caries?
1) It does not affect caries formation
2) It prevents the formation of lactic acid
3) It helps to maintain a pH above the critical threshold for demineralization
4) It promotes the formation of enamel
Saliva's buffering capacity helps to counteract the acidity produced by bacterial fermentation of sugars, maintaining a pH above the critical threshold and preventing demineralization.
madibular first molar normally have 3 root canals
What is the primary ethical concern when a dentist has a conflict of interest?
1) Maintaining personal financial gains
2) Preserving professional reputation
3) Ensuring patient's welfare and trust
4) Fulfilling the duty to provide the best possible treatment
Ensuring patient's welfare and trust
Explanation: When a dentist has a conflict of interest, the primary ethical
concern is the potential for the conflict to compromise the patient's welfare
and trust. It is essential to manage conflicts of interest to ensure that the
dentist's decisions are based solely on the patient's best interests.
In which of the following situations is it most crucial to obtain informed
consent from a patient?
1) Routine dental cleaning
2) Filling a cavity with local anesthesia
3) Extracting a wisdom tooth
4) Performing oral surgery under general anesthesia
Informed consent is crucial for any treatment with significant risks or potential complications. Oral surgery under general anesthesia involves greater risks than routine procedures and thus requires thorough discussion and consent.
Which clinical sign can indicate an open fracture of the mandible? 1) Sublingual hematoma 2) Mobility of fractured teeth 3) Step in the occlusion 4) Presence of blood-stained saliva
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 4Blood-stained saliva, along with evidence of current or prior bleeding from the tooth sockets, is a strong indicator of an open mandibular fracture, where the fracture communicates with the oral cavity.
For a patient with bulimia, what is the best treatment option?
1) Dental restoration
2) Dietary counseling
3) Referral to a psychologist
4) Material restoration
A multidisciplinary approach to bulimia involves addressing psychological factors; referral for psychiatric evaluation is crucial for effective management of this eating disorder.
When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification of dentin matrix then
1 Interglobular dentin is formed
2 Dead tracts are found in formed dentin
3 Irregular dentin results
4 None
Sometimes, mineralization of dentin begins in small globular areas that fail to coalesce into a homogenous mass.
These zones are known as globular dentin or interglobular spaces. Thus, demonstrating defect of mineralization and not of matrix formation, the dentinal tubules pass uninterruptedly through interglobular dentin.
What should be avoided when documenting patient records?
1) Using clear language
2) Omitting relevant information
3) Keeping records up to date
4) Documenting consent
It is crucial to provide a complete picture of the patient's dental health to ensure proper care and treatment planning.
When cavitated carious lesions are present there is
1) exposure of the dentin protein matrix.
2) demineralization by matrix metalloproteinases.
3) bacterial protease inhibition.
4) a denatured inorganic phase.
Matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) are enzymes activated in acidic environments,
which degrade dentin matrix proteins, exacerbating carious lesions.
Inhibition of these enzymes can reduce the progression of dental caries.
Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is:
1) Thermodynamic action
2) Activation of tissue enzymes
3) Osmotic pressure
4) Protein precipitation
ADC Test Answer: 4
Trichloroacetic acid works by precipitating proteins, which helps in cauterizing tissues and managing lesions.
The term cold sterilization has been employed to refer to 1. physical methods of sterilization 2. prolonged exposure to 20° C 3. exposure to low temperature steam 4. chemical disinfection
Microbiology Answer: 4chemical disinfection is cold strelization
When a dentist suspects elder abuse, what is the first step they should take?
1) Confront the caregiver about the suspicion
2) Report the suspicion to the patient's family
3) Report the suspicion to the local Adult Protective Services (APS) agency
4) Treat the patient's dental issues without further action
The first step in suspected elder abuse is to report the concern to Adult Protective Services.
What is the altered cast technique used for?
1) Full dentures
2) Tooth-supported dentures
3) Mucosa and tooth-borne partial dentures
4) Single tooth restoration
The altered cast technique is specifically designed to improve the fit of partial dentures by capturing better detail from both the mucosa and the involved teeth.
In a maxillofacial fracture, if intracranial pressure increases:
1) It is normal
2) Typically associated with tachycardia
3) Associated with blood pressure
4) Usually subsides spontaneously
ADC Test Answer: 3
Increased intracranial pressure can lead to alterations in cerebral blood flow and may cause changes in blood pressure.
Which class of antihypertensive drugs includes drugs like Captopril and Enalapril?
1) Beta-blockers
2) ACE inhibitors
3) ARBs
4) Diuretics
ACE inhibitors like Captopril and Enalapril work by blocking the angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing blood pressure.
Which of the following local anaesthetic is sympathomimetic:
1) Cocaine
2) Procaine
3) Lignocaine
4) Tetracaine
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
What are the main categories of dental records? 1) Diagnostic, treatment, and financial 2) Medical, dental, and surgical 3) Administrative, clinical, and radiographic 4) Patient, treatment, and billing
Dental Records Answer: 3Dental records are generally categorized into three main types: administrative, which include patient information and appointment details; clinical, which encompass the patient's medical and dental history, treatment notes, and progress; and radiographic, which are the imaging studies such as x-rays used to diagnose and plan treatment.
What is the typical duration of action of procaine?
1) 30 minutes.
2) 1-2 hours.
3) 2-4 hours.
4) 4-6 hours.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Procaine is a local anesthetic with a relatively short duration of action, typically lasting 1-2 hours.
What information is included in a dental chart? 1) Patient's name and contact details 2) A visual representation of the patient's teeth and their conditions 3) Treatment notes and plans 4) All of the above
Dental Records Answer: 2A dental chart is a graphic representation of a patient's mouth that includes all teeth, their conditions, restorations, and any other relevant oral information. It does not typically include the patient's name and contact details or extensive treatment notes, which are usually kept in the patient's full dental record.
Who checks if there is a written protocol for radiation protection in the clinic?
1) The dentist
2) The radiation protection supervisor
3) The clinic manager
4) The health and safety officer
The radiation protection supervisor is responsible for ensuring that protocols are in place and adhered to for the safety of both patients and staff.
In classifying molar relation in patient with premature loss of primary molar, additional relation to be noted is
1) Incisor relation
2) Canine relation
3) Midline relation
4) Premolar relation
Orthodontics Answer: 2
SOLUTION
What is the most appropriate management for an avulsed permanent tooth?
1) Rinse with water and replant immediately
2) Store in milk and seek immediate dental care
3) Let the tooth dry out and place it in a coffee cup
4) Wrap in tissue paper and keep in a pocket
Avulsed teeth should be kept moist, ideally in cold milk, saline, or the patient's own saliva, and dental care should be sought immediately for the best chance of successful re-implantation.
What is the kind of bur used for refinement and polishing of composites?
1) Fine carbide.
2) Diamond.
3) Both A and B.
4) Disc.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Both fine carbide burs and diamond burs are effective for the refinement and polishing of composite materials.
For a 26-year-old with a missing lateral incisor, what is the recommended treatment?
1) Dental implant
2) Resin bonded bridge
3) Removable partial denture
4) Orthodontic treatment
In adults, a dental implant is a more permanent and stable solution for replacing a missing tooth.
What type of caries is characterized by a rapid progression and is often light-colored?
1) Chronic caries
2) Arrested caries
3) Acute/rampant caries
4) Incipient caries
Acute/rampant caries are immediately damaging, light-colored, and very infectious.
Iodine is a characteristic component of 1. Cysteine 2. Tyrosine 3. Thyroxine 4. Thiamin
Biochemistry Answer: 3odine is a characteristic component of Thyroxine
Which fracture is most likely to lead to meningitis?
1) Le Fort 1
2) Le Fort 2
3) Le Fort 3
4) Zygomatic
Le Fort 3 fractures involve the craniofacial skeleton extensively and can disrupt the dura mater, increasing the risk of infection and potentially leading to meningitis.
Which of the following best describes ergonomic hazards in dentistry?
1) Exposure to infectious diseases
2) Improper use of dental materials
3) Repetitive motions and awkward postures
4) Chemical exposure from disinfectants
Ergonomic hazards involve physical strain from repetitive motions and awkward postures that can lead to musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals.
The regional lymphatic drainage of the left side of the tip of the tongue is to the?
1) Left submandibular lymph node.
2) Left submental lymph node.
3) Left and right submental lymph nodes
4) Left and right submandibular lymph nodes.
The regional lymphatic drainage of the left side of the tip of the tongue is to the left and right submental lymph nodes.
What is the significance of the danger zone in dental surgery?
1) It indicates areas of high infection risk
2) It is a region where anesthesia is ineffective
3) It is a site for surgical incisions
4) It is a location for dental implants
The danger zone refers to areas of the face where infections can spread to critical structures, such as the cavernous sinus, posing serious health risks.
Protamine sulphate reverses the effect of
1) Meperidine
2) Atropine
3) Hepartn
4) Strychnine.
Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be associated with irreversible aggregation of platelets and treating venous thromboembolism.
Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?
1) Patients commonly complain of postoperative headache
2) An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively
3) There is a profound amnesic action and no side effects
4) Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours postoperatively
5) As a benzodiazepine, the action can be reversed with Flumazenil
Diazepam can cause side effects, including sedation and impaired motor function, and is not free from adverse reactions.
As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?
1) Prophylactic prescription of antibiotics reduces dramatically the chances of infection
2) Raising a lingual flap will increase the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve
3) Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduce postoperative swelling
4) Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root
ADC Test Answer: 2
Raising a lingual flap can increase the risk of temporary nerve injury (neurapraxia) while potentially reducing the risk of more severe nerve damage (neurotmesis).
What is the first step in the standard precautions for infection control in
dental settings?
1) Hand hygiene
2) Use of personal protective equipment
3) Sterilization of instruments
4) Environmental cleaning and disinfection
Hand hygiene is the most important and basic step in infection
control. It involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based
hand sanitizer before and after patient contact to reduce the risk of
transmitting infections.
In patients with anxiety disorders, what is the most common pharmacological option used in the dental setting?
1) Nitrous oxide
2) General anesthesia
3) Local anesthetic
4) Restraints
Nitrous oxide is commonly used for anxiety control due to its safety, rapid onset, and quick recovery time during dental procedures.
A patient with osteitis and pus after a third molar extraction. Which antibiotic should be prescribed?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Metronidazole
3) Clindamycin
4) Cephalexin
Metronidazole is commonly used to treat infections associated with dental procedures, particularly those involving anaerobic bacteria, such as in cases of osteitis.
The largest resting membrane potential is observed in 1. skeletal muscle 2. smooth muscle 3. equal in both 4. -120 mv in resting smooth muscle
Anatomy Answer: 1The largest resting membrane potential is observed in skeletal muscles
Basal cell carcinoma is characterized by:
1) Rapid growth and metastasis
2) Local cutaneous invasion
3) Inability to invade bone
4) Poor prognosis
ADC Test Answer: 2
Basal cell carcinoma typically exhibits local invasion but rarely metastasizes, making it generally treatable with a good prognosis.
The oral lesion of warty dsykeratoma is described as a small whitish area of the mucosa with a central depression
What is the most appropriate initial management of a tooth which is sensitive to
percussion but responds normally to electric pulp testing?
1) Pulpectomy.
2) Occlusal assessment.
3) Pulpotomy.
4) Restoration replacement.
Percussion sensitivity may result from occlusal trauma, which can be corrected by adjusting the bite.
Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off 4. all of the above
Dental Material Answer: 4Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off
A 22-year-old woman presents with acute gingival hypertrophy and spontaneous bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1) Myelogenous leukaemia
2) Infectious mononucleosis
3) Thrombocytopenic purpura
4) Gingivitis of local aetiological origin
The symptoms and blood analysis suggest a hematological disorder, with myelogenous leukaemia being a strong possibility.
What cement do you use to bond an alumina core ceramic crown?
1) Panavia
2) Resin modified glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate
4) Glass ionomer cement
Panavia is a resin cement specifically designed for bonding ceramic restorations, providing strong adhesion to alumina cores.
In an Angle Class I occlusion, the:
1) Distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
2) Mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
3) The primary canines are end-to-end.
4) The permanent canines are end-to-end.
This articulation pattern reflects the normal occlusal relationship in Angle Class I, ensuring proper alignment and functional harmony of the dentition.
White coat hypertension refers to: 1) Low blood pressure when seeing a doctor 2) Elevated blood pressure only in a medical setting 3) Consistently high blood pressure at all times 4) Normal blood pressure at all times
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2White coat hypertension occurs when blood pressure is elevated only in the presence of healthcare workers.
What is the recommended fluoride concentration for community water fluoridation?
1) 0.5 ppm
2) 1.0 ppm
3) 1.5 ppm
4) 2.0 ppm
The recommended fluoride concentration for community water fluoridation is 1.0 ppm, which is effective in reducing dental caries.
Which factor is likely implicated in the excessive fibrinolysis observed in localized alveolar osteitis?
1) Platelets
2) Fibrinogen
3) Plasmin
4) Thrombin
Excessive local fibrinolytic activity, primarily due to elevated levels of plasmin, is implicated in the development of localized alveolar osteitis after tooth extractions.
Which of these is the ideal appliance for correction of posterior cross bite due to digit sucking habit?
1) Tongue spikes
2) Hay rakes
3) Maxillary lingual arch with palatal crib
4) Quad helix
Classification of appliances for thumb-sucking
1.
a. Tongue spikes
b. Tongue guard
c. Spurs/rake
2 Fixed appliances
a. Quad helix
b. Hay rakes
c. Maxillary lingual arch with palatal crib
The ideal appliance to correct posterior cross-bite caused due to digit sucking is Quad Helix. It is a lingual arch which is adjustab and needs very little patient cooperation because it is fixed and is reliable and easy to use.
When treating a special needs patient, what is the most important initial step?
1) Begin treatment immediately
2) Obtain a detailed medical history
3) Discuss treatment costs
4) Schedule a follow-up appointment
A detailed medical history helps identify any special considerations, medication interactions, and the patient's specific needs before treatment.
What is the main requirement of the Data Protection Act 2018 concerning patient records?
- Records must be kept for at least 10 years
- Records must be encrypted at all times
- Records must be kept securely and confidentially
- Records must be backed up daily
The Data Protection Act 2018 requires dental practices to secure patient records and restrict access to authorized personnel only to safeguard patient confidentiality.
What is the primary purpose of a dental sealant?
1) To improve aesthetics
2) To prevent tooth decay
3) To strengthen enamel
4) To whiten teeth
Dental sealants are primarily used to prevent tooth decay by sealing the grooves and pits on the chewing surfaces of teeth, making them less susceptible to plaque accumulation.
Non-selective beta-blockers can lead to excessive blood pressure changes when used with adrenalin.
Apoptosis is suggestive of?
1. liquifaction degeneration
2 coagulation necrosis
3 neo angiogenesis
4 eithelial dysplasia
Cells die by one of two mechanisms – necrosis or apoptosis • Two physiologically different processes – Necrosis – death by injury – Apoptosis – death by suicide Appoptosis: Disintegration of cells into membrane-bound particles that are then eliminated by phagocytosis or by shedding.
Consent is needed from a patient to share information. Which of the following requires explicit consent?
1) To share information with an insurance company
2) To share information with other doctors in the practice
3) To share information with the therapist treating the patient
4) To share information with the patient's General Medical Practitioner (GMP)
Sharing patient information with an insurance company typically requires explicit consent due to the sensitive nature of the information and privacy regulations.
What information should be clearly noted in the dental record when multiple dental practitioners are involved?
- The name of the primary dentist only
- The name and specialty of each practitioner who renders treatment
- The fee charged by each dentist
- The patient's preferred dentist
It is essential to have a clear record of which practitioner provided specific treatments for legal and quality assurance purposes.
Ankylosed primary second molars may clinically exhibit
1) percussion sensitivity.
2) infra-occlusal position.
3) temperature sensitivity.
4) buccolingual displacement.
Ankylosed teeth fail to erupt with the adjacent teeth, leading to an infra-occlusal appearance as the jaw grows.
What is the primary cause of an elevator fracture during tooth extraction?
1) Excessive force
2) Incorrectly angled elevator
3) Weak tooth structure
4) Inadequate anesthesia
Applying too much force can lead to tooth fracture, especially if the elevator is not inserted correctly.
Local anesthesia depends on:
1) Strength bond between drug and nerve.
2) Strength bond between drug and its intensity.
3) Bond between drug and time of removal from the body.
4) All of the above.
ADC Test Answer: 1
The effectiveness of local anesthesia is primarily determined by how well the anesthetic agent binds to nerve tissues.
What causes clasp breakage in removable partial dentures
(RPD)?
1) Excessive force
2) Work hardening
3) Poor design
4) Material fatigue
Clasp breakage in removable partial dentures (RPDs) is often attributed to work hardening of the metal used in the clasps. Work hardening occurs when the metal is subjected to repeated stress, causing it to become more brittle and less ductile. This increased brittleness can lead to fractures under normal functional loads, making proper design and material selection critical in RPD construction.
What concentration of sodium fluoride toothpaste is prescribed for patients aged 10 years and over with high caries risk?
1) 1,000 ppm
2) 2,800 ppm
3) 5,000 ppm
4) 10,000 ppm
Sodium fluoride toothpaste with 2,800 ppm is recommended for patients aged 10 years and above who have a high risk of caries.
Continuous education and training for dental staff on infection control practices are vital for maintaining a safe environment and reducing the risk of infection.
Pethidine should not be given with:
1) Reserpine
2) Propranolol
3) Atenolol
4) MAO inhibitors
Pethidine can cause severe excitatory response and arrhythmias in patients on MAO therapy.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions. A full dental record, on the other hand, includes the patient's medical and dental history, treatment plans, x-rays, notes from appointments, consent forms, and other relevant information about the patient's oral health.
The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a 1. significant increase in number of oral bacteria 2. shift towards a more acidogenic microflora 3 significant decrease in number of oral bacteria 4 shift towards a more aerobic micro flora
Microbiology Answer: 2The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a shift towards a more acidogenic microflora
Which ethical principle emphasizes the importance of doing no harm to patients?
1) Autonomy
2) Beneficence
3) Non-maleficence
4) Justice
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 3Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that requires healthcare providers to avoid causing harm to patients. It is a fundamental tenet of medical ethics.
What is the role of saliva in the oral cavity?
1) Lubrication of food
2) Protection against bacteria
3) pH buffering
4) All of the above
Saliva plays multiple roles in the oral cavity, including lubrication, antimicrobial action, and buffering of pH, which helps maintain oral health.
Why is the J chain important for IgA and IgM functionality?
1) It enhances synthesis speed.
2) It promotes cellular uptake.
3) It aids in the formation of dimers and pentamers.
4) It blocks the action of pathogens.
The J chain is crucial for the assembly of immunoglobulin dimers (for IgA) and pentamers (for IgM), enabling them to function effectively as first-line defenses in mucosal surfaces by preventing pathogen adherence.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining accurate and complete dental records?
1) To comply with legal requirements
2) To facilitate effective communication among dental professionals
3) To ensure proper patient care and treatment planning
4) All of the above
Accurate and complete dental records serve multiple purposes, including legal documentation, communication among dental professionals, patient care and treatment planning, and insurance reimbursement. They are essential for continuity of care, patient safety, and practice management.
What is the primary function of salivary IgA?
1) To neutralize bacterial toxins
2) To prevent bacterial adhesion to tooth surfaces
3) To initiate the immune response against caries-causing bacteria
4) To provide a source of calcium for remineralization
Salivary IgA is an antibody that specifically targets bacteria in the mouth, helping to prevent their colonization and the initiation of the caries process.
A panoramic radiograph taken at 10 years of age is indicated to:
1) Measure the space between the temporomandibular joint disc and the condyle.
2) Calculate the amount of crowding in the maxilla.
3) Predict the probability of canine impaction.
4) Assess the severity of midline deviation.
Pediatric Dentistry Answer: 3A panoramic radiograph at this age is particularly useful to evaluate the eruption path of permanent canines, allowing early identification and management of potential impaction.
Alkalinization of urine is done during administration of which of the following chemotherapeutic drugs?
1) Ara-C (Cytarabine)
2) Methotrexate
3) Cisplatin
4) Ifosfamide
Alkalinization of urine is used in patients receiving high dose methotrexate to promote renal excretion and to avoid nephrotoxicity IV Sodium bicarbonate is used to maintain urine pH above 7.0 to avoid precipitation of methotrexate (a weak acid) in the acid pH of renal tubules
Which of the following cements bonds to tooth structure, has an anticariogenic effect, has a degree of translucency and does not irritate the pulp? 1. Polycarboxylate cement 2. Resin cement 3. Silicate cement 4. Glass Ionomer cement
Dental Material Answer: 4GIC has an anticarious anticariogenic effect, It binds to tooth structure, Does not irritate the pulp tissue
What is the minimum platelet level at which dental extractions can be safely performed?
1) 50 x 109/L
2) 75 x 109/L
3) 100 x 109/L
4) 150 x 109/L
Surgical procedures can be performed if platelet levels are above 50 x 109/L.
The modulus of elasticity is defined as:
1) The point of material failure
2) The stress at the proportional limit
3) The ratio of stress to strain within the proportional limit
4) The maximum strain before yielding
ADC Test Answer: 3
The modulus of elasticity quantifies a material's resistance to deformation when stress is applied, specifically describing the linear relationship between stress and strain.
Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent in dentistry?
1) Explanation of the diagnosis
2) Description of the proposed treatment
3) Discussion of the risks and benefits of the treatment
4) Patient's agreement to pay for the treatment
While financial considerations are important in the overall decision-making process, informed consent specifically pertains to the patient's understanding and agreement to the medical aspects of the treatment, not the financial agreement.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a high-risk patient?
1) 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient
2) 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient
3) Level of viruses are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
4) Level of virus in saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
ADC Test Answer: 2
Hepatitis B is known to be significantly more infectious than HIV, and small amounts of Hepatitis B virus can lead to transmission.
Which of the following is a physical sign that a dental patient may be a victim
of abuse?
1) A history of poor oral hygiene
2) Multiple missing teeth
3) Evidence of previous dental restorations
4) Inconsistent explanations of dental injuries
Explanation: While poor oral hygiene and missing teeth can be indicators of
neglect, they are not exclusively signs of abuse. However, if a patient provides
inconsistent explanations for their injuries, it may raise suspicion of abuse. Dentists should be attentive to the patient's history and any inconsistencies
that could suggest intentional harm.
What is a secondary caries lesion?
1) A lesion that occurs on the surface of a restored tooth
2) A lesion that occurs only in the presence of fluoride
3) A lesion that is limited to the enamel surface
4) A lesion that occurs only in children
Secondary or recurrent caries occur at the junction of the tooth and a restoration, often due to microleakage or inadequate oral hygiene.
The bacteria having the highest lipid Content in the cell wall Mycobacterium tuberculosis
What is the correct sequence of events in tooth development?
1) Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then enamel formation
2) Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of enamel epithelium
3) Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation
4) None of the above
ADC Test Answer: 3
The processes in tooth development unfold with the elongation of the enamel epithelium followed by odontoblast differentiation and the sequential formation of dentine and enamel.
What is the primary concern with a mesinangular impaction?
1) It is highly susceptible to infection
2) It is the most difficult to remove
3) It has the highest risk of damaging the adjacent teeth
4) It is associated with the lowest incidence of pericoronitis
Mesinangular impaction is the most common and least difficult type of impaction but is often associated with pericoronitis due to its position and difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene.
A 6 year old child has a non-vital primary mandibular second molar which has a
draining sinus tract from he bifurcation area The most appropriate management
is
1) extraction.
2) observation.
3) pulpotomy.
4) direct pulp capping.
Which bacteria is primarily associated with enamel caries?
1) Lactobacillus
2) Actinomyces
3) Streptococcus mutans
4) Porphyromonas gingivalis
S. mutans is a major contributor to enamel caries due to its acidogenic and aciduric properties.
Which of the following best describes the concept of "informed refusal"?
1) A patient agreeing to treatment without understanding the risks
2) A patient declining treatment after being fully informed of the risks and benefits
3) A dentist refusing to treat a patient
4) A patient who is unable to make decisions about their care
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Informed refusal occurs when a patient, after being provided with all necessary information regarding a treatment option, chooses not to proceed with it. This respects the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but
that it is still intact. Your instructions should be to
1) put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day.
2) place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately. .
3) put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately.
4) place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately.
Placing an avulsed tooth in milk is recommended because it helps preserve the vitality of the periodontal ligament cells. Milk has a similar osmolality to that of human cells, which can help keep the cells alive until the patient can receive professional dental care. Immediate treatment is crucial for the best chance of successful re-implantation.
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious?
1) Hypotension
2) Hepatotoxicity
3) Uterine neoplasia
4) Thromboembolism disorder
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thromboembolism is a significant risk associated with oral contraceptives, particularly in women with additional risk factors.
Fastest route of absorption of local anaesthetic is?
1) Intercostal
2) Epidural
3) Brachial
4) Caudal
The fastest route for absorption of LA is intercostal block, due to close location of blood vessel around the nerve, so that is why LA are rapidly taken by in intercostal block.
What is the first step in the "Tell-Show-Do" technique for explaining a dental procedure to an anxious patient?
1) Show the patient what will happen
2) Describe the sensation the patient might feel
3) Tell the patient what you are going to do
4) Perform the procedure
The Tell-Show-Do technique involves explaining the procedure in simple terms, demonstrating it with a model or the patient's hand, and then performing the actual procedure.
What information is included in a dental chart?
1) Patient's name and contact details
2) A visual representation of the patient's teeth and their conditions
3) Treatment notes and plans
4) All of the above
A dental chart is a graphic representation of a patient's mouth that includes all teeth, their conditions, restorations, and any other relevant oral information.
Ameloblastoma is the most aggressive:
1) Odontogenic tumor
2) Benign tumor
3) Malignant tumor
4) Fibrous tumor
Ameloblastoma is a benign but locally aggressive tumor of odontogenic origin, meaning it arises from the tissues that form teeth.
Which of the following is a sign of neglect in a dental patient?
1) A patient with a full set of dentures
2) A child with untreated dental decay and poor nutrition
3) A patient who regularly attends dental appointments
4) A patient who is anxious about dental procedures
Untreated dental decay and poor nutrition can indicate neglect, especially in children who rely on caregivers for proper care.
Heparin
1) is a glycosaminoglycan
2) potentiates thrombin
3) has a half life of 3-4 hours
4) is normally given IM
GlycosaminoglycAnswer (GAGs) are heteropolysaccharides.
Which of the following is derived entirely from Meckel's cartilage?
1) Incus
2) Malleus
3) Stapes
4) Mandible
The malleus is derived from Meckel's cartilage, while the incus and mandible develop from other embryonic structures.
Which of the following is used to decrease the toxicity of amphotericin B?
1) Dose reduction
2) Liposomal delivery systems
3) Supplementing glucose
4) Giving it along with flucytosine
Liposomal delivery systems decrease the amount of free drug in the blood Infected cells interact with the liposomes, resulting in the release of amphotericin B at the site of action.
Which is harder?
1) Amalgam.
2) Composite.
3) Type IV gold.
4) Glass ionomer.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Type IV gold is the hardest material compared to amalgam, composite, or glass ionomer.
A 45-year-old patient awoke with a swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and edema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. The likely condition is:
1) Acute periapical abscess
2) Angioneurotic edema
3) Infectious mononucleosis
4) Acute maxillary sinusitis
ADC Test Answer: 2
Angioneurotic edema, or angioedema, involves rapid swelling of the deeper layers of the skin and can cause facial swelling without dental complaints, often following an allergic reaction.
Highest analgesic effect is a feature of:
1) Ketamine
2) Thiopentone
3) Propofol
4) Etomidate
Ketamine is a very potent analgesic (maximum analgesia among all IV anaesthetics).
In providing treatment to older adults, which ethical principle is most
important?
1) Autonomy
2) Beneficence
3) Non-maleficence
4) Justice
Respecting an elderly patient's autonomy is crucial for ethical treatment, ensuring informed consent and patient-centered care.
What is a potential use of dental records in forensic dentistry?
1) To determine the patient's insurance coverage
2) To identify a dead or missing person
3) To track treatment costs
4) To evaluate staff performance
Dental records can provide antemortem information that assists forensic odontologists in identifying deceased individuals.
The most common failure in constructing porcelain-to-metal restorations is due to:
1) Improper metal framework
2) Rapid heating
3) Poor porcelain layering
4) Inadequate glazing
ADC Test Answer: 1
The failure of porcelain-to-metal restorations frequently arises from a poorly constructed metal framework, which compromises the bond between the two materials.
Endogenous morphine-like substances that can control pain are known as:
1) Bradykinins
2) Enkephalins
3) Prostaglandins
4) Serotonins
ADC Test Answer: 2
Enkephalins are opioid peptides that play a significant role in pain regulation and are produced by the body.
After completion of root canal therapy on a maxillary first premolar with
moderate mesial and distal lesions and intact buccal and lingual surfaces, the
restoration of choice is a/an
1) MOD composite resin.
2) MOD onlay.
3) MOD pin retained amalgam.
4) MOD bonded amalgam.
An onlay provides superior protection and strength for teeth with compromised structure, especially on premolars.
What is the white line in Winter's classification of third molar impaction?
1) Indicates the level of the tooth's root apex
2) Indicates the amount of bone covering the tooth
3) Indicates the difference in occlusal level of 1st and 2nd molars
4) Indicates the depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest
The white line in Winter's classification runs touching the occlusal surfaces of the 1st and 2nd molars and extends posteriorly, indicating the occlusal plane and the level of the impacted tooth.
For a pigmented fissure, what is the best way to diagnose caries?
1) Visual examination
2) Radiographic examination
3) Investigate the area with a round bur
4) Transillumination
Investigating the area with a round bur allows for direct assessment of the fissure and any underlying carious lesions.
Which treatment is most effective for a patient exhibiting type I hypersensitivity to a kiwi?
1) Antihistamines
2) Corticosteroids
3) Immediate epinephrine
4) Intravenous fluids
For severe anaphylactic reactions related to type I hypersensitivity, such as from kiwi, immediate epinephrine administration is crucial for reversal of symptoms.
What is the percentage of leukocytes required for extraction to be carried out?
1) 30 x 10^9
2) 50 x 10^9
3) 70 x 10^9
4) 100 x 10^9
A leukocyte count of 50 x 10^9 is often considered a threshold for safely performing dental extractions, as it indicates adequate immune function.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides:
1) Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
2) Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
3) Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may cause Kernicterus
4) Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to Norcardia species
Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT Sulfasalazine is poorly absorbed (10-20%) from the GIT .
How long should dental radiographs be retained for adults?
1) 5 years
2) 7 years
3) 11 years
4) 15 years
Dental radiographs for adults should be retained for 11 years per guidelines, ensuring proper follow-up and legal compliance.
What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet in a dental laboratory?
1) To provide a sterile work environment
2) To protect the technician from inhaling dust
3) To prevent cross-contamination
4) To store sterile materials
A biosafety cabinet provides a controlled environment with laminar
airflow to protect the technician and the materials from cross-contamination
during procedures involving infectious materials.
What antibiotic is commonly prescribed for chronic sinusitis?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Doxycycline
3) Azithromycin
4) Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline is often used to treat chronic sinusitis due to its effectiveness against a range of bacteria that can cause sinus infections.
Which treatment is best for an alveolar abscess?
1) Endontic treatment or extraction.
2) Incision and drainage alone.
3) Extraction.
4) Endodontic treatment.
ADC Test Answer: 1
An alveolar abscess can be treated with either endodontic therapy (root canal treatment) to save the tooth or extraction if the tooth is non-restorable or if the patient does not wish to preserve it.
In myasthenia gravis, which medication is generally contraindicated?
1) Penicillin
2) Erythromycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Amoxicillin
Erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, is often avoided in patients with myasthenia gravis because it can exacerbate muscle weakness by interfering with neuromuscular transmission. Macrolides, including erythromycin, can cause neuromuscular blocking side effects that mimic or worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. This is due to their ability to bind to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, similar to the action of the autoantibodies in the disease.