Dentist Abroad
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in therapeutic doses?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Clindamycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Tetracycline
Clindamycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal cramps, even at therapeutic doses.
Which of the following conditions is an example of a mucous retention
phenomenon?
1) Nasopalatine cyst.
2) Koplik’s spots.
3) Ranula
4) Residual cyst.
A ranula is a mucous cyst caused by obstruction of the sublingual or
submandibular salivary glands.
It presents as a swelling in the floor of the mouth, typically painless unless
infected
What is the appropriate dosage of epinephrine for an 8-year-old child experiencing anaphylaxis?
1) 0.15 ml of 1:1000
2) 0.3 ml of 1:1000
3) 0.5 ml of 1:1000
4) 0.05 ml of 1:1000
For children experiencing anaphylactic shock, the common practice is to administer 0.15 ml of 1:1000 epinephrine, dependent on their weight and severity of symptoms.
What is the significance of the danger zone in dental surgery?
1) It indicates areas of high infection risk
2) It is a region where anesthesia is ineffective
3) It is a site for surgical incisions
4) It is a location for dental implants
The danger zone refers to areas of the face where infections can spread to critical structures, such as the cavernous sinus, posing serious health risks.
Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent in dentistry?
1) Explanation of the diagnosis
2) Description of the proposed treatment
3) Discussion of the risks and benefits of the treatment
4) Patient's agreement to pay for the treatment
While financial considerations are important in the overall decision-making process, informed consent specifically pertains to the patient's understanding and agreement to the medical aspects of the treatment, not the financial agreement.
Which of the following statements about muscle fibers is correct?
1) The A band is made of Myosin
2) Troponin combines with calcium
3) Troponin has I, T, and C subcomponents
4) All of the above
All the statements are correct.
Which of the following methods of instrument sterilization uses the lowest
temperature?
1) Steam autoclave.
2) Dry heat oven.
3) Ethylene oxide method
4) Glass bead sterilizer.
The ethylene oxide method of sterilization operates at lower temperatures compared to steam autoclaves and dry heat ovens. It is particularly useful for heat-sensitive instruments, as it can effectively sterilize at temperatures around 30-60°C, making it suitable for materials that cannot withstand higher temperatures.
A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotics for oral infection; this is an example of:
1) Type I allergic reaction
2) Nervous disorder
3) Side effect of the drug
4) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
ADC Test Answer: 3
Gastrointestinal upset is a common side effect of antibiotics, occurring due to their impact on gut flora and digestive processes.
Which functional assessment tool is commonly used to evaluate the dental
treatment needs of geriatric patients?
1) Barthel Index
2) Katz Index of Independence in Activities of Daily Living (ADL)
3) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
4) Geriatric Depression Scale
The Katz Index assesses a patient's ability to perform daily
activities, influencing their capacity to maintain oral hygiene and attend
dental appointments.
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of ?
1) Generalized tonic clonic seizures
2) Absence seizures
3) Simple partial seizures
4) Complex partial seizures
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures. Other drugs used in the management of absence seizures are valproic acid, lamotrigine and clonazepam.
You are interested in finding out what the risk indicators are for a rare form of oral cancer. What type of study would be the most appropriate for addressing this issue?
1) Cohort
2) Prevalence study
3) Clinical trial
4) Case-control study
A case-control study is ideal for investigating risk factors for rare diseases, as it compares individuals with the disease to those without.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but
that it is still intact. Your instructions should be to
1) put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day.
2) place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately. .
3) put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately.
4) place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately.
Placing an avulsed tooth in milk is recommended because it helps preserve the vitality of the periodontal ligament cells. Milk has a similar osmolality to that of human cells, which can help keep the cells alive until the patient can receive professional dental care. Immediate treatment is crucial for the best chance of successful re-implantation.
You notice a lesion on the labial alveolar mucosa of the lower right lateral incisor tooth of one of your patients and decide to take a biopsy. Which nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy?
1) The lingual nerve
2) The buccal nerve
3) The incisive nerve
4) The mental nerve
The incisive nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy.
After performing an apicoectomy, which of the following should be placed in the
bony defect prior to suturing the flap?
1) Corticosteroids.
2) Nothing.
3) Oxidized cellulose.
4) Bone wax.
In most cases, after an apicoectomy, it is standard practice to leave the bony defect empty (nothing placed) to allow for natural healing and bone regeneration. The area is typically sutured closed without the addition of materials, as this can promote better healing and reduce the risk of complications.
Fusion Temperature of Impression Compound should occur: 1. Before mouth temperature 2.. At skin temperature 3. Ahove mouth temperature 4. At room temperature
Dental Material Answer: 3Fusion Temperature of Impression Compound should occur above mouth temperature
The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth
would most likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the
1) mesial of a mandibular first premolar.
2) distal of a mandibular first premolar.
3) distal of a mandibular first molar.
4) mesial of a mandibular first molar.
The mesial aspect of the mandibular first molar is often more prone to periodontal ligament perforation when placing retentive pins due to the anatomy of the tooth and the proximity of the root to the periodontal ligament. The mesial root is typically larger and has a more complex canal system, which can increase the risk of perforation if the pin is not placed carefully.
Which component of a partial denture framework provides the best indirect retention?
1) Rest.
2) Circumferential clasp.
3) Lingual strap.
4) Proximal plate.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Rests prevent rotational forces around the fulcrum line, contributing to effective indirect retention. They stabilize the framework and minimize dislodgement.
Which class of drugs has been implicated in the development of thrombotic and bleeding complications in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) NSAIDs
2) Vitamin K antagonists
3) ACE inhibitors
4) Statins
NSAIDs can exacerbate bleeding complications by affecting platelet function and are linked to increasing the risk of angioedema.
The position of the cusps of the maxillary first premolar is:
1) Distally positioned
2) Mesially positioned
3) Centrally positioned
4) Lingually positioned
ADC Test Answer: 2
In occlusion, the cusp tips of the maxillary first premolar are slightly mesially positioned, which affects alignment and functional performance.
The point at which a stress of a material exhibits a specific limited deviation P Is called
1) Proportional limit
2) Tensile strength
3) Ultimate strength
4) Yield strength
Yield strength is the stress required to produce plastic deformation.
A picture of the gingiva of a black person with melanin pigmentation and a white line across the central incisors. What is the cause of the white line?
1) Amelogenesis imperfecta
2) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
3) Hypo-mineralization
4) Fluorosis
The white line is likely due to hypo-mineralization, which can occur due to various factors, including nutritional deficiencies or environmental influences.
Epidural space has negative pressure in:
1) 20%
2) 30%
3) 50%
4) 80%
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
80°/" Epidural space has negative pressure in more than 80% of individuals.
What is the kind of bur used for refinement and polishing of composites?
1) Fine carbide.
2) Diamond.
3) Both A and B.
4) Disc.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Both fine carbide burs and diamond burs are effective for the refinement and polishing of composite materials.
Ipratropium bromide is useful in bronchial asthma because of
1) Anticholinergic effect
2) Vasodilator properties
3) Antiallergic action
4) Stabilization of mast cells
Ipratropium (as ipratropium bromide, trade name Atrovent) is an anticholinergic drug administered by inhalation for the treatment of obstructive lung diseases. It acts by blocking muscarinic receptors in the lung, inhibiting bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion. It is a non-selective muscarinic antagonist, and does not diffuse into the blood, which prevents systemic side effects.
Ipratropium is a derivative of atropine[1] but is a quaternary amine and therefore does not cross the blood-brain barrier
The first ossification center of the mandible in six weeks old human embryo is found in which of the following locations
1) Future coronoid process
2) Future condylar process
3) Future mental foramen
4) Future mandibular foramen
SOLUTION The mandible is ossified in the fibrous membrane covering the outer surfaces of Meckel’s cartilages. These cartilages form the cartilaginous bar of the mandibular arch, and are two in number, a right and a left. Ossification takes place in the membrane covering the outer surface of the ventral end of Meckel’s cartilage , and each half of the bone is formed from a single center which appears, near the mental foramen, about the sixth week of fetal life. By the tenth week the portion of Meckel’s cartilage which lies below and behind the incisor teeth is surrounded and invaded by the membrane bone
A patient on diuretics may experience which oral side effect? 1) Xerostomia (dry mouth) 2) Gingival hyperplasia 3) Stomatitis 4) Facial swelling
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 1Diuretics can lead to xerostomia, commonly observed in patients on long-term antihypertensive therapy.
Thiamine is useful in:
1) Collagen synthesis
2) Clotting factor production
3) Epithelial integrity
4) Cellular energy production
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) is a vital coenzyme in the metabolism of carbohydrates, playing a crucial role in the production of energy.
All of following are effects of being unassertive, except:
1) Having low self-esteem.
2) Becoming aggressive.
3) Having a lack of purpose.
4) Developing social anxiety.
Being unassertive can lead to various negative effects, such as having low self-esteem, developing social anxiety, and having a lack of purpose. However, becoming aggressive is not typically associated with being unassertive. In fact, individuals who are unassertive may tend to avoid confrontation and conflict, which is the opposite of aggression.
Highest analgesic effect is a feature of:
1) Ketamine
2) Thiopentone
3) Propofol
4) Etomidate
Ketamine is a very potent analgesic, providing maximum analgesia among all IV anaesthetics.
A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you consider?
1) Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socket
2) Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa
3) Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal.
4) Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment.
ADC Test Answer: 4
The best approach is to create a mucoperiosteal flap, remove the cyst through an opening in the alveolar bone, and then perform endodontic treatment.
Epinephrine causes increased blood glucose level due to: 1. Increased glycogenolysis in liver and muscle 2. Activation of phosphorylase 3. Inhibition of glycogen synthesis in liver
The basic principle of Orthodontic spot welder lies on the concept of :-
1 Heat technique
2) Quenching
3) Diodelasers
4) Electrode Technique
SOLUTION The type of welding used to join Orthodontic components is called Spot welding.
1. Transmit current to the metals to be joined so as to cause a rapid increase in temperature.
2. The electrodes help in conducting the heat produced away from the area so as to preserve the properties of stainless steel around the weld spot.
3. The electrode also help in holding together the two metals to be joined.
4. The electrodes are designed to apply pressure on the metals being joined. As soon as the temperature increases, the pressure exerted by the electrodes helps in squeezing metal into each other.
Which vitamin deficiency can lead to scurvy, affecting gingival tissues?
1) Vitamin A
2) Vitamin B12
3) Vitamin C
4) Vitamin D
Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakened collagen synthesis and can result in bleeding gums and other oral health issues.
Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with
1) inadequate periodontal support.
2) pulp stones.
3) constricted root canals.
4) accessory canals.
Endodontic therapy is contraindicated in teeth with inadequate periodontal support because the success of the treatment relies on the health of the surrounding periodontal tissues. If the periodontal support is compromised, the tooth may not be able to withstand the forces of occlusion, leading to failure of the endodontic treatment.
Where should you ideally place your finger support when performing operative treatment in the oral cavity?
1) Tooth
2) Gingiva
3) Cheek
4) Chin
5) Lip
Supporting your hand on a tooth provides a stable base for performing precise dental procedures and reduces the risk of accidental injury to soft tissues.
A woman aged 48 years visits a dermatologist to have a mole removed.
The patient tells her physician that she got allergic reaction to a local
anaesthetic the last time she had undergone dental work.
Investigation of the lady's dental records by her dentist discloses that the
patient received procaine for a tooth extraction.
Among the following alternatives, which drug would be suitable for the present
procedure?
1 Benzocaine
2 Chloroprocaine
3 Tetracaine
4 Mepivacaine
Two classes of local anaesthetics exist namely:
Esters Amides
The rule of thumb describes that in case you are allergic to one drug in a given
class (generally the ester class), you will also be allergic to other drugs of
the same class.
The lady received procaine which is an ester in the present case.
Hence, we need to identify Amide in the list of answers.
Mepivacaine is the only amide listed here.
Other amide local anaesthetics include:
Prilocaine Ropivacaine Lidocaine Bupivacaine Etidocaine
What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dyskeratosis
Acantholysis is the key histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of vesicles and ulcers in the oral mucosa.
Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
1) Propofol
2) Ketamine
3) Atracurium
4) Fentanyl
Ketamine increases cerebral O2 consumption.
madibular first molar normally have 3 root canals
Which of the following is a common challenge in providing dental care to patients with Alzheimer's disease?
1) Difficulty in understanding and following instructions
2) Increased tolerance for pain and discomfort
3) Enhanced manual dexterity for oral hygiene
4) Decreased sensitivity to taste and smell
Alzheimer's disease is characterized by cognitive impairment, which can make it challenging for patients to follow complex instructions or remember to perform oral hygiene tasks.
Which of the following is NOT a type of dental charting?
1) Periapical charting
2) Periodontal charting
3) Full mouth series charting
4) Panoramic charting
Panoramic radiographs are not a type of charting. They are a type of radiograph that provides a two-dimensional view of the entire mouth on a single film. The other options Periapical charting, Periodontal charting, Full mouth series charting, and Bitewing charting refer to different types of charting that are used to document specific dental conditions, such as the presence of cavities or periodontal disease.
What is the effect of xerostomia on dental health?
1) Increased salivary flow rate
2) Decreased risk of caries
3) Increased risk of dental caries
4) No impact at all
Xerostomia, or dry mouth, significantly reduces salivary flow, increasing the risk of dental caries due to decreased neutralization of plaque acidity and lack of protective effects that saliva provides to the dental tissues.
What is the effective way to prevent the spread of infection during dental procedures?
1) Use a single-use needle
2) Sterilize instruments thoroughly
3) Disinfect surfaces before and after procedures
4) All of the above
Multiple strategies are essential for infection control in dental settings, including using sterile instruments, disinfecting surfaces, and employing single-use items to prevent cross-contamination.
What information is included in a dental chart?
1) Patient's name and contact details
2) A visual representation of the patient's teeth and their conditions
3) Treatment notes and plans
4) All of the above
A dental chart is a graphic representation of a patient's mouth that includes all teeth, their conditions, restorations, and any other relevant oral information.
During which phase does the formation of dentin primarily occur?
1) Bud stage
2) Cap stage
3) Bell stage
4) Maturation stage
The bell stage of tooth development is when the formation of dentin primarily occurs, along with enamel development.
An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of which type of muscle? 1. Cardiac only 2. Cardiac and smooth 3. Skeletal and smooth 4. Skeletal and cardiac
Physiology Answer: 2An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of Cardiac and smooth muscles
A dental assistant notices that a patient flinches when the dentist approaches with instruments. This behavior may suggest:
1) Fear of dental procedures
2) Previous traumatic experiences
3) Lack of understanding of the procedure
4) None of the above
Flinching may indicate that the patient has experienced trauma, which could be related to abuse.
What is the primary goal of behavior management in pediatric dentistry for a child with special needs?
1) Completing the dental treatment as quickly as possible
2) Minimizing the child's fear and anxiety
3) Maximizing parental involvement during procedures
4) Ensuring the child is fully sedated for all dental visits
Behavior management in pediatric dentistry for children with special needs focuses on creating a positive experience and reducing fear and anxiety.
What must a dentist disclose to a patient regarding the risks of a proposed
treatment?
1) Only the most common risks
2) Only the most severe risks
3) All significant risks, including common and less common but serious risks
4) Only the risks that the dentist personally considers significant
A dentist must disclose all significant risks associated with a treatment, not just the most common or severe ones. This allows the patient to have a complete understanding of the potential outcomes and make an informed decision about their care.
To impart a hardening heat treatment to a dental gold alloy, the best method is to Reheat to 450°C and cool uniformly to 250°C over a period of 15 to 30 minutes
Ambroxol is a :
1) Mucolytic agent
2) Bronchial secretion enhancer
3) Antitussive
4) None of the above
Expectorants (Mucokinetics)
(a) Bronchial secretion enhancers : Sodium or Potassium citrate, Potassium iodide, Guaiphenesin (Glyceryl guaiacolate), balsum of Tolu, Vasaka, Ammonium chloride.
(b) Mucolytics: Bromhexine Ambroxol Acetyl cysteine Carbocisteine
Informed consent for geriatric patients should consider:
1) Only the patient/’s preferences
2) The patient/’s cognitive function and capacity
3) Family members’ opinions exclusively
4) Standard treatment protocols
The patient/’s cognitive function and capacity
Explanation: It is crucial to assess a geriatric patient's cognitive function to
ensure they can give informed consent, recognizing that some patients may have
diminished capacity due to age-related cognitive decline.
In an Angle Class I occlusion, the:
1) Distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
2) Mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
3) The primary canines are end-to-end.
4) The permanent canines are end-to-end.
This articulation pattern reflects the normal occlusal relationship in Angle Class I, ensuring proper alignment and functional harmony of the dentition.
If a biochemical test gives the same reading for a sample on repeated testing, it is inferred that the measurement is:
1. Precise.
2. Accurate.
3. Specific.
4. Sensitive.
repeatablity of test is precision and getting results within reference range is accuracy
A dental professional is unsure whether a
situation constitutes abuse or neglect. What is the best course of action?
1) Wait for more evidence before taking action
2) Consult with a supervisor or legal counsel
3) Discuss the situation with the patient’s family
4) Document the situation and do nothing
Explanation: When in doubt, it is important to seek
guidance from a supervisor or legal counsel to ensure that the appropriate
steps are taken in accordance with the law.
Consent is needed from a patient to share information. Which of the following needs explicit consent?
1) To share information with an insurance company
2) To share information with other doctors in the practice
3) To share information with the therapist treating the patient
4) To share information with the patient's GP
Sharing information with an insurance company typically requires explicit consent due to privacy concerns and regulations.
What is the most common complication following third molar extraction?
1) Alveolar osteitis (dry socket)
2) Infection
3) Nerve injury
4) Trismus
Dry socket is a frequent complication due to the loss of the blood clot in the extraction site, leading to pain and discomfort.
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus indicates that the pulp is
1) necrotic
2) in an early hyperemic state.
3) normal.
4) irreversibly damaged
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus typically indicates that the pulp is irreversibly damaged. This prolonged response suggests that the nerve fibers are still responding to the stimulus, but the damage is significant enough that the pulp is not capable of healing, indicating a need for endodontic treatment.
What is the best method to detect a crack in a tooth?
1) Visual inspection.
2) Tactile sensation with an explorer.
3) Radiograph.
4) Transillumination.
ADC Test Answer: 3
While visual inspection and tactile sensation can sometimes indicate a crack, a radiograph provides the best method for detecting cracks as it allows the dentist to see the internal structure of the tooth and any associated bone changes.
Which of the following is used to decrease the toxicity of amphotericin B?
1) Dose reduction
2) Liposomal delivery systems
3) Supplementing glucose
4) Giving it along with flucytosine
Liposomal delivery systems decrease the amount of free drug in the blood Infected cells interact with the liposomes, resulting in the release of amphotericin B at the site of action.
What is the role of dental nurses in record keeping?
1) They are not involved in record keeping
2) They can assist in notetaking to ensure contemporaneous records
3) They are responsible for financial records
4) They only handle patient scheduling
Dental nurses play a vital role in documenting patient information during appointments, enhancing the accuracy of records.
To prolong the setting time of glass ionomer cement (GIC), one can:
1) Cool down the mixing slab
2) Increase the amount of powder
3) Add more water
4) Decrease mixing time
ADC Test Answer: 1
Cooling the slab on which GIC is mixed can extend the setting time; however, this might negatively affect the cement's strength.
Which of the following drugs can cause methemoglobinemia?
1) Lidocaine
2) Procaine
3) Prilocaine
4) Bupivacaine
Prilocaine is a local anesthetic that can cause methemoglobinemia.
An approach to an impacted mandibular molar is achieved by:
1) Envelop flap
2) Bayonet flap
3) L-shaped flap
4) All of the above
All the listed flap techniques (envelop flap, bayonet flap, and L-shaped flap) are types of mucoperiosteal flaps used in oral surgery to access impacted teeth. Each flap has its indications and advantages, and the choice of flap depends on the specific clinical situation. The L-shaped flap, also known as Ward's incision, is commonly used for the removal of impacted teeth due to its effectiveness in providing access while minimizing tissue trauma.
Which nerve should be assessed in a patient suspected of having a mandibular fracture due to sensory deficits? 1) Facial nerve (CN VII) 2) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) 3) Inferior alveolar nerve (CNV3) 4) Vagus nerve (CN X)
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 3The inferior alveolar nerve is commonly involved in mandibular fractures. Damage to this nerve can result in sensory deficits in the lower teeth, lower lip, and chin.
Visual aids can help reduce anxiety in dental patients by:
1) Making the procedure seem more complex
2) Distracting the patient from their fear
3) Clarifying what will happen during treatment
4) Encouraging the patient to avoid the procedure
Visual aids can improve understanding and reduce anxiety by clearly illustrating the steps of the treatment.
What is the main purpose of performing a pulp test on a recently traumatized tooth?
1) Obtain baseline response
2) Confirm pulp necrosis
3) Prepare for extraction
4) Assess dental caries
ADC Test Answer: 1
A pulp test after trauma provides a baseline response to gauge changes in pulp vitality over time due to potential nerve recovery or damage.
Which group of medications is primarily used to manage pain and inflammation in dental procedures?
1) Opioids
2) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
3) Antibiotics
4) Anxiolytics
NSAIDs are commonly prescribed for pain and inflammation control in dental procedures due to their efficacy and relatively low side-effect profile compared to opioids.
Drug class causing free water clearance:
a) Diuretic
b) Saluretic
c) Uricosuric
d) Aquaretic
Vasopressin antagonists like tolvaptan are aquaretics
Which of the following does NOT require informed consent?
1) General clinical examination
2) Removal of an impacted third molar
3) Periodontal probing
4) Administering medication with high risks
Informed consent is generally not required for diagnostic
procedures such as general clinical examinations, as they are considered part of
the initial assessment that patients expect when they visit a healthcare
professional.
Which of the following dental cements is a luting agent that provides adhesion to calcified dental tissues? 1. ZOE cement 2. Silicate cement 3. Zinc phosphate cement 4. Polycarboxylate cement
Dental Material Answer: 4Polycarboxylate cement is a luting agent that provides adhesion to calcified dental tissues
Before filling a Class V abrasion cavity with GIC (Glass Ionomer Cement) you should:
1) Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water, and weak acid
2) Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
3) Acid etch cavity then dry thoroughly
4) Rinse the cavity with saline
ADC Test Answer: 1
The purpose of using pumice and a rubber cup is to clean the cavity without excessively drying it, which is important as GIC is moisture-loving.
What is the best description of the morphology of periodontal ligament fibers?
1) Elastic
2) Striated
3) Non-striated
4) Wavy
The fibers of the periodontal ligament exhibit a wavy morphology, which allows for flexibility and resilience to the stresses placed on them by occlusion.
Marginal leakage of a composite resin restoration will
1) not be detectable.
2) be minimized by use of a bonding agent.
3) decrease with longevity.
4) noneof above
Bonding agents create a seal between the composite resin and the tooth structure, reducing marginal gaps and leakage.
What is the strength of adrenaline used in dental procedures?
1) 1:100
2) 1:1000
3) 1:10000
4) 1:5000
The standard concentration of adrenaline used in dental procedures is 1:1000, which is effective for hemostasis and prolonging the duration of local anesthesia.
What enzyme assists microorganisms in the dentin caries process?
1) Enolase
2) Collagenase
3) Amylase
4) Lactoferrin
Enolase plays a crucial role in the metabolic processes of bacteria involved in dentin caries, facilitating their growth and acid production.
Best clinical sign for adequate reversal is:
1) Spontaneous eye opening
2) Spontaneous limb movements
3) Able to protrude tongue
4) Able to lift head > 5 seconds
Being able to lift the head for more than 5 seconds is considered the best clinical sign for adequate reversal, corresponding to a train of four ratio > 0.7.
What is the purpose of using cotton pellets during a pulpotomy procedure?
1) To achieve hemostasis.
2) To remove caries.
3) To reduce occlusal surface.
4) To mix IRM.
Cotton pellets are used to achieve hemostasis during a pulpotomy procedure.
For a 10-year-old patient with expected treatment procedures, an OPG is:
1) Contraindicated below 12 years
2) Less radiative than combined BW and periapical X-rays
3) Only used for adults
4) Provides a comprehensive view of teeth only
ADC Test Answer: 2
OPGs generally expose patients to lower radiation doses compared to multiple intraoral radiographs, making them safer for diagnostic purposes.
While doing preparation for an FMC crown prep on tooth 16 in a 20-year-old man, a pinpoint pulp exposure occurred. How would you best manage the situation?
1) Do DPC immediately under rubber dam then tell the patient about the situation
2) Tell the patient immediately and do pulpotomy
3) Start RCT then describe the situation to the patient
4) Tell the patient that you have encountered an inadvertent incident while preparing and refer him to a specialist
ADC Test Answer: 1
Direct Pulp Capping (DPC) is the most appropriate management strategy for a small pinpoint pulp exposure.
What’s the percentage of tooth erosion in 6-year-olds and 15-year-olds in the UK?
1) 5-10% and 15-20%
2) 5-52% and 15-27%
3) 10-30% and 20-40%
4) 15-25% and 25-35%
Studies indicate that tooth erosion affects a significant percentage of children, with varying rates between different age groups.
What is the primary goal of periodontal treatment?
1) Removal of all bacteria.
2) Elimination of plaque.
3) Reduction of inflammation.
4) Regeneration of lost tissue.
E. Prevention of further bone loss.
ADC Test Answer: 3
The primary goal of periodontal treatment is to reduce the inflammation in the gum tissues, which in turn helps in controlling the progression of the disease, maintaining tissue health, and preventing further bone loss.
Rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis is HMG CoA reductase
What must a healthcare professional do to ensure informed consent is valid?
1) Provide all possible treatment options
2) Guarantee the success of the proposed treatment
3) Ensure the patient has capacity and understanding
4) All of the above
For informed consent to be valid, the patient must be capable of
understanding the information provided and have the capacity to make a decision.
What is the role of dental records in forensic dentistry?
- To establish the identity of a deceased person
- To determine the cause of death
- To evaluate the dental health of the general population
- To monitor dental insurance fraud
Antemortem records can be used by forensic odontologists to help identify individuals in the event of death.
What is the role of saliva in the oral cavity?
1) Lubrication of food
2) Protection against bacteria
3) pH buffering
4) All of the above
Saliva plays multiple roles in the oral cavity, including lubrication, antimicrobial action, and buffering of pH, which helps maintain oral health.
Orthopedic correction of a mild skeletal Angle Class III malocclusion should be started:
1) Shortly after eruption of the upper first permanent molars.
2) Immediately following the pre-pubertal growth spurt.
3) Just prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt.
4) Shortly after eruption of the upper second permanent molars.
Orthodontics Answer: 3
Explanation: Early intervention during growth spurts
capitalizes on the skeletal adaptability, making corrections more effective.
What is a key benefit of using electronic dental records (EDR) over traditional paper records?
1) Increased storage space
2) Improved access and easy retrieval
3) More paperwork
4) Higher costs
EDR systems enhance the ability to access and retrieve patient information quickly and efficiently compared to paper records.
What drug is commonly associated with causing angioedema?
1) Prednisone
2) Ibuprofen
3) Ramipril
4) Metformin
Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is well known for causing angioedema as a side effect.
What is the function of the periodontal ligament?
1) To attach the tooth to the bone
2) To absorb shock during chewing
3) To supply nutrients to the tooth
4) To protect the tooth from bacteria
The periodontal ligament connects the tooth root to the alveolar bone, providing stability and support during functional movements such as chewing.
Consent is needed from a patient to share information. Which of the following requires explicit consent?
1) To share information with an insurance company
2) To share information with other doctors in the practice
3) To share information with the therapist treating the patient
4) To share information with the patient's General Medical Practitioner (GMP)
Sharing patient information with an insurance company typically requires explicit consent due to the sensitive nature of the information and privacy regulations.
A 45-year-old patient awoke with a swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and edema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. The likely condition is:
1) Acute periapical abscess
2) Angioneurotic edema
3) Infectious mononucleosis
4) Acute maxillary sinusitis
ADC Test Answer: 2
Angioneurotic edema, or angioedema, involves rapid swelling of the deeper layers of the skin and can cause facial swelling without dental complaints, often following an allergic reaction.
A diastema between two maxillary central permanent incisors could be associated
with the followings, EXCEPT
1) a mesiodens.
2) a congenital absence of permanent maxillary lateral incisors.
3) a large labial frenum.
4) adenomatoid odontogenetic tumour
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumors are generally not linked to diastemas; other options can contribute to spacing.
What is the most commonly used topical anesthetic in dentistry?
1) Lidocaine
2) Benzocaine
3) Articaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is frequently used as a topical anesthetic in dentistry due to its effectiveness and rapid onset of action.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in therapeutic doses?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Clindamycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Tetracycline
Clindamycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal cramps, even at therapeutic doses.
How does fluoride in saliva promote tooth remineralization?
1) It forms hydrogen bonds with phosphate ions in the apatite structure.
2) It forms a more stable crystal structure with calcium called fluorapatite.
3) It reacts with carbonate ions to form calcium carbonate.
4) It produces an alkaline environment that dissolves hydroxyapatite.
Fluoride ions in saliva can replace hydroxyl ions in the hydroxyapatite lattice, creating fluorapatite, which is more resistant to acid attack.
The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by:
1) Radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs.
2) Disclosing solution.
3) Probing with a fine instrument.
4) Visual inspection.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Probing with a fine instrument allows for the direct evaluation of the periodontal pockets and can provide information about the presence and extent of subgingival calculus.
What is the depth of topical anesthesia?
1) 1 mm
2) 2 mm
3) 3 mm
4) 4 mm
Topical anesthesia typically penetrates to a depth of about 2 mm, providing localized pain relief for procedures involving the mucosa.
Which of the following is the drug of choice in bupivacaine induced VT:
1) Lidocaine
2) Phenytoin
3) Digoxin
4) Quinidine
The drug of choice is bretylium but in its absence lignocaine can be used.
What is more likely to happen to an interproximal composite filling rather than amalgam?
1) Fracture
2) Polymerization shrinkage
3) Marginal leakage
4) Discoloration
Composite materials are more prone to polymerization shrinkage, which can lead to gaps and sensitivity compared to amalgam.
What is the primary legal obligation related to dental records?
- To store them for a minimum of five years
- To provide them to the patient upon request
- To destroy them after treatment is completed
- To never disclose them without the patient's consent
Dentists are legally required to provide patients with a copy of their dental records when requested.
Non-selective beta-blockers can lead to excessive blood pressure changes when used with adrenalin.
What is the primary reason for the increased incidence of periodontal
disease in geriatric patients?
1) Immobility of dental plaque
4) Decreased host resistance
3) Increased bone density
4) Diminished salivary flow
The immune system's response diminishes with age, making elderly
individuals more susceptible to the bacterial invasion that leads to periodontal
disease.
Which factor is considered the most potent vasoconstrictor?
A. Adrenaline
B. Noradrenaline
C. Serotonin
D. Histamine
Adrenaline (epinephrine) is the most potent vasoconstrictor and is frequently used in medical emergencies for its ability to rapidly constrict blood vessels and enhance blood pressure.
Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker used for hypertension management.
Which one of the following is the initial treatment for internal resorption?
1) Pulpectomy.
2) Pulpotomy.
3) Pulp capping.
4) Apicoectomy.
The initial treatment for internal resorption is typically a pulpectomy, which involves the complete removal of the pulp tissue. This procedure is necessary to halt the resorptive process and to allow for the potential healing of the tooth. A pulpotomy may be considered in some cases, but a pulpectomy is more definitive for internal resorption.
What cement do you use to bond an alumina core ceramic crown?
1) Panavia
2) Resin modified glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate
4) Glass ionomer cement
Panavia is a resin cement specifically designed for bonding ceramic restorations, providing strong adhesion to alumina cores.
The nerve to masseter passes 1. deep to the medial pterygoid muscle 2. posterior to temporomandibular joint 3. superior to zygomatic arch to enter the muscle on its medial surface 4. through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
Anatomy Answer: 2The nerve to masseter passes posterior to temporomandibular joint
Instrument which has a 4 digit formulae;
1) angle former
2) hoe
3) hatchet
4) spoon excavator
Since the cutting edge of the angle former is not at a right angle to the blade axis[its usually 80-85deg for angle former
What does a rest seat refer to in RPD design?
1) A removable part of the denture
2) A prepared tooth surface for the rest to fit
3) A framework supporting teeth
4) A type of occlusal contact
A rest seat is the prepared surface on the tooth that accommodates the rest, providing a stable support.
What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.
The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes.
Which of the following is a benefit of computerized dental records?
1) Increased physical storage space
2) Improved accuracy and legibility
3) Higher costs associated with paper
4) Reduced accessibility
Computerized records help prevent errors associated with handwriting and improve overall clarity.
Which investigation is most commonly used to rule out aspiration in mandibular fracture patients with missing teeth? 1) Chest X-ray 2) Orthopantomogram 3) PA mandible 4) CT scan
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 1A chest X-ray is commonly performed when missing teeth or denture fragments cannot be accounted for in a mandibular fracture patient. This helps to rule out aspiration of foreign bodies.
What is the correct order of donning personal protective equipment (PPE) in the dental setting?
1) Gown, mask, gloves, face shield
2) Gloves, mask, gown, face shield
3) Mask, gown, gloves, face shield
4) Face shield, gown, mask, gloves
The correct order of donning PPE in the dental setting is to first put on a mask to protect the mouth and nose, then a gown to cover the clothes, followed by gloves to protect the hands, and finally a face shield to protect the eyes, nose, and face from splashes and sprays.
Which of the following is NOT an example of dental malpractice?
1) Failure to diagnose oral cancer
2) Intentionally causing harm to a patient
3) Unintentionally causing harm to a patient due to negligence
4) Providing treatment that does not meet the standard of care
Dental malpractice typically involves unintentional acts of
negligence or omission that result in harm to the patient. Intentionally causing
harm is a criminal act and not considered malpractice, although it can lead to
both civil and criminal consequences.
Losartan is commonly preferred over ACE inhibitors in patients who experience:
1) Dry mouth
2) Cough
3) Hyperkalemia
4) Bradycardia
Patients who develop a cough with ACE inhibitors may be switched to an ARB like Losartan, which does not cause this side effect.
Where would you expect to find the mylohyoid muscle in relation to the periphery of a full lower denture?
1) Mandibular buccal in the midline
2) Mandibular lingual in the first premolar area
3) Mandibular lingual in the midline
4) Mandibular disto buccal area
ADC Test Answer: 2
The mylohyoid muscle forms the floor of the mouth and is located lingually, particularly in the area of the first premolars.
Which type of neurons supply the masticatory muscles?
1) Slow conducting
2) Fast conducting
3) Both
4) None
The masticatory muscles are supplied by fast-conducting motor neurons, allowing swift and effective muscle contractions for functions like chewing.
Lignocaine with adrenaline is contra-indicated for ring block of:
1) Penis
2) Toes
3) Pinna
4) All of the above
Xylocaine with adrenaline is contraindicated in ring block of finger, toes, penis, pinna (because these structures have end arteries) and Beta block (intravenous regional anaesthesia).
What legislation gives patients the right to access their dental records?
- General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- Data Protection Act 2018
- Access to Health Records Act 1990
- All of the above
The Access to Health Records Act 1990 gives patients, or their representatives in the case of a deceased patient, the right to access their healthcare records, including dental records.
What defines the action of zinc oxide eugenol in promoting healing?
1) Analgesic properties
2) Antibacterial activity
3) Tissue regeneration
4) Promotes rapid bone growth
Zinc oxide eugenol dressings are known for their properties that facilitate healing and promote rapid bone growth in post-extraction sites.
What type of caries is characterized by a rapid progression and is often light-colored?
1) Chronic caries
2) Arrested caries
3) Acute/rampant caries
4) Incipient caries
Acute/rampant caries are immediately damaging, light-colored, and very infectious.
What is the primary ethical concern when a dentist has a conflict of interest?
1) Maintaining personal financial gains
2) Preserving professional reputation
3) Ensuring patient's welfare and trust
4) Fulfilling the duty to provide the best possible treatment
Ensuring patient's welfare and trust
Explanation: When a dentist has a conflict of interest, the primary ethical
concern is the potential for the conflict to compromise the patient's welfare
and trust. It is essential to manage conflicts of interest to ensure that the
dentist's decisions are based solely on the patient's best interests.
Which of the following antihypertensive agents is classified as a beta-blocker?
1) Amlodipine
2) Losartan
3) Captopril
4) Atenolol
Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker, whereas Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), and Captopril is an ACE inhibitor.
The base of a distal extension partial denture should cover the maximum support area because:
1) The force transmitted per unit area will be kept to a minimum.
2) Maximum number of artificial teeth can be placed.
3) Phonetics is improved.
4) Strength of the base is increased.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Covering the maximum support area reduces the pressure per unit area, enhancing comfort and longevity of the underlying tissues.
Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of poor oral health
in geriatric patients?
1) Pneumonia
4) Malnutrition
3) Dementia
4) Cardiovascular disease
While poor oral health is associated with an increased risk of
developing pneumonia and cardiovascular disease, it is not a direct cause of
dementi1) However, oral health can impact the quality of life and overall
systemic health.
Maximum decrease in cardiac output is caused by:
1) Enflurane
2) Halothane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Methoxyflurane
Cardiac output is maximally decreased by enflurane followed by halothane.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
What is the primary function of a dental core?
1) Aesthetic enhancement
2) Support for a crown
3) Tooth whitening
4) Root canal treatment
A dental core provides support for a crown, especially when there is significant tooth structure loss.
What type of respiratory protection is recommended for dental personnel during aerosol-producing procedures?
1) N95 mask
2) Surgical mask
3) Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)
4) Full-face respirator
N95 masks are recommended for dental personnel during aerosol-producing procedures as they provide a higher level of protection against airborne particles compared to surgical masks.
What is the primary advantage of using oral sedatives for anxious patients?
1) They provide deeper sedation
2) They are less expensive
3) They have a more predictable onset and duration
4) They require no needle administration
Oral sedatives are often preferred by patients with needle phobia as they avoid the discomfort associated with injections.
What is the primary use of nitrous oxide in dentistry?
1) To strengthen teeth
2) To relieve anxiety and create mild sedation
3) To enhance local anesthesia
4) To improve the taste of dental materials
Nitrous oxide is commonly used for its anxiolytic properties and ability to induce a relaxed state without deep sedation.
What should be done with consent forms in dental records?
1) They should be discarded after treatment
2) They should be signed and stored securely
3) They should be kept in a separate financial record
4) They do not need to be documented
Consent forms must be properly signed and retained as part of the patient's clinical record to ensure legal compliance.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining dental records?
1) To fulfill legal obligations
2) To provide continuity of care
3) To assist in malpractice claims
4) All of the above
Dental records serve multiple purposes, including legal compliance, continuity of care, and providing evidence in malpractice claims.
What is the role of dental records in the event of a malpractice allegation?
- To prove the dentist's innocence
- To determine if the dentist followed the standard of care
- To provide financial compensation to the patient
- To assess the patient's satisfaction with the treatment
Dental records are used to evaluate whether the care provided to the patient met the standard of care expected within the community.
Informed consent is particularly important in which of the following
scenarios?
1) When the patient is fully aware of their medical condition
2) When the treatment is routine and low-risk
3) When the procedure is invasive and carries significant risks
4) When the patient has a family member present
Informed consent is crucial for invasive procedures that have significant risks to ensure that patients are fully aware and can make informed decisions about their care.
Unilateral numbness of the chin is associated with
1) malignancy.
2) Bell's palsy.
3) apical abscess.
4) trigeminal neuralgia
Numb chin syndrome occurs due to pressure on the mental nerve, often caused by
metastatic malignancies such as breast or lung cancer.
It serves as a potential warning sign of cancer progression.
Which of the following procedures typically requires written informed
consent?
1) Routine dental examination
2) Tooth extraction
3) Periodontal probing
4) Radiographic imaging
Tooth extraction is considered an invasive and irreversible procedure, thus requiring written informed consent.
Strength and hardness of a gypsum model or cast are affected by water-powder ratio and porosity of cast
The mucosa of the hard palate is?
1) Non-keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
2) Non-keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posteromedially
3) Keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
4) Keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally
The correct answer is "keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally." The hard palate is the bony structure that forms the roof of the mouth.
Which of the following medications is NOT associated with angioedema?
1) Ramipril
2) Ibuprofen
3) Furosemide
4) Paracetamol
Paracetamol is generally not associated with causing angioedema, while other medications like ACE inhibitors and certain NSAIDs are known to be linked to this condition.
What can be a sign of dental phobia?
1) Occasional apprehension before visits
2) Excessive avoidance of dental care
3) Pleased demeanor when discussing dental procedures
4) Knowledge of dental health
Dental phobia often manifests as a persistent and overwhelming fear that leads to significant avoidance of dental treatment.
The growth of the alveolar process has a major effect on
1) Anteroposterior jaw relationship
2) Vertical jaw relationship
3) Both
4) None of the above
Ketamine is contraindicated in:
1) Hypertension
2) Raised intracranial tension
3) Raised intraocular tension
4) All of the above
Ketamine raises both systolic and diastolic blood pressures and is thus contraindicated in hypertension. It increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure and is thus contraindicated in raised intracranial tension. Ketamine raises intraocular tension and is thus contraindicated in glaucoma.
Which of the following drug can be accumulated in foetus in very significant amount if given to pregnant mother:
1) Thiopentone
2) Propofol
3) Midazolam
4) Lignocaine
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
Lignocaine Local anaesthetic and opioids are bases.
The formation of oxyhemoglobin is influenced by
What is the difference between a dental chart and a dental record?
1) A dental chart is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental record includes all patient information.
2) A dental chart includes only the patient's medical history, while a dental record has the full treatment history.
3) A dental record is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental chart has the full treatment history.
4) Both are the same.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions. A full dental record, on the other hand, includes the patient's medical and dental history, treatment plans, x-rays, notes from appointments, consent forms, and other relevant information about the patient's oral health.
Which of the following actions is NOT a responsibility of a dental professional when they suspect abuse or neglect?
1) Reporting the suspicion to the appropriate authorities
2) Investigating the situation personally
3) Documenting observations in the patient’s record
4) Providing support to the patient
Dental professionals should report their suspicions rather than investigate, as this is outside their scope of practice.
What is the primary concern when treating geriatric patients with
cognitive impairment?
1) The absence of caries
2) Comfortable chair position
3) Financial considerations
4) Behavior management
Behavior management is crucial when treating geriatric patients with cognitive impairment as it helps in ensuring their cooperation and reducing anxiety, which can significantly affect the quality of care provided.
Most of the pre ganglionic sympathetic fibres are 1 A fibres 2 B fibres 3 C Fibres 4 None of the above
Physiology Answer: 2- A fibres are myelinated fibres having fastest rate of conduction
The air-water spray used as a coolant in high speed cutting of a cavity will
1. Decrease pulp damage.
2. Reduce frictional heat.
3. Keep the operating site clean.
4. Reduce clogging of cutting instruments.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
33) (2) and (4)
4) All of the above.
The air-water spray serves multiple purposes during dental procedures:
- Decrease pulp damage: By cooling the tooth structure, it helps prevent thermal injury to the pulp.
- Reduce frictional heat: The spray minimizes heat generated by the cutting instrument.
- Keep the operating site clean: The spray helps wash away debris and blood, providing better visibility.
- Reduce clogging of cutting instruments: It helps to clear debris from the cutting surface, maintaining instrument efficiency.
What role does the dental assistant play in managing an anxious patient?
1) To perform all clinical procedures
2) To provide medication to patients
3) To offer emotional support and reassurance
4) To make treatment decisions
Dental assistants can play a crucial role in offering emotional support, helping to soothe anxious patients during visits.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of meningococcal meningitis in patients allergic to penicillin?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Teicoplanin
3) Meropenem
4) Chloramphenicol
Pharmacology Answer: 4
Treatment of meningococcal meningitis: In case of penicillin resistance, third generation cephalosporins should be used ( Ceftriaxone / CefotaximeIn case of penicillin / cephalosporin allergy, Chloramphenicol is used
Drug of choice – Penicillin G
What is the purpose of a pre-operative visit for an anxious patient?
1) To administer sedatives
2) To discuss and explain the treatment plan in detail
3) To perform a thorough medical evaluation
4) To complete financial paperwork
A pre-operative visit allows the dentist to build trust, answer questions, and prepare the patient mentally for the upcoming procedure, which can significantly reduce anxiety.
A3 shades of composite resins should be light-cured in increments limited to a
maximum of
1) 0.50mm.
2) 1.00mm.
3) 1.50mm.
4) 2.00mm.
To ensure complete curing and avoid inadequate polymerization, A3 shades should be cured in layers no thicker than 2mm.
A 64-year-old patient with a history of metastatic breast cancer presents with loose teeth, dental pain, and swollen gums. What is the most likely causative agent?
1) Osteonecrosis of the left mandible
2) Long-term use of bisphosphonates
3) Osteomyelitis
4) Periodontal disease
Patients on long-term bisphosphonates for metastatic cancer are at risk for osteonecrosis of the jaw, which can present with loose teeth and swelling.
The junction between primary and secondary dentine is:
1) A reversal line
2) Sharp curvature
3) A resting line
4) A reduction in the number of tubules
ADC Test Answer: 2
The relationship between primary and secondary dentine is characterized by a sharp transition in the curvature of dentinal tubules as changes in odontoblast activity occur post-eruption.
What is the most common histological finding in pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Basal cell carcinoma
Acantholysis is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of intraepithelial vesicles.
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
Clinical examination of a 42 year old heavy smoker reveals a white patch in the retromolar/tonsillar pillar region. The patch cannot be wiped off. The most likely diagnosis is
1) lichen planus.
2) leukoplakia.
3) white sponge nevus.
4) frictional hyperkeratosis.
E. pseudomembranous candidiasis.
Explanation: Leukoplakia is a common oral mucosal lesion that presents as a
white, non-wipable patch or plaque. It is often associated with chronic
irritation, such as that caused by tobacco use. While it is not cancerous,
leukoplakia can be a precancerous condition that requires monitoring for
potential malignant transformation, especially in patients with high-risk
factors like heavy smoking.
Which ion acts as a second messenger?
1) Sodium
2) Potassium
3) Calcium
4) Magnesium
Calcium ions serve as important second messengers in various cellular signaling pathways, facilitating communication within and between cells.
What is the best approach to take if a patient becomes overwhelmed during a procedure?
1) Continue without interruption
2) Stop the procedure, offer reassurance, and give the patient time to recover
3) Dismiss the patient’s feelings as unimportant
4) Ask another staff member to take over
Allowing the patient to regroup and addressing their feelings can help restore their composure and comfort.
Firm contact between approximating teeth is important because it
1) locates the marginal ridges of each tooth.
2) keeps the teeth from having any movement during function.
3) insures proper cusp form and increases masticatory efficiency.
4) stabilizes the dental arches and gives protection to the gingival papillae.
Firm contact between teeth helps maintain the stability of the dental arches, preventing unwanted movement during function. This contact also protects the gingival papillae by ensuring that the teeth are properly aligned and that the forces of mastication are distributed evenly, reducing the risk of periodontal issues.
Rank the following impression materials according to their flexibility:
1) Alginate > Polysulphide > Silicone > Zinc Oxide Eugenol
2) Silicone > Alginate > Polysulphide > Zinc Oxide Eugenol
3) Alginate > Polysulphide > Zinc Oxide Eugenol > Silicone
4) Alginate > Silicone > Polysulphide > Zinc Oxide Eugenol
Alginate is the most flexible, followed by silicone, polysulphide, and finally zinc oxide eugenol, which is the least flexible.
In a dental practice with multiple practitioners, what must be clearly noted in the patient record?
1) The patient's insurance information
2) The identity of the practitioners rendering treatment
3) The patient's payment history
4) The patient's family medical history
It is important to document which practitioner provided care to ensure accountability and continuity of care.
A 5 yr old pt is sheduled FOR tonsilectomy. On the day of Surgery he has running nose , temp= 37.5 degrees and dry cough. which of the following will b the most apt decision 4 Surgery
1. Surgery shud b cancelled
2. can proceed if chest is clesr n no h/o asthma
3. shud get chest x-ray done b4 proceeding 4 Surgery
4. cancel Surgery for 3 weeks n pt to b on antibiotics
general anesthesia,specifically nitrous oxide is contraindicated if the child is running a common cold and having slight fever on the day of surgery
What is a key factor in successfully treating patients with developmental disabilities?
1) Speed of treatment
2) Accommodating communication styles
3) The complexity of procedures
4) Use of advanced technology
Understanding and adapting communication to the patient's preferred method (verbal, visual, etc.) is crucial for effective treatment.
Ameloblastoma is the most aggressive:
1) Odontogenic tumor
2) Benign tumor
3) Malignant tumor
4) Fibrous tumor
Ameloblastoma is a benign but locally aggressive tumor of odontogenic origin, meaning it arises from the tissues that form teeth.
What is the recommended retention period for dental records?
1) Indefinitely
2) Until the patient turns 18
3) For a certain period after the last treatment
4) Only as long as the patient is a current client
While specific retention periods may vary, dental records should generally be kept for a defined time after the last treatment to comply with legal and professional standards.
Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are:
1) Elevated temperature and nausea
2) Palpitations and malaise
3) Ankle edema and dyspnea
4) Erythema and pain
ADC Test Answer: 3
Symptoms of congestive heart failure often include edema in the lower extremities and difficulty breathing, which should be monitored in patients prior to surgery.
Repair of denture bases should be carried out with 1. cold-cure resins in order to avoid distortion of the denture base 2. heat-cure resins in order to-secure a strong bond between the repair ma terial and the original denture 3. heat-cure resins in order to prevent porosity--at the repaired site 4. cold-cure resnis in order to reduce the amount of residual monomer in the repaired denture
Dental Material Answer: 1Repair of denture bases should be carried out with cold-cure resins in order to avoid distortion of the denture base
What is the primary risk associated with the use of nitrous oxide in a dental practice? 1) Allergic reactions 2) Environmental pollution 3) Potential for abuse and addiction 4) Exposure to infectious agents
Occupational Hazards Answer: 3Nitrous oxide can be misused, leading to potential abuse and addiction, making proper ventilation and safety protocols essential.
A woman aged 48 years visits a dermatologist to have a mole removed. The patient tells her physician that she got allergic reaction to a local anaesthetic the last time she had undergone dental work. Investigation of the lady's dental records by her dentist discloses that the patient received procaine for a tooth extraction. Among the following alternatives, which drug would be suitable for the present procedure?
- Benzocaine
- Chloroprocaine
- Tetracaine
- Mepivacaine
Two classes of local anaesthetics exist namely: Esters and Amides.
What antibiotic is commonly prescribed for chronic sinusitis?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Doxycycline
3) Azithromycin
4) Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline is often used to treat chronic sinusitis due to its effectiveness against a range of bacteria that can cause sinus infections.
Nickel is a common alloying element that significantly increases the ductility of base metals, such as iron and steel.
Protamine sulphate reverses the effect of
1) Meperidine
2) Atropine
3) Hepartn
4) Strychnine.
Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be associated with irreversible aggregation of platelets and treating venous thromboembolism.
Which soft palate muscle is not affected by a laceration of the mucosa
1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar?
1) Tensor veli palatini
2) Palatoglossus
3) Palatopharyngeus
4) Levator veli palatini
A laceration of the mucosa 1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar is unlikely to damage the levator veli palatini as it is located above the palatoglossal fold.
Which of the following are included in the Orthodontic camouflage methods for treating class II malocclusion?
1) Retraction of upper teeth and forward movement of lower teeth
2) Retraction of maxillary incisors into pre-molar extraction space
3) Distal movement of maxillary molars
4) All of the above
SOLUTION The following three patterns of tooth movement can be used to correct a Class II malocclusion: · A combination of retraction of the upper teeth and forward movement of the lower teeth, without tooth extractions · Retraction of maxillary incisors into a premolar extraction space · Distal movement of maxillary molars and eventually the entire upper dental arch
Elgiloy arch wire is a 1. Cobalt chromium nickel alloy 2. Gold alloy 3. Optical fiber arch wire 4. Beta titanium arch wire
Dental Material Answer: 1Elgiloy arch wire is a Cobalt chromium nickel alloy
Patients with which condition may require premedication with antibiotics before dental procedures?
1) Asthma
2) Congenital heart defects
3) Alzheimer’s disease
4) Hypertension
Patients with certain congenital heart defects are at an increased risk of bacterial endocarditis and may require prophylactic antibiotics before dental treatment.
Serial extraction:
1) Involves the 4 permanent first premolars.
2) Is the treatment for Class II skeletal malocclusions with severe space shortage.
3) Is commenced with bilateral expansion of the arches.
4) Is best suited to Class I dental and skeletal malocclusions with minimal space shortage.
Oral Surgery Answer: 1Serial extraction primarily targets first premolars to address severe space discrepancies, particularly in patients with crowding in Class I dental relationships.
What is the correct dose of Amoxicillin oral suspension for a child?
1) 250mg/5ml
2) 125mg/5ml
3) 500mg/5ml
4) 100mg/5ml
The standard pediatric dosage for Amoxicillin oral suspension is typically 125mg/5ml, an important medication for treating bacterial infections in children.
Increasing the powder to liquid ratio in a zinc phosphate cement will 1. increase the setting time and increase the strength 2. increase the setting time and decrease the strength 3. decrease the set time and increase the strength 4. decrease the setting time and decrease the strength
Dental Material Answer: 3Increasing the powder to liquid ratio in a zinc phosphate cement will decrease the set time and increase the strength
What is the advantage of using electronic patient records over paper records?
- They take up less physical space
- They are more easily accessible and less prone to loss
- They are more difficult to alter
- They are less expensive
Electronic records can be accessed and retrieved more quickly and are less likely to be misplaced or damaged than paper records.
All the following are non-verbal signs of attentive or active listening except:
1) Posture.
2) Eye contact.
3) Mirror.
4) Positive Reinforcement.
Positive reinforcement is not a non-verbal sign of attentive or active listening.
Non-verbal signs of attentive or active listening typically involve body language and facial expressions, such as maintaining good posture, making eye contact, and mirroring the speaker's body language.
Positive reinforcement,
on the other hand, is a verbal or non-verbal response that rewards or encourages
a behavior, and it is not directly related to the act of listening attentively.
Lidocaine (Xylocaine) effect on ventilation response to hypoxia?
1) Enhanced response
2) Depressed response
3) No effect
4) Enhanced response and no effect
Lidocaine, also known as Xylocaine, has been found to have a depressant effect on the ventilation response to hypoxia.
Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except?
1) Isoniazid
2) Cyclosporine
3) Levodopa
4) Hydralazine
Pyridoxine – drug interactions : INH – induces a pyridoxine deficiency state
Levodopa – pyridoxine promotes peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine – thus it decreases therapeutic action of levodopa in the brain
Oral contraceptive pills – decrease pyridoxine levels in some females
Hydralazine – impairment of pyridoxine utilisation
4-deoxy pyridoxine – pyridoxine antagonist
What is the general guideline for discussing risks with patients?
1) Only discuss risks that are common and severe
2) Discuss all possible risks, no matter how rare
3) Only discuss risks that patients inquire about
4) It is not necessary to discuss risks if the treatment is routine
Healthcare providers should inform patients about common and severe
risks that have a reasonable chance of occurring, allowing them to make an
informed decision.
Simplest way to stop gingival bleeding:
1) Cotton pellet.
2) Retraction cord.
3) Temporary dressing.
4) Suture.
ADC Test Answer: 1
A cotton pellet is a simple and effective means to apply pressure directly to a bleeding site, helping to control hemorrhage temporarily.
Which of the following lesions cannot be classified as an intra-epithelial lesion?
1) Herpes simplex infections
2) Pemphigus vulgaris
3) Herpangina
4) Lichen planus
ADC Test Answer: 4
Lichen planus is characterized by a band-like infiltrate of lymphocytes at the epithelial-connective tissue interface, rather than being classified as an intra-epithelial lesion.
A patient with an upper complete denture with porcelain teeth and lower anterior natural teeth, what will be the consequences?
1) Bone loss in lower anterior.
2) Flabby ridge.
3) Reduced mastication efficiency.
4) Increased sensation in the lower anterior.
ADC Test Answer: 1
When a patient has a complete denture in the upper arch and natural teeth in the lower arch, the lack of occlusal support from the denture may lead to increased bone resorption in the lower anterior area due to unopposed natural teeth.
For a young adult with tooth surface loss, which treatment option is best?
1) Restorative dentistry
2) Behavioral modification
3) Removal of iatrogenic causes
4) Surgery
Identifying and removing any causes of tooth surface loss, especially those related to dental treatments, is critical in addressing and preventing further damage.
The ingredient of dental waxes that is extremely hard, has a high melting temperature, is added to decrease flow at oral temperatures and contributes to glossiness of the waxes is 1. paraffin 2. gum dammar 3. gutta percha 4. carnauba
Dental Material Answer: 4Carnauba is added to decrease flow at oral temperatures and contributes to glossiness, is extremely hard, has a high melting temperature
How can a cusp fracture immediate to a Class II inlay be detected?
1) History.
2) Visually.
3) Radiograph.
4) Percussion.
E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp.
ADC Test Answer: 3
A cusp fracture may not always be visible on a radiograph due to its location and extent, but it is often the best method to detect such a fracture in a clinical setting.
Position of needle in relation to medial pterygoid during IANB?
1) Lateral and posterior.
2) Medial and anterior.
3) Lateral and anterior.
4) Medial and posterior.
ADC Test Answer: 1
During an Inferior Alveolar Nerve Block (IANB), the needle is positioned laterally and posteriorly to the medial pterygoid, which is critical for successful anesthesia of the mandibular teeth.
Which nerve fibers are responsible for pulpal pain?
1) A-alpha fibers
2) A-beta fibers
3) Delta fibers
4) C fibers
Delta fibers are responsible for sharp, stabbing pain associated with pulpal pain, while C fibers transmit dull, aching pain.
What is the most effective preventive care for dental caries in geriatric
patients?
1) Daily flossing
2) Professional cleanings every six months
3) Fluoride applications
4) Routine radiographs
Frequent fluoride applications can strengthen enamel and reduce
caries incidence, especially in those with reduced salivary flow.
What is the term for the process of cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing
reusable dental handpieces?
1) Decontamination
2) Sterilization
3) Reprocessing
4) Disinfection
Reprocessing refers to the steps taken to prepare reusable dental
handpieces for safe use on another patient, including cleaning, disinfection,
and sterilization.
What is a common reason why a ten-year-old amalgam filling has become raised above the tooth surface?
1) Wear
2) Creep
3) Improper placement
4) Over-carving
Creep is the tendency of dental amalgam to deform under constant stress, often leading to a raised filling surface as it continues to flow slowly over time.