Dentist Abroad
What is the most common pharmacological agent used for conscious sedation in dentistry?
1) Midazolam
2) Diazepam
3) Lorazepam
4) Alprazolam
Midazolam is commonly used for conscious sedation in dentistry due to its rapid onset, short duration of action, and amnesic properties.
What is the ideal angle for subgingival curettage with universal curettes?
1) 45 degrees
2) 60 degrees
3) 70 degrees
4) 90 degrees
A 45-degree angle is optimal for subgingival curettage, allowing effective scaling while preserving soft tissue.
Ketamine is contraindicated in:
1) Hypertension
2) Raised intracranial tension
3) Raised intraocular tension
4) All of the above
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) esflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Ketamine raises both systolic and diastolic blood pressures and is thus contraindicated in hypertension.
The principal internal retention for a Class V amalgam cavity preparation is
established at the
1) occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line angles.
2) mesio-axial and disto-axial line angles.
3) mesio-gingival and disto-gingival line angles.
4) none
These line angles provide resistance and retention in a Class V preparation by
preventing dislodgment of the restoration.
What is the purpose of the Code of Ethics established by dental associations?
1) To provide financial benefits to members
2) To guide dental professionals in ethical decision-making
3) To promote competition among dental practices
4) To regulate dental fees
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2The Code of Ethics serves as a framework for ethical conduct, helping dental professionals navigate complex ethical dilemmas and maintain high standards of practice.
In the extended ecological caries hypothesis, what is the primary
factor that influences microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm?
1) The presence of fermentable carbohydrates.
2) Environmental acidification.
3) The host's immune response.
4) The availability of oxygen.
The extended ecological caries hypothesis posits that acidic environments created by dietary sugars and acids are the main drivers for microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm, particularly favoring the growth of aciduric and acidogenic bacteria like mutans streptococci.
Drug used in acute gout is?
1) Aspirin
2) Indomethacin
3) Phenylbutazone
4) Allopurinol
Treatment of acute gout is mainly to control symptoms, i.e.
The symptoms of acute gout are due to inflammation in the joints.
So, drugs which decrease inflammation are used in acute gout, i.e. anti-inflammatory drugs. Drugs are:- NSAIDs, Colchicine, Corticosteroids
What is the primary use of nitrous oxide in dentistry?
1) To strengthen teeth
2) To relieve anxiety and create mild sedation
3) To enhance local anesthesia
4) To improve the taste of dental materials
Nitrous oxide is commonly used for its anxiolytic properties and ability to induce a relaxed state without deep sedation.
A patient with osteitis and pus after a third molar extraction. Which antibiotic should be prescribed?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Metronidazole
3) Clindamycin
4) Cephalexin
Metronidazole is commonly used to treat infections associated with dental procedures, particularly those involving anaerobic bacteria, such as in cases of osteitis.
The essential ingredient of dental inlay investment are :
1) Quartz, cristobalite
2) β hemihydrate
3) α hemihydrate
4) Ammonium phosphate
The essential ingredients of the dental inlay investment employed with the conventional gold casting alloys are a-hemihydrate of gypsum, quartz, or cristobalite, which are allotropic forms of silica.
What must a healthcare professional do to ensure informed consent is valid?
1) Provide all possible treatment options
2) Guarantee the success of the proposed treatment
3) Ensure the patient has capacity and understanding
4) All of the above
For informed consent to be valid, the patient must be capable of
understanding the information provided and have the capacity to make a decision.
Lignocaine with adrenaline is contra-indicated for ring block of:
1) Penis
2) Toes
3) Pinna
4) All of the above
Xylocaine with adrenaline is contraindicated in ring block of finger, toes, penis, pinna (because these structures have end arteries) and Beta block (intravenous regional anaesthesia).
In a standard dental cartridge containing 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1/100000, what is the amount of vasoconstrictor?
1) 18.0mg.
2) 0.018mg.
3) 1.8mg.
4) 0.18mg.
E. 180.0mg.
ADC Test Answer: 2
In a 1.8ml solution of 2% lidocaine, there is 0.018mg of epinephrine present for every 1ml of solution.
The primary purpose of surgical therapy for the treatment of periodontitis is to
1) apically position the flap.
2) eliminate periodontal pockets.
3) remove the ulcerated epithelium of the periodontal pocket.
4) improve access for removal of local etiologic factors.
Surgical therapy, such as flap surgery, aims to expose root surfaces and deep
periodontal pockets.
This improves visibility and access for scaling, root planning, and debridement,
which are critical for removing the etiologic factors of periodontitis (e.g.,
plaque and calculus.
Eliminating these factors allows tissues to heal and reduces pocket depths.
Most potent inhaled anaesthetic is:
- Halothane
- Isoflurane
- Sevoflurane
- Desflurane
Among the inhalational agents used commonly, halothane is most potent (MAC 0.74%) while isoflurane and sevoflurane have moderate potency (1.15% and 2.0% respectively) and desflurane has low potency (MAC 6.0%).
What is the role of dental nurses in record keeping?
1) They are not involved in record keeping
2) They can assist in notetaking to ensure contemporaneous records
3) They are responsible for financial records
4) They only handle patient scheduling
Dental nurses play a vital role in documenting patient information during appointments, enhancing the accuracy of records.
Which of the following is a common side effect of benzodiazepines used for anxiety management in dental settings?
1) Nausea
2) Headache
3) Dry mouth
4) All of the above
Benzodiazepines, such as midazolam, can cause side effects like nausea, headache, and dry mouth, which may be experienced by patients receiving them for anxiety management.
How are forces transmitted through rests?
1) Along the oblique axis
2) Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
3) Perpendicular to the tooth
4) Randomly throughout the denture
Rests are designed to transmit forces in a manner that aligns them parallel to the long axis of the supporting tooth.
Which of the following is a potential complication of dental anesthesia?
1) Nerve damage
2) Hematoma formation
3) Infection
4) All of the above
Dental anesthesia can lead to complications such as nerve damage, hematoma formation, and infection at the injection site.
In the context of jurisprudence, what is "malpractice"?
1) A legal term for any dental procedure
2) A form of patient consent
3) Professional negligence that results in harm to a patient
4) The act of providing free dental care
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 3Malpractice refers to a situation where a dental professional fails to provide the standard of care expected in the profession, leading to injury or harm to the patient. It is a legal concept that can result in lawsuits and disciplinary action.
Elgiloy arch wire is a 1. Cobalt chromium nickel alloy 2. Gold alloy 3. Optical fiber arch wire 4. Beta titanium arch wire
Dental Material Answer: 1Elgiloy arch wire is a Cobalt chromium nickel alloy
Which nerve is affected if the tongue deviates to the right when protruded?
1) Right hypoglossal
2) Left hypoglossal
3) Glossopharyngeal
4) Vagus
Deviation of the tongue to the right indicates weakness in the right hypoglossal nerve, which innervates the muscles of the tongue.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ideal abutment tooth?
1) Equal or more than half alveolar bone support
2) Strong connectors
3) Compromised periodontal health
4) Good crown to root ratio
Compromised periodontal health is typically a reason to avoid using a tooth as an abutment.
What is TRUE in regards to osteogenesis imperfecta?
1) Manifests with blue sclera
2) May be associated with deafness
3) Sex-linked disorder of bones that develop in cartilage
4) All of the above
ADC Test Answer: 1
Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by fragile bones, blue sclera due to thin collagen in the eye, and may also have associations with hearing loss.
What is the Angle classification of occlusion based upon?
Orthodontics Answer: 31. The position of the maxillary incisors relative to the mandibular incisors
2. The position of the maxillary incisors relative to the mandibular incisors
3. The position of the maxillary canines and first permanent molars relative to the mandibular canines and first permanent molars.
4. The position of the upper lip relative to the lower lip
The position of the maxillary canines and first permanent molars relative to the mandibular canines and first permanent molars
Which of the following enzymes is active in adipocytes following a heavy meal?
1) Glycogen phosphorylase
2) Glycerol kinase
3) Hormone-sensitive triacylglyceride lipase
4) Phosphatidate phosphatase
The enzyme phosphatidate phosphatase converts phosphatidic acid to diacylglycerol during synthesis of triacylglycerides. The function of adipose tissue is the storage of fatty acids as triacylglycerols in times of plenty and the release of fatty acids during times of fasting or starvation. Fatty acids taken in by adipocytes are stored by esterification to glycerol-3-phosphate.
Glycerol kinase is not present to any great extent in adipocytes, so that glycerol freed during lipolysis is not used to reesterify the fatty acids being released.
The enzyme triacylglyceride lipase is turned on by phosphorylation by a cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase following epinephrine stimulation.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
What is the recommended duration for sterilizing dental instruments in an
autoclave at 134°C (273.2°F)?
1) 3 minutes
2) 10 minutes
3) 15 minutes
4) 20 minutes
To effectively sterilize dental instruments, the autoclave must be
maintained at a temperature of 134°C (273.2°F) for at least 15 minutes to ensure
that all microorganisms are destroyed.
What is the significance of a tooth undergoing 30-40% mineral loss for
radiographic detection of caries?
1) It indicates the lesion is only visible with advanced imaging techniques
2) It is the threshold for a lesion to be considered a cavity
3) It means the lesion is likely to be visible on a radiograph
4) It signifies that the tooth is beyond repair
Radiographs typically detect lesions that have undergone significant mineral loss, which is roughly 30-40%. At this stage, the lesion is usually large enough to be seen on a radiograph.
Which clinical sign can indicate an open fracture of the mandible? 1) Sublingual hematoma 2) Mobility of fractured teeth 3) Step in the occlusion 4) Presence of blood-stained saliva
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 4Blood-stained saliva, along with evidence of current or prior bleeding from the tooth sockets, is a strong indicator of an open mandibular fracture, where the fracture communicates with the oral cavity.
Untrue about desflurane is:
1) Rapid induction and recovery
2) High vapour pressure
3) Induction is very smooth
4) Does not produce fluoride
Desflurane has a pungent odor, making induction unpleasant and potentially causing laryngospasm or bronchospasm.
How does fluoride in saliva promote tooth remineralization?
1) It forms hydrogen bonds with phosphate ions in the apatite structure.
2) It forms a more stable crystal structure with calcium called fluorapatite.
3) It reacts with carbonate ions to form calcium carbonate.
4) It produces an alkaline environment that dissolves hydroxyapatite.
Fluoride ions in saliva can replace hydroxyl ions in the hydroxyapatite lattice, creating fluorapatite, which is more resistant to acid attack.
Lip cancer survival rates are generally:
1) Higher in black males
2) Higher in white females
3) Higher in Hispanic males
4) Higher in Asian females
Lip cancer survival rates are influenced by various factors, including the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, the individual's health, and the effectiveness of treatment. Although the question implies that white females have the highest survival rates, it's essential to note that survival rates can be different across different populations. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in lip cancer, regardless of ethnicity.
An orthopantomogram (OPG) and a PA (posteroanterior) mandible X-ray are essential radiographic views for diagnosing mandibular fractures and determining management strategies.
What is the advantage of using electronic patient records over paper records?
- They take up less physical space
- They are more easily accessible and less prone to loss
- They are more difficult to alter
- They are less expensive
Electronic records can be accessed and retrieved more quickly and are less likely to be misplaced or damaged than paper records.
What is the difference between fluorapatite and carbonate substituted
hydroxyapatite?
1) Fluorapatite is less soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
2) Fluorapatite is more soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
3) They have the same solubility
4) Fluorapatite does not occur in tooth structure
Fluorapatite is a form of hydroxyapatite that has incorporated fluoride ions, which makes it more resistant to acid attacks and thus less soluble compared to carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite.
What is the primary risk factor for the development of musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals?
1) Prolonged periods of sitting
2) Repetitive motions
3) Working with vibrating instruments
4) Exposure to radiation
Repetitive motions, such as those involved in holding and using small hand instruments for long periods, are the primary risk factor for the development of musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals.
what do u understand by isograft
1.bone taken frm same individual
2.bone taken frm genetically same individual
3.bone taken frm identical twin
4.bone taken frm same individual
A graft of tissue that is obtained from a donor genetically identical to the recipient.
Which receptors are implicated in anti emetic effects:
1) D2
2) V2
3) MU2
4) GABA
CTZ rich in D2 and 5HT receptors
The afferent limb to the upper epiglottis is via which nerve?
1) Superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
2) Inferior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
3) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
4) Lingual nerve (CN 5)
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9) is a mixed cranial nerve that carries both
sensory and motor fibers.
The superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10) innervates the mucous
membranes of the larynx below the level of the epiglottis, while the inferior
laryngeal branch innervates the muscles of the larynx, not the epiglottis. The
lingual nerve (CN 5) is primarily involved in the sensation of the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue and the mucosa of the floor of the mouth, not the
epiglottis.
A successful stellate ganglion block can produce:
1) Hypotension
2) Horner syndrome
3) Brachial plexus involvement
4) All of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
All of the above Successful stellate ganglion will produce Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides:
1) Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
2) Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
3) Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may cause Kernicterus
4) Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to Norcardia species
Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT Sulfasalazine is poorly absorbed (10-20%) from the GIT .
Bone assessment of abutment teeth:
1) Horizontal bone loss is more important.
2) Vertical bone loss is more important.
3) Equally important.
4) Not important.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Both horizontal and vertical bone loss are important factors in assessing the health of abutment teeth, as they can influence the stability and longevity of prosthetic restorations.
A medication that reduces the rate of aqueous humor formation in acute glaucoma
1) phenothiazines
2) amphotericin B
3) Isoniazid
4) carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Carbonic anhydrase is found in erythrocytes, kidney, gut, ciliary body, choroid plexus, and glial cells.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used primarily as probes for studying renal transport mechanisms and in the treatment of glaucoma
When used to treat glaucoma, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors diminish the transport of HCO3 - and Na+ by the ciliary process, which limits intraocular pressure.
This reduces the formation of aqueous humor by up to 50%, thereby reducing the intraocular pressure.
Primary herpes simplex virus infection
1) usually occurs after the age of 20.
2) has a slow onset.
3) may be subclinical.
4) lasts for 1 - 2 days.
In many individuals, the primary infection does not produce noticeable symptoms.
Subclinical infections often go unnoticed, though the virus remains dormant in
nerve ganglia, potentially reactivating later.
For geriatric patients with cognitive impairments, what is the best approach to
dental care?
1) Treating them without their consent
2) Involving caregivers in decision-making
3) Ignoring their concerns
4) Minimal interaction during treatment
Caregivers play a crucial role in the wellbeing of cognitively
impaired patients, and including them in treatment discussions ensures better
understanding and compliance.
For a tooth (84) with deeper caries, the recommended treatment would be:
1) Indirect pulp capping and restoration
2) Pulpotomy and restoration
3) Pulpectomy and restoration
4) Extraction
ADC Test Answer: 3
Due to the depth of decay, a pulpectomy is indicated to remove all affected pulp tissue and disinfect the canal.
What type of sedation is preferred for a patient with a severe gag reflex?
1) Oral
2) Topical
3) Inhalation or IM/IV
4) None
For patients with a severe gag reflex, sedation methods that provide deeper relaxation, such as inhalation sedation or intramuscular/intravenous (IM/IV) sedation, are preferred to help manage anxiety and facilitate treatment.
Best clinical sign for adequate reversal is:
1) Spontaneous eye opening
2) Spontaneous limb movements
3) Able to protrude tongue
4) Able to lift head > 5 seconds
If patient is able to lift the head > 5 seconds it is considered the best clinical sign as it corresponds to train of four ratio > 0.7.
The modulus of elasticity is defined as:
1) The point of material failure
2) The stress at the proportional limit
3) The ratio of stress to strain within the proportional limit
4) The maximum strain before yielding
ADC Test Answer: 3
The modulus of elasticity quantifies a material's resistance to deformation when stress is applied, specifically describing the linear relationship between stress and strain.
A patient on diuretics may experience which oral side effect? 1) Xerostomia (dry mouth) 2) Gingival hyperplasia 3) Stomatitis 4) Facial swelling
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 1Diuretics can lead to xerostomia, commonly observed in patients on long-term antihypertensive therapy.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of computerized patient records?
1) Reduced frequency of errors
2) Increased costs
3) Improved patient safety
4) Enhanced data protection
While there may be initial costs associated with implementing EDR systems, the long-term benefits include reduced errors and improved safety.
What artery provides nourishment to the TMJ?
1) Superficial temporal artery
2) Maxillary artery
3) Facial artery
4) Inferior alveolar artery
The superficial temporal artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, provides blood supply to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
Which group of medications is primarily used to manage pain and inflammation in dental procedures?
1) Opioids
2) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
3) Antibiotics
4) Anxiolytics
NSAIDs are commonly prescribed for pain and inflammation control in dental procedures due to their efficacy and relatively low side-effect profile compared to opioids.
A woman aged 48 years visits a dermatologist to have a mole removed.
The patient tells her physician that she got allergic reaction to a local
anaesthetic the last time she had undergone dental work.
Investigation of the lady's dental records by her dentist discloses that the
patient received procaine for a tooth extraction.
Among the following alternatives, which drug would be suitable for the present
procedure?
1 Benzocaine
2 Chloroprocaine
3 Tetracaine
4 Mepivacaine
Two classes of local anaesthetics exist namely:
Esters Amides
The rule of thumb describes that in case you are allergic to one drug in a given
class (generally the ester class), you will also be allergic to other drugs of
the same class.
The lady received procaine which is an ester in the present case.
Hence, we need to identify Amide in the list of answers.
Mepivacaine is the only amide listed here.
Other amide local anaesthetics include:
Prilocaine Ropivacaine Lidocaine Bupivacaine Etidocaine
What is the typical pain description for a dry socket?
1) Continuous, severe, and throbbing
2) Sharp and intermittent
3) Mild and constant
4) Only present with biting or chewing
Dry socket pain is characteristically severe, continuous, and throbbing, differing from the milder pain of a normal extraction site.
What is the correct order for the administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen to a patient?
1) Oxygen for 5 minutes, then nitrous oxide
2) Nitrous oxide for 5 minutes, then oxygen
3) Simultaneous administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen
4) Nitrous oxide for 5 minutes, followed by oxygen for 2 minutes
Nitrous oxide is always administered with oxygen to prevent hypoxia. The typical mixture is 30-50% nitrous oxide with 50-70% oxygen.
Which of the following analyses is most appropriate for use in an adult patient?
1) Moyers.
2) Bolton.
3) Tanaka-Johnston.
4) all of the above.
The Bolton analysis is most appropriate for use in adult
patients to determine the fit and proportion of teeth. It is a method of
measuring the mesiodistal and buccolingual dimensions of teeth to ensure that
the upper and lower teeth are in harmony. The other options, such as Moyers and
Tanaka-Johnston, are more commonly used for children and adolescents to assess
tooth size and arch dimensions.
Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is:
1) Fibroedematous
2) Edematous
3) Fibrotic
4) Formed within an infrabony pocket
Edematous tissue is more likely to shrink after curettage due to the presence of excess fluid.
What is the main disadvantage of using nitrous oxide for anxious patients with respiratory issues?
1) It can cause respiratory depression
2) It can increase the risk of infection
3) It is less effective in controlling pain
4) It requires additional monitoring equipment
Nitrous oxide can cause respiratory depression in patients with compromised lung function, making it a less suitable option for those with respiratory issues.
Which drug is indicated as part of the management for a codeine overdose?
1) Atropine.
2) Diphenhydramine.
3) Epinephrine.
4) Naloxone.
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and reverses the effects of codeine toxicity, including respiratory depression.
Which type of neurons supply the masticatory muscles?
1) Slow conducting
2) Fast conducting
3) Both
4) None
The masticatory muscles are supplied by fast-conducting motor neurons, allowing swift and effective muscle contractions for functions like chewing.
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases serum potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
What is the purpose of using a rubber dam during dental procedures?
1) To isolate the operative site from the oral cavity
2) To improve visualization and access
3) To reduce the patient's gag reflex
4) To increase patient comfort
A rubber dam is used to create a barrier between the patient's oral
tissues and the rest of the mouth, thereby reducing the risk of
cross-contamination and protecting the patient and the dental team from bacteria
and saliva.
Which of the following is NOT a standard precaution recommended to prevent the spread of infection in the dental setting?
1) Hand hygiene
2) Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
3) Sterilization of reusable instruments
4) Sharing of patient-care items
Standard precautions in the dental setting include hand hygiene, use of PPE, and sterilization of reusable instruments.
'Programme Operation' in Community health care is same as:
1) Treatment
2) Approval
3) Treatment Planning
4) Diagnosis
In community health care, "Programme Operation" refers to the implementation and
execution of various health programs and interventions. This includes providing
treatment to individuals, ensuring that approved protocols and guidelines are
followed, planning and organizing treatment strategies, and diagnosing health
conditions. Therefore, "Programme Operation" can be equated to the concept of
treatment in community health care.
In cases of anorexia nervosa with high caries rates, what management options should be prioritized?
1) Dietary advice
2) Tooth brushing
3) Referral to a GP
4) All of the above
Comprehensive management should include dietary advice, oral hygiene practices, and medical evaluation while working closely with healthcare providers.
What is the purpose of Formocresol in pulpotomy?
1) Remove bacteria from the pulp chamber.
2) Prevent further decay of the tooth.
3) Promote the formation of dentin.
4) Seal the pulp chamber after amputation.
Formocresol is used to sterilize the pulp chamber after amputation, reducing the risk of infection.
The gas with greatest solubility in blood:
1) Nitrous oxide
2) Nitrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Hydrogen
Although the solubility of nitrous oxide in blood is less than other inhalational agents, its solubility is 35 times more than nitrogen and 15 times more than oxygen.
When were the RIDDOR regulations established?
1) 1990
2) 1995
3) 2000
4) 2005
The Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR) were enacted in 1995 to ensure that employers report specific workplace incidents to improve safety.
What is the primary route of transmission for most blood borne pathogens in
the dental setting?
1) Inhalation
2) Ingestion
3) Mucous membrane exposure
4) Skin absorption
The most common route of transmission for bloodborne pathogens in the dental setting is through mucous membrane exposure, such as when blood or other infectious materials come into contact with the eyes, nose, or mouth of a healthcare worker. This can occur through splashes, sprays, or contact with contaminated surfaces.
Which nerve is affected if the patient is unable to gaze laterally to the left?
1) Right abducens
2) Left abducens
3) Oculomotor
4) Trochlear
The left abducens nerve controls lateral eye movement; its dysfunction results in the inability to gaze laterally to the left.
Bone tissue grows by
1) Apposition
2) Interstitial growth
3) Osteoclastic growth
4) Mesenchymal tissue growth
SOLUTION Interstitial growth, simply means that it occurs at all points within the tissue.
Zinc phosphate cement powder contains zinc oxide, magnesium oxide, bismuth oxide
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in toxic doses?
1) Penicillin
2) Cephalosporins
3) Macrolides
4) Tetracyclines
Cephalosporins can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, including cramps, particularly at higher doses.
What is the normal pH range for venous blood?
1) 7.35-7.45
2) 7.25-7.35
3) 7.45-7.55
4) 7.40-7.50
Venous blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45, which is essential for maintaining various biochemical processes in the body.
What is the maximum safe dose of lidocaine for a 70 kg patient?
1) 308 mg
2) 220 mg
3) 440 mg
4) 154 mg
The maximum dose of lidocaine is 4.4 mg/kg.
What is the primary factor contributing to the increased prevalence of
edentulism in older adults?
1) Decreased salivary flow
4) Reduced bone density
3) Systemic diseases and their treatment
4) Dental anxiety
Systemic diseases such as diabetes and cardiovascular diseases,
along with their treatments, can impact oral health and increase the risk of
tooth loss.
Which type of bridge is not ideal for posterior cantilever due to heavy
occlusal forces?
1) Single retainer cantilever
2) Multiple-splinted abutment
3) Cantilever with two abutment teeth
4) Fixed-fixed bridge
a single retainer cantilever is not ideal for posterior cantilever due to heavy occlusal forces, which can cause increased stress on the abutment tooth.
What is the role of the dental nurse in maintaining patient records?
- To make and keep complete and accurate records of patient treatments and discussions
- To handle financial transactions and appointments
- To manage the dental office's social media accounts
- To oversee the sterilization of instruments
Dental nurses are crucial in the record-keeping process as they can take notes during patient appointments, ensuring that the records are made contemporaneously.
Chlortetracycline acts by interfering with protein synthesis on bacterial but not mammalian ribosomes
For a pigmented fissure, what is the best way to diagnose caries?
1) Visual examination
2) Radiographic examination
3) Investigate the area with a round bur
4) Transillumination
Investigating the area with a round bur allows for direct assessment of the fissure and any underlying carious lesions.
Hyperthermia can be seen with:
1) Lithium toxicity
2) Opium withdrawal
3) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
4) Eclampsia
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome (caused by phenothiazine) is one of the usual causes of hyperthermia in anaesthesia.
Which of the following is a sign of child abuse that a dentist might observe during a routine examination?
1) Frequent, unexplained oral injuries
2) Reluctance to speak openly about home life
3) Presence of dental caries
4) Fear of the dentist
Frequent, unexplained oral injuries such as fractured teeth or lacerations can be indicative of child abuse.
Consent is needed from a patient to share information. Which of the following requires explicit consent?
1) To share information with an insurance company
2) To share information with other doctors in the practice
3) To share information with the therapist treating the patient
4) To share information with the patient's General Medical Practitioner (GMP)
Sharing patient information with an insurance company typically requires explicit consent due to the sensitive nature of the information and privacy regulations.
Which of the following is the first drug to be prescribed in status asthmaticus?
1) Salbutamol
2) Humidified oxygen inhalation
3) Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate
4) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Pharmacology Answer: 3
Status asthmaticus/Refractory asthma Any patient of asthma is susceptible to develop acute severe asthma which may be life-threatening.
(i) Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate 100 mg (or equivalent dose of another glucocorticoid) i.v. stat, followed by 100-200 mg 4-8 hourly infusion; may take upto 6 hours to act.
(ii) Nebulized salbutamol (2.5-5 mg) + ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg) intermittent inhalations driven by O2 .
(iii) High flow humidified oxygen inhalation
(iv) Salbutamol/terbutaline 0.4 mg i.m./s.c. may be added since inhaled drug might not get to smaller bronchi owing to severe narrowing/plugging with secretions
(v) Intubation and mechanical ventilation if needed
(vi) intensive antibiotic therapy to be used for treating chest infection
(vii) Treat dehydration and acidosis with saline + sod. Bicarbonate/lactate infusion.
Which organ has fenestrated capillaries?
1) Liver
2) Kidney
3) Pancreas
4) Lung
Fenestrated capillaries are characteristic of the pancreas, particularly in the islets of Langerhans, which facilitate the exchange of hormones into the bloodstream.
What is the best method to disinfect a dental bridge before sending it to the lab?
1) Soaking in bleach
2) Autoclaving
3) Using 70% isopropyl alcohol
4) Rinsing with water
70% isopropyl alcohol is effective for disinfecting dental appliances as it kills bacteria and viruses without damaging the material of the bridge.
What is the purpose of the Caldicott Principles in dental record keeping?
- To provide a framework for the use and sharing of patient information
- To dictate the physical layout of dental records
- To outline the responsibilities of dental nurses in record keeping
- To detail the storage requirements for dental x-rays
The Caldicott Principles are designed to ensure the confidentiality of patient information and to provide guidance on when and how patient data can be used or shared appropriately.
Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent in dentistry?
1) The patient's ability to make a decision
2) The dentist's disclosure of all treatment options
3) The patient's signature on a consent form
4) The presence of a witness during the consent process
While a witness may be necessary in certain situations (e.g., for patients with diminished capacity), it is not a universal component of informed consent. The core elements are the patient's capacity to make a decision, the dentist's thorough disclosure, the patient's comprehension, and voluntary agreement.
Stage of surgical anaesthesia is:
1) Stage I
2) Stage II
3) Stage III plane 2
4) Stage III plane 3
Stage III plane 3 is considered the stage of surgical anaesthesia because laryngeal reflex goes in this stage, and patient can be intubated.
If the tooth has not erupted to the line of occlusion it is called
1) Supraversion
2) Torsiversion
3) Rotated
4) Infraversion
Orthodontics Answer: 4
Terms used to describe the position of teeth. Mesioversion - A tooth in the arch located more mesial than normal
Distoversion - A tooth in the arch located more distal than normal
Labioversion - An incisor or canine outside of arch towards the lips
Buccoversion - A posterior tooth outside the arch toward the cheek
Linguoversion - A tooth inside the arch form toward the tongue
Infraversion - A tooth that has not erupted to the occlusal plane
Supraversion - A tooth the has over-erupted
Torsiversion - A tooth rotated on its axis
Transversion (Transposition) - Teeth that are in the wrong sequential order.
Which muscle group is often involved in trismus following a mandibular fracture? 1) Muscles of facial expression 2) Muscles of mastication 3) Suprahyoid muscles 4) Infrahyoid muscles
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 2Trismus, or restricted mouth opening, often occurs after mandibular fractures due to pain and involvement of the muscles of mastication, particularly the masseter and pterygoid muscles.
N-acetyl muramic is intermediate in the biosynthesis the cell wall
Regarding hand washing, which of the following is true?
1) Alcohol is the only effective agent
2) Chlorhexidine gel is used for surgical hand washing
3) Povidone iodine is not effective
4) Hand washing is not necessary before procedures
Chlorhexidine gel is an effective antiseptic used in surgical hand washing, along with alcohol and povidone iodine.
What is the correct order of donning personal protective equipment (PPE) in the dental setting?
1) Gown, mask, gloves, face shield
2) Gloves, mask, gown, face shield
3) Mask, gown, gloves, face shield
4) Face shield, gown, mask, gloves
The correct order of donning PPE in the dental setting is to first put on a mask to protect the mouth and nose, then a gown to cover the clothes, followed by gloves to protect the hands, and finally a face shield to protect the eyes, nose, and face from splashes and sprays.
What is the retention period for dental records according to most dental boards?
1) 2 years
2) 5 years
3) 10 years
4) Varies by country/state
The retention period for dental records is typically dictated by each country's or state's dental board.
What is the primary treatment for syncope during a dental procedure?
1) Administering fluids intravenously
2) Placing the patient in the supine position
3) Inhalation of ammonia salts
4) Giving oxygen
Laying the patient flat with their legs elevated helps increase blood flow to the brain and restore consciousness.
After an amalgam restoration has been carved, it is important to lightly burnish the surface because burnishing 1. moves the amalgam in such a way as to fill in voids and submarginal areas 2. changes the contour of the restoration 3. increases the amalgam’s resistance to corrosion 4. contributes a dull luster to the surface
Dental Material Answer: 3After an amalgam restoration has been carved, it is important to lightly burnish the surface because burnishing increases the amalgam’s resistance to corrosion
How do rests help in force transmission?
1) By redirecting forces perpendicularly
2) By directing forces parallel to the long axis of the abutment tooth
3) By absorbing all the forces
4) By separating the teeth
Rests are designed to direct forces of mastication parallel to the long axis of the abutment to enhance support.
Which of the following is a common oral manifestation of diabetes
mellitus?
1) Oral lichen planus
4) Gingival overgrowth
3) Geographic tongue
4) Oral candidiasis
Diabetes can lead to a compromised immune system and increased
susceptibility to infections, making oral candidiasis a common manifestation.
All of the following have stratified squamous epithelium except:
1) Buccal mucosa
2) Pharynx
3) Maxillary sinus
4) Trachea
The maxillary sinus is lined with ciliated columnar epithelium, while the others have stratified squamous epithelium.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a high-risk patient?
1) 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient
2) 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient
3) Level of viruses are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
4) Level of virus in saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
ADC Test Answer: 2
Hepatitis B is known to be significantly more infectious than HIV, and small amounts of Hepatitis B virus can lead to transmission.
Suppuration results from the combined action of several factors. Which of the following is not one of them?
1) Necrosis
2) Presence of lymphocytes
3) Collection of neutrophils
4) Accumulation of tissue fluid
Neutrophils primarily mediate the inflammatory response and pus formation, while lymphocytes are more involved in chronic inflammation, not in the acute pus production.
Which of the following is the best practice for communicating with an anxious patient?
1) Speak in technical jargon
2) Use a calm, reassuring tone and simple language
3) Avoid eye contact to reduce pressure
4) Give a detailed explanation of all possible complications
Clear, simple language delivered in a calming tone can help reduce anxiety and build the patient's trust.
After the age of 6 years, where does the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occur?
1) At the symphysis
2) Between canines
3) Distal to the first molar
4) Ramus
After the age of 6, especially during growth spurts, the mandible increases significantly in height and width, particularly in the ramus region, including the area distal to the first molar.
The primary stress-bearing area of the maxillary complete denture is the:
1) Hard palate.
2) Alveolar ridge.
3) Median palatal raphe.
4) Zygoma.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
The hard palate
provides a firm and stable support area for distributing
occlusal forces in maxillary dentures.
The main excitatory neuro transmitter in CNS is
1) Glycine
2) Acetyl choline
3) Aspartate
4) Glutamate
The chemical compound acetylcholine (ACh) is a neurotransmitter in both the peripheral nervous system (PNS)and central nervous system (CNS) in many organisms including humans.
After performing an apicoectomy, which of the following should be placed in the
bony defect prior to suturing the flap?
1) Corticosteroids.
2) Nothing.
3) Oxidized cellulose.
4) Bone wax.
In most cases, after an apicoectomy, it is standard practice to leave the bony defect empty (nothing placed) to allow for natural healing and bone regeneration. The area is typically sutured closed without the addition of materials, as this can promote better healing and reduce the risk of complications.
What does the presence of Rushton bodies indicate in histological examinations?
1) Bacterial infection
2) Non-odontogenic cyst
3) Odontogenic origin of a cyst
4) Immune response
The identification of Rushton bodies, which are often found in radicular cysts, signifies that the cyst has an odontogenic origin.
Which of the following shows highest permanent deformation following strain in compression :
1) Polysulphide impression material
2) Polyether impression material
3) Condensation silicones
4) Addition silicones
For permanent deformation following strain in compression, ranking is mentioned below: Polysulfide > polyethers > condensation silicone > addition silicone
Which of the following conditions might warrant caution when using benzodiazepines?
1) Young adults
2) Pregnant women
3) Healthy athletes
4) Non-smokers
Caution is especially required when prescribing benzodiazepines to pregnant women due to potential risks and complications that could affect fetal health, including withdrawal symptoms and respiratory problems in the neonate.
Creatine Phosphate is the major source of glucose for the whole body during starvation
What is the primary advantage of using digital radiography in dentistry?
1) Lower radiation exposure
2) Immediate image availability
3) Enhanced image quality
4) All of the above
Digital radiography offers lower radiation exposure, immediate image availability, and enhanced image quality compared to traditional film radiography.
What is the primary advantage of computerized dental records in terms of patient care?
- Enhanced data security
- Improved legibility and reduced errors
- Reduced waiting times for appointments
- Increased marketing opportunities
Digital records can enhance patient care by reducing errors associated with handwritten notes and improving legibility, which facilitates better communication among dental professionals and safer treatment planning.
What is BMI (Body Mass Index) for, and how do we measure it?
1) To check if someone is overweight/obese/underweight; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m²)
2) To measure muscle mass; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m)
3) To assess hydration levels; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m)
4) To determine bone density; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m²)
BMI is a widely used indicator to classify individuals based on their weight relative to their height, helping to identify potential health risks associated with being underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese.
Which soft palate muscle is not affected by a laceration of the mucosa
1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar?
1) Tensor veli palatini
2) Palatoglossus
3) Palatopharyngeus
4) Levator veli palatini
A laceration of the mucosa 1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar is unlikely to damage the levator veli palatini as it is located above the palatoglossal fold.
What is the most common oral manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus?
1) Lichen planus-like lesions
2) Oral ulcers
3) Gingival hyperplasia
4) Fungal infections
Oral ulcers are a common oral manifestation seen in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus.
After completion of root canal therapy on a maxillary first premolar with
moderate mesial and distal lesions and intact buccal and lingual surfaces, the
restoration of choice is a/an
1) MOD composite resin.
2) MOD onlay.
3) MOD pin retained amalgam.
4) MOD bonded amalgam.
An onlay provides superior protection and strength for teeth with compromised structure, especially on premolars.
Which of the following is considered a biological hazard in a dental practice? 1) Chemical spills 2) Noise from dental equipment 3) Bloodborne pathogens 4) Ergonomic strain
Occupational Hazards Answer: 3Biological hazards include exposure to infectious agents such as bloodborne pathogens (e.g., HIV, Hepatitis B and 3) that can pose risks to dental professionals.
What is the most appropriate treatment for an elderly patient with a loose
denture?
1) Relining the denture
2) Implant placement
3) Adhesive use
4) Removal of the denture
Relining the denture can help improve its fit and stability, making it more comfortable for the patient.
Local anaesthetic causing methemoglobinemia is:
1) Lignocaine
2) Prilocaine
3) Bupivacaine
4) All of the above
Methemoglobinemia is mainly caused by prilocaine but can also be caused by benzocaine and rarely reported with lignocaine.
What type of disinfectant is most commonly used for surface disinfection in a
dental office?
1) Alcohol-based
2) Chlorine-based
3) Phenolic-based
4) Iodine-based
Phenolic disinfectants are commonly used in dental offices because
they are broad-spectrum, effective against a wide range of pathogens, and
suitable for disinfecting surfaces and equipment.
On inspection of the lateral border of the tongue at the base, which structure would you expect to find?
1) Filiform papillae
2) Fungiform papillae
3) Circumvallate papillae
4) Lymph nodes
ADC Test Answer: 3
Circumvallate papillae are located at the posterior part of the tongue and are involved in taste sensation.
What must a healthcare provider ensure about a patient before obtaining
informed consent?
1) The patient is of legal age
2) The patient has a high level of education
3) The patient is capable of understanding the information provided
4) The patient has a family member present
It is crucial that the patient has the capacity to understand the information related to their treatment to give valid consent.
A dental assistant notices that a patient flinches when the dentist approaches with instruments. This behavior may suggest:
1) Fear of dental procedures
2) Previous traumatic experiences
3) Lack of understanding of the procedure
4) None of the above
Flinching may indicate that the patient has experienced trauma, which could be related to abuse.
what %age of NaF is used in iontophoresis:
1.1%
2.2%
3.3%
4.4%
2% NaF is used in iontophoresis. This fluoride treatments brings about granular precipitation in dentinal tubules and reduces tubular diameter.
Which of the following is a loop diuretic used to manage hypertension?
1) Amiloride
2) Furosemide
3) Chlorothiazide
4) Spironolactone
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine output, thereby lowering blood pressure.
What is the difference between a dental chart and a dental record?
1) A dental chart is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental record includes all patient information.
2) A dental chart includes only the patient's medical history, while a dental record has the full treatment history.
3) A dental record is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental chart has the full treatment history.
4) Both are the same.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but
that it is still intact. Your instructions should be to
1) put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day.
2) place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately. .
3) put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately.
4) place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately.
Placing an avulsed tooth in milk is recommended because it helps preserve the vitality of the periodontal ligament cells. Milk has a similar osmolality to that of human cells, which can help keep the cells alive until the patient can receive professional dental care. Immediate treatment is crucial for the best chance of successful re-implantation.
What percentage of adults in the UK are alcoholics?
1) 3%
2) 5%
3) 10%
4) 15%
Approximately 5% of adults in the UK are classified as alcoholics, indicating a significant public health concern.
What are the main categories of dental records?
1) Diagnostic, treatment, and financial
2) Medical, dental, and surgical
3) Administrative, clinical, and radiographic
4) Patient, treatment, and billing
Dental records are generally categorized into three main types: administrative, which include patient information and appointment details; clinical, which encompass the patient's medical and dental history, treatment notes, and progress; and radiographic, which are the imaging studies such as x-rays used to diagnose and plan treatment.
What is the primary purpose of documenting suspected abuse or neglect in a dental practice?
1) To confront the abuser
2) To provide evidence for legal proceedings
3) To avoid liability
4) To inform other dental professionals
Documentation serves as a crucial record of observations and actions taken, which can be important in legal contexts.
Which of the following antibiotics shows an incidence of approximately 8% cross-allergencity with penicillins?
1) Bacitracin
2) Erythromycin
3) Cephalexin
4) Vancomycin
Cephalosporins can cause allergic reactions in people with penicillin allergy.
it is generally recommended that those allergic to penicillin avoid cephalosporins all together.
In mixed dentition, which of the following may be considered as a self correcting problem with age?
1) Unilateral loss of primary canine
2) Lack of interdental spaces
3) A distal step
4) Open bite
SOLUTION The possibility that a distal step would become class II is very real, and this not self correcting problem.
Normal child will go through a transitory stage of mandibular incisor crowding at age 8 to 9 even if there will eventually be enough room to accommodate all the permanent teeth in good alignment. In other words, a period when the mandibular incisors are slightly crowded is a normal developmental stage.
Continued development of the arches improves the spacing situation, and by the time the canine teeth erupt, space is once again adequate.
Local anaesthetic used as an antiarrhythmic agent is:
1) Bupivacaine
2) Lignocaine
3) Cocaine
4) Chlorprocaine
It is also used to treat ventricular tachycardia and to perform nerve blocks Dosage Of Local Anesthesia: 1) Safety dose of 2% Lignocaine is 4.5mg/kg without a Vasoconstrictor Without a Vasoconstrictor 300 mg (maximum dose) 2) Safety dose of 2% Lignocaine is 7mg/kg with a Vasoconstrictor With a Vasoconstrictor – 500 mg (maximum dose) 3) As 1ml of 2% Lignocaine contains 20mg – Where the Maximum safety dose being 300 mg So 15 ml of Drug can be given safely 4) 1:1,00,000 concentration means 1 part of Adrenaline is 1,00,000 parts of Solution Safety Dose of Adrenaline for Dental Use in normal patients is 0.2 mg – which means 20 ml of LA can be given to normal patients containing Adrenaline For cardiac Patients the safety dose of Adrenaline is 0.04mg – Which means 4ml of LA can be given to Patients with cardiac problems containing Adrenaline 5) If the concentration of LA is 1:50,000 – 10 ml of LA can be given safely
Rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis is HMG CoA reductase
What is the optimal environment for managing an anxious patient?
1) A brightly lit, noisy room
2) A dark, quiet room
3) A comfortably lit room with calming music
4) A room with no decorations
A calming environment with appropriate lighting and soothing sounds can significantly reduce a patient's anxiety during dental treatment.
Which tooth is most commonly associated with dental impaction?
1) Maxillary canine
2) Mandibular first molar
3) Mandibular third molar
4) Maxillary central incisor
The mandibular third molar (wisdom tooth) is the most frequently impacted tooth due to limited space in the dental arch.
Local anaesthetic agent which has antimuscarinic action on heart muscle receptors is:
1) Procaine
2) Cocaine
3) Chloroprocaine
4) None of the above
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic (and thus antimuscarinic) local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
What is the best treatment for chronic periodontitis?
1) Scaling and root planing alone.
2) Antibiotics alone.
3) Surgical intervention alone.
4) Combination of scaling, root planing, and surgical intervention with adjunctive antibiotics.
ADC Test Answer: 4
Chronic periodontitis typically requires a multi-faceted approach that includes non-surgical periodontal therapy (scaling and root planing), surgical intervention if necessary, and adjunctive antibiotics to manage the infection effectively.
Which of the following is not a loop diuretic:
1) Fruesmide
2) Torsemide
3) Ethacrynic acid
4) Chlorthalidone
Pharmacology Answer: 4
Chlorthalidone (Thiazide like diuretic)
You notice a lesion on the labial alveolar mucosa of the lower right lateral incisor tooth of one of your patients and decide to take a biopsy. Which nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy?
1) The lingual nerve
2) The buccal nerve
3) The incisive nerve
4) The mental nerve
The incisive nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy.
The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make up at 0.5mm away from pulp is:
1) 20%
2) 50%
3) 70%
4) 80%
ADC Test Answer: 2
Studies have shown that approximately 50% of the total dentin surface at this distance from the pulp chamber is occupied by dentinal tubules, which play a crucial role in sensitivity and responsiveness.
Iodine is a characteristic component of 1. Cysteine 2. Tyrosine 3. Thyroxine 4. Thiamin
Biochemistry Answer: 3odine is a characteristic component of Thyroxine
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) The pain usually lasts for a few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease
2) The pain is usually unilateral
3) Patients characteristically have sites on the skin that, when stimulated, precipitate an attack of pain
4) An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead
ADC Test Answer: 4
While trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysmal pain, it is not typically associated with sweating in the forehead region.
Which of the following statements about informed consent is true?
1) It is
only necessary for surgical procedures.
2) It must always be documented in writing.
3) It is a one-time process that does not require updates.
4) It should be tailored to the individual patient's needs and understanding.
;Informed consent should be personalized to ensure that the patient fully understands the information relevant to their treatment.
Where in the periodontal ligament fibers are the fibers thinner?
1) Apical third
2) Middle third
3) Cervical third
4) None
The fibers in the middle third of the periodontal ligament are generally thinner than in the apical or cervical thirds, leading to reduced tensile strength and an area that is more susceptible to damage.
What is the most common microorganism associated with root surface caries?
1) Actinomyces viscosus.
2) Streptococcus mutans.
3) Streptococcus salivarius.
4) Lactobacillus acidophilus.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Actinomyces viscosus is often associated with root surface caries due to its ability to adhere to and colonize the root surface under conditions of reduced salivary flow and increased carbohydrate exposure.
Drugs mostly cross biological membranes by
1) Passive diffusion
2) Active diffusion
3) Active transport
4) Carrier mediated transport
Passive diffusion: The movement of drug across a membrane in a manner driven solely by the concentration gradient.
Is Myasthenia Gravis and Grave's disease type 2 or type 5 hypersensitivity reactions?
1) Type 2
2) Type 5
3) Both
4) Neither
Both Myasthenia Gravis and Grave's disease are classified as type 2 hypersensitivity reactions, mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies.
What is the legal status of informed consent in an emergency situation?
1) It is not required
2) It is always required
3) It is required unless the patient is unconscious
4) It is required unless the treatment is lifesaving
In an emergency where immediate treatment is necessary to save a patient's life or prevent serious harm, informed consent is not required due to the urgent nature of the situation.
The deciduous teeth which provide the adequate space is an important factor in relation of
1) Normal occlusion
2) Malocclusion
3) High caries index
4) Early exfoliation of deciduous teeth
Compared to the permanent dentition the mesio distal diameter of the primary dentition is larger .
What is the primary study design to evaluate tetracycline as an adjunct to scaling and root planing for chronic periodontitis?
1) Cohort
2) Non-randomised controlled trial
3) Randomised controlled trial
4) Case-control
A randomized controlled trial (RCT) is the ideal design to assess the effectiveness of a treatment by removing bias and allowing for controlled comparisons.
Which of the following is not a part of behavioral science?:
1) Social Psychology
2) Economics
3) Sociology
4) Social Anthropology
Economics is not a part of behavioral science because it primarily focuses on
the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services, as well as
the behavior of individuals and organizations in the market. Behavioral science,
on the other hand, is a multidisciplinary field that studies human behavior and
interactions, drawing from various disciplines such as psychology, sociology,
and social anthropology. While economics may incorporate some aspects of human
behavior, it is not considered a core component of behavioral science.
For stage 2 hypertensive patients, periodic monitoring during dental procedures helps manage blood pressure fluctuations.
Which of the following is NOT a method for sterilizing dental instruments?
1) Autoclaving
2) Dry heat
3) Chemical vapor sterilization
4) Microwave sterilization
Microwave ovens are not designed for sterilization purposes and can
cause uneven heating and potential damage to instruments. Autoclaving, dry heat,
and chemical vapor sterilization are all valid methods for sterilizing dental
instruments.
A 9 year old presents for treatment immediately following a facial injury
resulting in a fracture of a maxillary central incisor that involves the enamel
only. The tooth tests negative to an electric pulp tester. This finding
indicates that the tooth
1) is nonvital and should be extracted
2) is nonvital and endodontic therapy is indicated
3) has a root fracture and should be extracted
4) should be observed and tested again at a later date.
A negative response to pulp testing immediately after trauma may not indicate necrosis but temporary pulp shock. Observation allows the pulp to recover.
In providing treatment to older adults, which ethical principle is most
important?
1) Autonomy
2) Beneficence
3) Non-maleficence
4) Justice
Respecting an elderly patient's autonomy is crucial for ethical treatment, ensuring informed consent and patient-centered care.
What is the most benign tumor among the following options?
1) Kaposi sarcoma
2) Burkitt's lymphoma
3) Adenolymphoma
4) Acinic cell carcinoma
Adenolymphoma, also known as Warthin’s tumor, is a benign glandular tumor typically found in the parotid gland, characterized by two layers of eosinophilic epithelial cells.
In which situation is it generally considered unethical for a dentist to
terminate a patient-provider relationship?
1) Non-compliance with treatment recommendations
2) Patient non-payment for services
3) Patient's lack of respect for the dentist or staff
4) Patient's refusal of a recommended treatment plan
While dentists have the right to set their own financial policies, terminating a relationship solely on the basis of non-payment may not be ethical, especially if it results in the patient being denied necessary care.
The air-water spray used as a coolant in high speed cutting of a cavity will
1. Decrease pulp damage.
2. Reduce frictional heat.
3. Keep the operating site clean.
4. Reduce clogging of cutting instruments.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
33) (2) and (4)
4) All of the above.
The air-water spray serves multiple purposes during dental procedures:
- Decrease pulp damage: By cooling the tooth structure, it helps prevent thermal injury to the pulp.
- Reduce frictional heat: The spray minimizes heat generated by the cutting instrument.
- Keep the operating site clean: The spray helps wash away debris and blood, providing better visibility.
- Reduce clogging of cutting instruments: It helps to clear debris from the cutting surface, maintaining instrument efficiency.
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis?
1) Type I
2) Type II
3) Type III
4) Type IV
Contact dermatitis is mediated by a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction (Type IV), which involves T-cell activation.
A 6 year old child has a non-vital primary mandibular second molar which has a
draining sinus tract from he bifurcation area The most appropriate management
is
1) extraction.
2) observation.
3) pulpotomy.
4) direct pulp capping.
What happens when rests are not properly designed?
1) They could be aesthetically displeasing
2) They may not transfer occlusal stresses effectively
3) They could enhance retention
4) They become more comfortable
Poorly designed rests may fail to effectively transfer occlusal stresses, potentially compromising the stability of the RPD.
Of the following, the most difficult impaction to extract is:
1) Mesioangular
2) Vertical
3) Distoangular
4) Horizontal
Distoangular impactions of mandibular molars are often considered the most challenging to extract due to their position and the amount of bone that must be removed to access the tooth. The angulation of the tooth can complicate the extraction process, requiring more extensive surgical intervention. Additionally, the removal of bone in this area can weaken the ramus of the mandible, increasing the risk of fracture during extraction.
Which of the fibers attached to cementum are most likely to contribute to relapse of tooth rotation:
1) Gingival group of fibers
2) Apical fibers
3) Horizontal fibers
4) Oblique fibers
SOLUTION Gingival group of fibers
Principal fibers of the periodontal ligament rearranges themselves quite rapidly to the position in about 4 weeks.The supra-alveolar gingival fiber take as much as 40 weeks to rearrange around the new position and thus predispose to relapse.
Which antihypertensive class includes drugs that may cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect?
1) Beta-blockers
2) ACE inhibitors
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) ARBs
Calcium channel blockers, such as Amlodipine, are associated with gingival hyperplasia.
What is the best method for securing the airway of a patient with a cleft palate during a dental procedure?
1) Use of a nasal airway
2) Use of an oral airway
3) Intubation
4) Oxygen via a face mask
Patients with cleft palates often have compromised airways, making intubation the safest and most reliable method of airway management during dental procedures that require sedation or general anesthesia.
During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment material will undergo an additional
expansion if it occurs
1) under water.
2) under vacuum.
3) in a cold environment.
4) in a dry environment.
Hygroscopic expansion occurs when water surrounds the setting gypsum, enhancing
its dimensional changes.
This type of expansion is often utilized intentionally in casting to compensate
for metal shrinkage during cooling.
A dental hygienist notices that a child has multiple untreated dental caries and appears malnourished. What should be the hygienist's first action?
1) Discuss with the child’s parents
2) Document the findings
3) Report the situation to child protective services
4) Schedule a follow-up appointment
As a mandated reporter, the hygienist must report suspected neglect to the appropriate authorities when a child’s well-being is at risk.
What does N0 indicate in the TNM classification?
1) No regional lymph node metastases
2) One ipsilateral node < 3 cm diameter
3) Ipsilateral or contralateral nodes 3-6 cm diameter
4) Lymph node metastasis > 6 cm diameter
N0 indicates that there are no regional lymph nodes involved in the metastatic process, which is an important factor in cancer staging.
Which of the following actions would be considered unethical in a dental practice?
1) Providing treatment based on the patient's informed consent
2) Discussing treatment options with the patient
3) Referring a patient to a specialist when necessary
4) Falsifying patient records to justify treatment
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 4Falsifying records is unethical and illegal, as it compromises patient safety and trust, and violates legal standards of practice
The drug currently in wide use for treating opioid dependent individuals 1. methadone 2. pentazocine 3. alphaprodine 4. meperidine
Pharmacology Answer: 1The drug currently in wide use for treating opioid dependent individuals is metahdone
X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of:
1) Silver nitrate crystal
2) Metallic silver in gelatine
3) Silver bromide in gelatine
4) Silver nitrate in gelatine
ADC Test Answer: 3
The emulsion on x-ray films is primarily composed of silver bromide crystals suspended in gelatin, which is sensitive to radiation.
In the TNM classification, what does T1 indicate?
1) Tumor size greater than 4 cm
2) Tumor size less than 2 cm
3) Tumor extending to adjacent structures
4) Tumor size between 2-4 cm
T1 indicates that the tumor is less than 2 cm in its greatest dimension, which is an important factor in staging cancer.
What is the purpose of using a handpiece with a 330 bur during a pulpotomy procedure?
1) To remove caries.
2) To reduce occlusal surface.
3) To remove the roof of the pulp chamber.
4) To mix IRM.
A handpiece with a 330 bur is used to remove the roof of the pulp chamber during a pulpotomy procedure.
The junction between primary and secondary dentine is:
1) A reversal line
2) Sharp curvature
3) A resting line
4) A reduction in the number of tubules
ADC Test Answer: 2
The relationship between primary and secondary dentine is characterized by a sharp transition in the curvature of dentinal tubules as changes in odontoblast activity occur post-eruption.
Which one of the following is the initial treatment for internal resorption?
1) Pulpectomy.
2) Pulpotomy.
3) Pulp capping.
4) Apicoectomy.
The initial treatment for internal resorption is typically a pulpectomy, which involves the complete removal of the pulp tissue. This procedure is necessary to halt the resorptive process and to allow for the potential healing of the tooth. A pulpotomy may be considered in some cases, but a pulpectomy is more definitive for internal resorption.
The most appropriate management for a child with a primary tooth that caused a
severe, throbbing toothache the previous night is to
1) prescribe an analgesics.
2) perform a pulpectomy
3) remove caries and place a temporary restoration.
4) perform a pulpotomy.
Pulpectomy removes necrotic or infected pulp tissue, resolving pain while preserving the tooth's functionality.
Pethidine should not be given with:
1) Reserpine
2) Propranolol
3) Atenolol
4) MAO inhibitors
Pethidine can cause severe excitatory response and arrhythmias in patients on MAO therapy.
All the following are part of the HURIER Model of Listening, except:
1) Hearing.
2) Remembering.
3) Responding.
4) Encouraging.
The HURIER Model of Listening is a framework that outlines the different stages
of effective listening. It stands for Hearing, Understanding, Remembering,
Interpreting, Evaluating, and Responding. Encouraging is not part of this model
because it does not represent a specific stage of the listening process.
Encouraging is more related to the communication skills of the listener, rather
than a distinct step in the listening model.
In the absence of its permanent successor, a primary first molar of a 7 year old
1) should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption.
2) may remain for years with no significant resorption.
3) should be extracted
4) is more susceptible to dental caries.
In the absence of a successor, primary molars often remain functional and stable
for extended periods.
What is the role of color coding in dental records management?
1) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of records
2) To simplify the organization and retrieval of files
3) To indicate the financial status of patients
4) To differentiate between various dental procedures
Color coding can help in quickly identifying and organizing patient files, making retrieval more efficient.
Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off 4. all of the above
Dental Material Answer: 4Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off
Beta-blockers reduce blood pressure primarily by:
1) Blocking angiotensin II receptors
2) Reducing heart rate and cardiac output
3) Increasing diuresis
4) Vasodilation
Beta-blockers lower blood pressure by decreasing heart rate and the force of contraction, which reduces cardiac output.
What is the critical pH for demineralization of carbonate-substituted
hydroxyapatite (CHA)?
1) 4.5
2) 5.5
3) 6.2
4) 7.0
The critical pH for CHA is 5.5, below which demineralization begins.
Which of the following should NOT be included in a dental record?
1) Patient's medical history
2) Treatment plan
3) Financial information
4) Clinical examination notes
Financial information, such as insurance claims and payment vouchers, should not be included in the clinical dental record.
Which of the following series of cements have anticariogenic properties? 1. zinc phosphate, silicate, and polycarboxylate cements 2. silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements 3. zinc oxide eugenol, ethoxybenzoic, and zinc oxide eugenol polymer reinforced cements 4. calcium hydroxide and ethoxybenzoic cements
Dental Material Answer: 2Cements with anticariogenic properties are silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements
Which of the following is the most important factor in disease progression in smokers?
1) Smokers have drier mouths than non-smokers
2) Smokers have poorer oral hygiene than non-smokers
3) Nicotine will impair the chemotactic and phagocytic properties of PMNs
4) The gingival blood flow is reduced in smokers
Reduced gingival blood flow in smokers contributes significantly to the progression of periodontal disease and other oral health issues.
Why is the J chain important for IgA and IgM functionality?
1) It enhances synthesis speed.
2) It promotes cellular uptake.
3) It aids in the formation of dimers and pentamers.
4) It blocks the action of pathogens.
The J chain is crucial for the assembly of immunoglobulin dimers (for IgA) and pentamers (for IgM), enabling them to function effectively as first-line defenses in mucosal surfaces by preventing pathogen adherence.
The secretory product of odontoblasts is:
1) Topocollagen.
2) Calcium salts.
3) Mantle dentin.
4) Hydroxyapatite
Dentinogenesis is the formation of dentin by odontoblasts of mesenchymal origin
located at the periphery of the dental pulp
Dentinogenesis is initiated by the inductive influence of the enamel organ
involving molecular signaling pathways, such as Wnt, Runx-2, and TGF-?. In the
molar tooth, dentinogenesis starts at the late bell stage, and occurs in the
crown as well as root regions.
Predentin, the first organic matrix secreted by odontoblasts, is composed by
proteoglycans, glycoproteins, and collagens.
Which of the following is NOT a common occupational hazard for dentists and dental staff?
1) Exposure to ionizing radiation
2) Risk of infection from bloodborne pathogens
3) Development of musculoskeletal disorders
4) High risk of developing allergies to dental materials
While dentists and dental staff are indeed at risk of developing allergies to certain dental materials, especially those with latex allergies due to repeated exposure to gloves and other latex products, it is not a common occupational hazard compared to exposure to ionizing radiation from dental x-rays, risk of infection from bloodborne pathogens due to the nature of dental procedures, and the high prevalence of musculoskeletal disorders due to the ergonomic challenges of the work.
In classifying molar relation in patient with premature loss of primary molar, additional relation to be noted is
1) Incisor relation
2) Canine relation
3) Midline relation
4) Premolar relation
Orthodontics Answer: 2
SOLUTION
The permanent anterior tooth most often missing congenitally is the 1. maxillary central incisor 2. mandibular central incisors 3. mandibular lateral incisors 4. maxillary lateral incisors
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4lateral incisor is most often missing congenitally
Local anesthetic which produces localized vasoconstriction and anesthesia?
1) Cocaine
2) Tetracaine (pontocaine)
3) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
4) Prilocaine (Citanest)
Cocaine is a local anesthetic that produces localized vasoconstriction and anesthesia.
What type of crown is placed after a Nayyar core technique?
1) Porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
2) Amalgam crown
3) All-ceramic crown
4) Gold crown
The Nayyar core technique is often followed by placing an amalgam crown due to its strength and durability.
While doing preparation for an FMC crown prep on tooth 16 in a 20-year-old man, a pinpoint pulp exposure occurred. How would you best manage the situation?
1) Do DPC immediately under rubber dam then tell the patient about the situation
2) Tell the patient immediately and do pulpotomy
3) Start RCT then describe the situation to the patient
4) Tell the patient that you have encountered an inadvertent incident while preparing and refer him to a specialist
ADC Test Answer: 1
Direct Pulp Capping (DPC) is the most appropriate management strategy for a small pinpoint pulp exposure.
Which antibiotic can be safely prescribed to a patient who is on warfarin and is not allergic to penicillin?
1) Clindamycin
2) Erythromycin
3) Penicillin
4) Metronidazole
Penicillin is an appropriate choice for patients who are on warfarin and not allergic to penicillin.
What is a potential complication of using midazolam in pregnant women?
1) Enhanced sedation effects
2) Withdrawal symptoms in the neonate
3) Rapid metabolism in the body
4) No contraindications noted
Midazolam can cause significant risks to the neonate if used during pregnancy, particularly during the third trimester, leading to withdrawal symptoms like hypotonia and respiratory issues after birth.