Dentist Abroad
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation for suspected mandibular fractures? 1) MRI 2) Orthopantomogram 3) CT scan 4) Lateral cephalogram
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 2The orthopantomogram (OPG) is the first-line radiographic investigation for suspected mandibular fractures. It provides a panoramic view of the mandible, making it ideal for fracture assessment.
Simplest way to stop gingival bleeding:
1) Cotton pellet.
2) Retraction cord.
3) Temporary dressing.
4) Suture.
ADC Test Answer: 1
A cotton pellet is a simple and effective means to apply pressure directly to a bleeding site, helping to control hemorrhage temporarily.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions. A full dental record, on the other hand, includes the patient's medical and dental history, treatment plans, x-rays, notes from appointments, consent forms, and other relevant information about the patient's oral health.
Disto buccal root of upper first molar is supplied by:
1) Buccal nerve
2) Middle superior alveolar nerve
3) Posterior superior alveolar nerve
4) Infra orbital nerve
The disto buccal root of the upper first molar is supplied by the posterior superior alveolar nerve.
What factor can enhance the bicarbonate-mediated acid-neutralizing effect of saliva?
1) High-fat diet
2) Decreased salivary flow
3) Increased salivary flow
4) Sleep
Increased salivary flow naturally raises bicarbonate levels in the saliva, which helps to neutralize acids in plaque more effectively, protecting against enamel demineralization and promoting oral health.
The junction between primary and secondary dentine is:
1) A reversal line
2) Sharp curvature
3) A resting line
4) A reduction in the number of tubules
ADC Test Answer: 2
The relationship between primary and secondary dentine is characterized by a sharp transition in the curvature of dentinal tubules as changes in odontoblast activity occur post-eruption.
Before performing periodontal surgery, it is important to:
1) Prescribe a mouthwash.
2) Prescribe systemic antibiotics.
3) Control plaque.
4) None of the above.
Controlling plaque is essential to reduce bacterial load, improve healing outcomes, and decrease postoperative complications.
A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because:
1) Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest.
2) The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
3) Visibility and access are better.
4) The cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess that does not need to be prepared.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Lingual rests provide better mechanical advantage by minimizing leverage and torque forces on the abutment teeth, preserving their health and stability.
Can informed consent be obtained from a patient who is under the influence of
sedation?
1) Yes, as long as the patient can still communicate their wishes
2) No, sedation impairs the patient's ability to understand and make decisions
3) Yes, because the patient's consent was obtained before administration of
sedation
4) It depends on the type and level of sedation
Informed consent must be obtained when the patient is fully conscious and has the mental capacity to comprehend the information provide4) If sedation affects the patient's ability to make informed decisions, consent should be obtained before administration.
Which nerve is located between the palatoglossus and palatopharyngeus
muscles?
1) Cranial nerve 9
2) Cranial nerve 7
3) Cranial nerve 10
4) Cranial nerve 12
The facial nerve (CN 7) passes between the palatoglossus and
palatopharyngeus muscles in the pterygopalatine fossa.
Which of the following best describes ergonomic hazards in dentistry?
1) Exposure to infectious diseases
2) Improper use of dental materials
3) Repetitive motions and awkward postures
4) Chemical exposure from disinfectants
Ergonomic hazards involve physical strain from repetitive motions and awkward postures that can lead to musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals.
What is the most commonly used topical anesthetic in dentistry?
1) Lidocaine
2) Benzocaine
3) Articaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is frequently used as a topical anesthetic in dentistry due to its effectiveness and rapid onset of action.
What is the purpose of the amber line in Winter's classification?
1) It shows the depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest
2) It indicates the amount of bone covering the tooth
3) It shows the path of eruption
4) It identifies the position of the tooth in the jaw
The amber line is drawn from the crest of interdental bone between the 1st and 2nd molars and extends posteriorly, showing how much bone covers the impacted tooth.
Why is a palatal strap used instead of a narrow bar in removable partial dentures?
1) More rigid with less thickness.
2) Easier to polish.
3) More stable.
4) Less irritating to the soft tissues.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Adjusting the occlusal plane is a foundational step that impacts all subsequent processes in prosthetic rehabilitation. This adjustment should be based on a comprehensive diagnosis and treatment plan to ensure compatibility with the patient’s anatomy and function.
What is the primary purpose of taking dental impressions?
1) To diagnose dental conditions
2) To create a mold for restorations or orthodontic appliances
3) To monitor teeth movement over time
4) To educate patients about oral hygiene
Dental impressions are taken to create a precise mold of a patient's teeth and surrounding structures. These molds are then used by dental laboratories to fabricate restorations like crowns, bridges, dentures, and orthodontic appliances that fit accurately in the patient's mouth. While impressions can indirectly help in diagnosis, their primary purpose is for the creation of these appliances.
What is the best treatment option for replacing a missing lateral incisor?
1) Fixed partial denture
2) Removable partial denture
3) Dental implant
4) Orthodontic treatment
A dental implant is often the best option for replacing a missing lateral incisor, providing a stable and aesthetic solution.
Naloxone reverses the actions of:
1) Morphine
2) Diazepam
3) Thiopentone
4) All of the above
What is a secondary caries lesion?
1) A lesion that occurs on the surface of a restored tooth
2) A lesion that occurs only in the presence of fluoride
3) A lesion that is limited to the enamel surface
4) A lesion that occurs only in children
Secondary or recurrent caries occur at the junction of the tooth and a restoration, often due to microleakage or inadequate oral hygiene.
What should a dentist do if a patient is unable to read the informed consent
form due to visual impairment?
1) Have a family member read it to the patient
2) Skip the consent process
3) Read the form to the patient and ensure they understand the information
4) Have the patient listen to an audio recording of the consent form
It is the dentist's responsibility to ensure that the patient
comprehends the information presented in the consent form. If the patient cannot
read, the dentist should read the form to them and answer any questions to
confirm understanding.
Of the following, the most difficult impaction to extract is:
1) Mesioangular
2) Vertical
3) Distoangular
4) Horizontal
Distoangular impactions of mandibular molars are often considered the most challenging to extract due to their position and the amount of bone that must be removed to access the tooth. The angulation of the tooth can complicate the extraction process, requiring more extensive surgical intervention. Additionally, the removal of bone in this area can weaken the ramus of the mandible, increasing the risk of fracture during extraction.
In an average child the mixed dentition period is from 1. 10 years to 25 years 2. 4 yrs to 12 yrs 3. 8 yrs to 17 yrs 4. 6 yrs to 13 years
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4In an average child the mixed dentition period is from 6 yrs to 13 y
The nerve to masseter passes 1. deep to the medial pterygoid muscle 2. posterior to temporomandibular joint 3. superior to zygomatic arch to enter the muscle on its medial surface 4. through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
Anatomy Answer: 4The nerve to masseter passes through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia?
1) Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue
2) Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue
3) Usually caused by Candida species
4) Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue
ADC Test Answer: 2
Oral hairy leukoplakia is typically associated with Epstein-Barr virus and is most commonly found on the lateral borders of the tongue in immunocompromised individuals.
What is the treatment for trismus secondary to infection?
1) Warm compresses and antibiotics
2) Surgical drainage and antibiotics
3) Corticosteroid injections and muscle relaxants
4) Physical therapy and pain medication
Infectious causes of trismus often require surgical intervention to drain the infection site, followed by antibiotic therapy.
Which of the following actions is NOT a responsibility of a dental professional when they suspect abuse or neglect?
1) Reporting the suspicion to the appropriate authorities
2) Investigating the situation personally
3) Documenting observations in the patient’s record
4) Providing support to the patient
Dental professionals should report their suspicions rather than investigate, as this is outside their scope of practice.
What is the most common histological finding in pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Basal cell carcinoma
Acantholysis is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of intraepithelial vesicles.
Tourniquet cannot be released before ....... minutes after Beir's block
1) 5 minutes
2) 10 minutes
3) 30 minutes
4) 60 minutes
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
30 minutes Tourniquet once inflated and drug given, it cannot be released before half an hour as it is assumed that it takes this much time for drug to be completely out of vascular compartment.
The afferent limb to the upper epiglottis is via which nerve?
1) Superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
2) Inferior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
3) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
4) Lingual nerve (CN 5)
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9) is a mixed cranial nerve that carries both
sensory and motor fibers.
The superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10) innervates the mucous
membranes of the larynx below the level of the epiglottis, while the inferior
laryngeal branch innervates the muscles of the larynx, not the epiglottis. The
lingual nerve (CN 5) is primarily involved in the sensation of the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue and the mucosa of the floor of the mouth, not the
epiglottis.
Which type of cells is seen in the late stage of chronic periodontitis?
1) Basophils
2) Eosinophils
3) Lymphocytes
4) Neutrophils
5) Macrophages
In the late stages of chronic periodontitis, macrophages are more prevalent, reflecting ongoing inflammation and tissue destruction.
What is the red line in Winter's classification used to indicate?
1) The depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest
2) The path of eruption
3) The difference in occlusal level of 1st and 2nd molars
4) The amount of bone covering the tooth
The red line is drawn perpendicular from the amber line to an imaginary point of application of the elevator, indicating the depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest.
Unilateral numbness of the chin is associated with
1) malignancy.
2) Bell's palsy.
3) apical abscess.
4) trigeminal neuralgia
Numb chin syndrome occurs due to pressure on the mental nerve, often caused by
metastatic malignancies such as breast or lung cancer.
It serves as a potential warning sign of cancer progression.
What is the most appropriate action for a dentist to take if they suspect a
patient with a disability is being abused or neglected?
1) Report the suspicion to the patient's caregiver
2) Report the suspicion to the patient's guardian
3) Report the suspicion to the authorities
4) Ignore the suspicion due to the patient's disability
Dentists are mandated reporters for all forms of suspected abuse or
neglect, including cases involving patients with disabilities. The most
appropriate action is to report the suspicion to the authorities, such as Adult
Protective Services or Child Protective Services, depending on the patient's age
and the nature of the suspicion.
PPE, such as gloves, masks, and eyewear, is essential for safeguarding dental professionals from exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials.
The canine eminence is 1. associated with the mandibular canine only 2. the labial ridge on the crown of canine 3. an osseous structure surrounding the root of a canine on the facial aspect 4. the prominent ridge on the lingual surface of a maxillary canine
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3The canine eminence is an osseous structure surrounding the root of a canine on the facial aspect
Which of the following cements bonds to tooth structure, has an anticariogenic effect, has a degree of translucency and does not irritate the pulp? 1. Polycarboxylate cement 2. Resin cement 3. Silicate cement 4. Glass Ionomer cement
Dental Material Answer: 4GIC has an anticarious anticariogenic effect, It binds to tooth structure, Does not irritate the pulp tissue
Untrue about desflurane is:
1) Rapid induction and recovery
2) High vapour pressure
3) Induction is very smooth
4) Does not produce fluoride
Desflurane is isoflurane product so has pungent odour, rapid induction and recovery, very high vapour pressure.
What is the effect of saliva containing fluoride, calcium, and
phosphate on enamel solubility?
1) It increases enamel solubility and promotes demineralization.
2) It varies depending on the concentration of each component.
3) It has no effect on enamel solubility.
4) It decreases enamel solubility and prevents demineralization.
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together in saliva to remineralize enamel, making it more resistant to acid attacks by forming fluorapatite, which is less soluble than hydroxyapatite.
A dental hygienist notices that a child has multiple untreated dental caries and appears malnourished. What should be the hygienist's first action?
1) Discuss with the child’s parents
2) Document the findings
3) Report the situation to child protective services
4) Schedule a follow-up appointment
As a mandated reporter, the hygienist must report suspected neglect to the appropriate authorities when a child’s well-being is at risk.
How much force is usually used to move a tooth with an orthodontic appliance?
- extremely light force, less than 1 gram
- moderate force, in the range of 50 to 150 grams
- very heavy force, greater than 500 grams
- whatever the patient can tolerate
moderate force, in the range of 50 to 150 grams
VLC resins are also called
1) microwave-activated resins.
2) tertiary amine-activated resins.
3) light-activated resins.
4) heat-activated resins.
The first light-activated systems were formulated for UV light to initiate free radicals.
Because of these advantages, visibly light-activated composites are more widely used than are chemically acti wited materials.
Which of the following viruses has the greatest chance of transmission in an
occupational exposure to a vaccinated
dental healthcare worker?
1) Hepatitis B
2) Hepatitis C
3) HIV.
4) HPV.
Hepatitis C has a significant risk of blood borne transmission, especially via
needle sticks.
After completion of root canal therapy on a maxillary first premolar with
moderate mesial and distal lesions and intact buccal and lingual surfaces, the
restoration of choice is a/an
1) MOD composite resin.
2) MOD onlay.
3) MOD pin retained amalgam.
4) MOD bonded amalgam.
An onlay provides superior protection and strength for teeth with compromised structure, especially on premolars.
Apicoectomy is CONTRAINDICATED when
1) periodontal disease causes inadequate bony support.
2) there is a granuloma at the apex of the tooth.
3) more than one tooth is involved
4) the cortical plate is more than 4mm thick.
An apicoectomy is contraindicated in situations where the periodontal support is compromised:
- Periodontal disease causes inadequate bony support: If the tooth has significant periodontal disease leading to loss of supporting bone, the prognosis for the tooth after an apicoectomy is poor. The lack of adequate bony support can lead to tooth mobility and failure of the procedure.
- Granuloma at the apex: This is not a contraindication; in fact, granulomas are often the reason for performing an apicoectomy.
- More than one tooth involved: This is not a direct contraindication; it depends on the specific situation of each tooth.
- Cortical plate thickness: The thickness of the cortical plate is not a standard contraindication for apicoectomy.
- Diabetes: While diabetes can complicate healing, it is not an absolute contraindication for the procedure.
First sign of complication of anaesthesia:
1) Tachycardia
2) Bradycardia
3) Hypertension
4) Convulsions
Tachycardia is often the first sign of many complications seen in anaesthesia.
Which of the following procedures typically requires written informed
consent?
1) Routine dental examination
2) Tooth extraction
3) Periodontal probing
4) Radiographic imaging
Tooth extraction is considered an invasive and irreversible procedure, thus requiring written informed consent.
Which of the following types of publications is the most reliable source for making evidence-based clinical decisions?
1) Dental manufacturer’s product information.
2) Professional association journals.
3) Systematic review articles from dental research journals.
4) Case reports in dental journals.
Scientific Literature Answer: 3Systematic reviews provide high-quality evidence by summarizing and analyzing multiple studies, offering a reliable foundation for clinical decision-making.
What percentage of hypertension cases is accounted for by primary or essential hypertension? 1) 50% 2) 60% 3) 75% 4) 90%
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 4Primary or essential hypertension makes up about 90% of all hypertension cases, typically with no identifiable cause and is associated with factors like genetics, smoking, and obesity.
The reaction used for estimating free amino, groups in proteins is: 1. Ninhydrin test 2. Deamination with HNO2 3. Biuret test 4. Formol titration
Biochemistry Answer: 2The reaction used for estimating free amino, groups in proteins is Deamination with HNO2
What is the main goal of "tell-tale" signs in behavior management?
1) To distract the patient from the procedure
2) To inform the patient of the upcoming sensation
3) To communicate with the patient non-verbally
4) To give the patient a sense of control over the situation
Tell-tale signs are used to prepare the patient for the sensations they will feel during the procedure, which can help reduce anxiety.
In the mandible, the main growth site is in the:
1) Gonial angle.
2) Condylar cartilage.
3) Posterior border of the ramus.
4) Inferior and lateral aspects of the body of the mandible.
Orthodontics Answer: 2Excessive overjet is a hallmark of Angle Class II occlusion due to mandibular retrusion or maxillary protrusion, leading to an increased horizontal distance between the arches.
What is the ideal angle for subgingival curettage using universal curettes?
1) 0 degrees
2) 30 degrees
3) 45 degrees
4) 90 degrees
An angle of 45 degrees is ideal for effective subgingival curettage, allowing for proper access and removal of calculus without damaging the soft tissue.
Orthodontic tooth movement is inhibited by which of the following drugs
1) NSAIDS, such as Brufen
2) OPIOIDS, such as CORTISONE
3) Antibiotics such as tetracycline
4) Vasoconstrictors such as adrenaline
SOLUTION NSAIDS, i.e.
• Nimesulide does not interfere with PG production and so can be safely given during tooth movements.
The cricothyroid artery is a branch of the 1. occipital artery 2. superior thyroid artery 3. facial artery 4. superficial temporal artery
Anatomy Answer: 2The cricothyroid artery is a branch of the superior thyroid artery
A 16-year-old patient presents with bleeding gums and a bad smell. Which antibiotic should be prescribed?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Metronidazole
3) Clindamycin
4) Tetracycline
Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria, which are often involved in gingivitis and periodontitis, making it suitable for treating this patient's condition.
Which appliance is not suitable for skeletal Class –III malocclusion at the age of 8 years?
1) Frankel III
2) Activator III
3) Chin cap
4) Maxillary splint appliance
SOLUTION Maxillary splint appliance will hold the maxilla and worsen skeletal Cl –III malocclusion.
What is the critical pH for demineralization of carbonate-substituted
hydroxyapatite (CHA)?
1) 4.5
2) 5.5
3) 6.2
4) 7.0
The critical pH for CHA is 5.5, below which demineralization begins.
What is the most effective non-pharmacological method for managing dental anxiety?
1) Tell-Show-Do technique
2) Breathing exercises
3) Positive reinforcement
4) Nitrous oxide sedation
Breathing exercises, such as deep breathing or diaphragmatic breathing, are widely recognized as effective non-pharmacological methods for reducing anxiety. They help the patient to relax and can be performed easily without additional equipment.
The nerve to masseter passes 1. deep to the medial pterygoid muscle 2. posterior to temporomandibular joint 3. superior to zygomatic arch to enter the muscle on its medial surface 4. through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
Anatomy Answer: 2The nerve to masseter passes posterior to temporomandibular joint
If a cut is made below the cricoid cartilage, which structure might be injured?
1) Inferior laryngeal nerve
2) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
3) Superior laryngeal nerve
4) Both A and B
The recurrent laryngeal nerve runs below the cricoid cartilage and
supplies all the intrinsic laryngeal muscles except for the cricothyroid muscle,
which is supplied by the superior laryngeal nerve. Inferior laryngeal nerve (which supplies the cricothyroid muscle) Recurrent laryngeal nerve (which supplies all other intrinsic laryngeal
muscles except the cricothyroid muscle)
A non-synovial joint with dense connective tissue between two bony surfaces is called?
1) Synchondrosis
2) Syndesmosis
3) Symphysis
4) Suture
Sutures are fibrous joints in the skull that are immovable and connected by dense connective tissue, whereas syndesmoses can allow slight movement.
The orthodontic correction of which of the following is most easily retained
1) Anterior cross bite
2) Crowding
3) Diastema
4) Spacing
SOLUTION The key to success is to use an appliance that is both comfortable, easily retained and predictable such as a simple Hawley retainer with recurve springs or a fixed labial-lingual appliance (including a vertical removable arch for ease of adjustment with a recurve spring to jump the cross-bite). Both of these appliances work by tipping the maxillary teeth forward so they are in a normal dental relationship to the mandibular teeth.
The most likely reason for porcelain fracturing off a long and narrow metal-ceramic fixed partial denture is that the framework alloy had an insufficient:
1) Elastic modulus.
2) Proportional limit.
3) Fracture toughness.
4) Tensile strength.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
Explanation: An insufficient elastic modulus means the framework cannot adequately resist deformation, leading to stress
and eventual fracture of the porcelain.
Which class of drugs has been implicated in the development of thrombotic and bleeding complications in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) NSAIDs
2) Vitamin K antagonists
3) ACE inhibitors
4) Statins
NSAIDs can exacerbate bleeding complications by affecting platelet function and are linked to increasing the risk of angioedema.
Lidocaine (Xylocaine) effect on ventilation response to hypoxia?
1) Enhanced response
2) Depressed response
3) No effect
4) Enhanced response and no effect
Lidocaine, also known as Xylocaine, has been found to have a depressant effect on the ventilation response to hypoxia.
Stage of surgical anaesthesia is:
1) Stage I
2) Stage II
3) Stage III plane 2
4) Stage III plane 3
Stage III plane 3 is considered the stage of surgical anaesthesia, as laryngeal reflexes are lost, allowing for intubation.
What is the purpose of using articulating paper during a stainless steel crown procedure?
1) To remove caries.
2) To reduce occlusal surface.
3) To check occlusion.
4) To mix cement.
Articulating paper is used to check occlusion during a stainless steel crown procedure.
What is the recommended method for disposal of used needles and other sharps
in dental offices?
1) In regular trash
2) In a designated sharps container
3) In a red biohazard bag
4) In a puncture-resistant container
Sharps containers are designed to safely hold and dispose of used
needles and other sharp objects to prevent injury and the spread of infections. They should be puncture-resistant, leak-proof, and clearly labeled as biohazard
waste.
Which bacteria is most commonly associated with acute dentistry-related infections?
1) Streptococcus viridans
2) Staphylococcus aureus
3) Escherichia coli
4) Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus viridans is part of the normal oral flora and frequently implicated in dental infections, particularly endocarditis following dental procedures.
Elevation of aldosterone, in blood results in High 'Na' and high 'K' in urine resulting in acidic urine and body alkalosis
The secretory product of odontoblasts is:
1) Topocollagen.
2) Calcium salts.
3) Mantle dentin.
4) Hydroxyapatite
Dentinogenesis is the formation of dentin by odontoblasts of mesenchymal origin
located at the periphery of the dental pulp
Dentinogenesis is initiated by the inductive influence of the enamel organ
involving molecular signaling pathways, such as Wnt, Runx-2, and TGF-?. In the
molar tooth, dentinogenesis starts at the late bell stage, and occurs in the
crown as well as root regions.
Predentin, the first organic matrix secreted by odontoblasts, is composed by
proteoglycans, glycoproteins, and collagens.
Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is:
1) Thermodynamic action
2) Activation of tissue enzymes
3) Osmotic pressure
4) Protein precipitation
ADC Test Answer: 4
Trichloroacetic acid works by precipitating proteins, which helps in cauterizing tissues and managing lesions.
For a pigmented fissure, what is the best way to diagnose caries?
1) Visual examination
2) Radiographic examination
3) Investigate the area with a round bur
4) Transillumination
Investigating the area with a round bur allows for direct assessment of the fissure and any underlying carious lesions.
What is the most common complication associated with local anesthesia in the
elderly?
1) Dizziness and lightheadedness
2) Inadvertent intravascular injection
3) Increased risk of infection
4) Prolonged numbness
Due to altered pharmacokinetics, elderly patients may experience prolonged anesthesia and delayed recovery of normal sensation.
What is the effect on local anesthetic when used with sodium
bicarbonate ?
1 Increases speed and quality of anaestheisa
2 Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
3 Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
4 Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
The speed of onset of Anaesthesia is raised by Sodium bicarbonate and further
enhances its quality by elevating the intensity and duration of block.
In concentrations usually applied for sterilization purposes, ethylene oxide is preferable to formaldehyde becuase it is more penetrating
What material is LEAST usable for an impression of PFM (Porcelain-Fused-to-Metal)?
A. Alginate
B. Polyvinyl siloxane
C. Polyether
D. Agar
Alginate is primarily used for making preliminary impressions due to its set time and hydrophilic properties but does not provide the necessary detail and stability required for precise impressions needed for PFMs.
What is the typical presentation of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases serum potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
If a patient on warfarin is also allergic to penicillin, which antibiotic is recommended?
1) Erythromycin
2) Clindamycin
3) Cephalexin
4) Vancomycin
Clindamycin is a suitable alternative for patients allergic to penicillin who are also on warfarin since it does not interact adversely with anticoagulants.
Why must rests be rigid?
1) To provide flexibility to the denture
2) To ensure they receive positive support
3) To enhance aesthetics
4) To facilitate movement of the RPD
Rests must be rigid to ensure they provide adequate support and stability, receiving positive support from the abutment teeth.
A picture of the tongue with an ulcer on the lateral border. What drug causes it?
1) ACE inhibitors
2) Calcium channel blockers
3) Potassium-sparing drugs
4) NSAIDs
ACE inhibitors can cause oral side effects, including ulcers on the tongue and other mucosal surfaces.
Morphine withdrawal is characterized by all except
1) Miosis
2) Yawning
3) Lacrimation
4) Diarrhea
Withdrawal of morphine is associated with marked drug-seeking behavior.
Physical manifestations of abstinence are - lacrimation, sweating, yawning, anxiety, fear, restlessness, gooseflesh, mydriasis, tremor, insomnia, abdominal colic, diarrhea, dehydration, rise in BP, palpitation and rapid weight loss.
Delirium and convulsions are not a characteristic feature (contrast barbiturates) and are seen only occasionally.
Cardi-ovascular collapse and fatality are rare if supportive measures are instituted.
Which management technique is typically used for displaced mandibular fractures in the tooth-bearing region? 1) Conservative treatment 2) Intermaxillary fixation 3) Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) 4) Extraction of the fractured teeth
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 3Displaced or mobile fractures in the tooth-bearing region of the mandible usually require surgical intervention through open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) to properly realign and stabilize the fracture.
Which immunoglobulin increases in gingival inflammation?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgE
IgG levels increase in response to gingival inflammation, indicating an immune response to periodontal pathogens.
What does a rest seat refer to in RPD design?
1) A removable part of the denture
2) A prepared tooth surface for the rest to fit
3) A framework supporting teeth
4) A type of occlusal contact
A rest seat is the prepared surface on the tooth that accommodates the rest, providing a stable support.
What is the primary purpose of dental sealants?
1) To restore decayed teeth
2) To reduce caries in pits and fissures
3) To whiten teeth
4) To enhance the appearance of teeth
Dental sealants are protective coatings applied to the chewing surfaces of molars to prevent food particles and bacteria from collecting in pits and fissures, thereby reducing the risk of caries.
What is the primary feature of the double-blind method in clinical trials?
1) Both the patient and the researcher know the treatment being administered.
2) Only the patient knows the treatment being administered.
3) Neither the patient nor the researcher knows the treatment being administered.
4) The researcher knows the treatment, but the patient does not.
The double-blind method is designed to eliminate bias by ensuring that neither the participants nor the researchers know which treatment is being given, thus maintaining the integrity of the study.
Sickle cell anemia is precipitated when:
1) Oxygen tension goes down
2) Increased viscosity of blood is there
3) There is dehydration
4) All of the above
Sickle cell disease results from mutation, or change, of certain types of hemoglobin chains in red blood cells (the beta hemoglobin chains). When the oxygen concentration in the blood is reduced, the red blood cell assumes the characteristic sickle shape.
Austenite is an alloy of iron and carbon with the iron in
1) Alpha form
2) Beta form
3) Gamma form
4) None of the above
Austenite is an alloy of iron and carbon where the iron exists in the Gamma (γ) form.
Local anaesthetic causing methemoglobinemia is:
1) Lignocaine
2) Prilocaine
3) Bupivacaine
4) All of the above
Methemoglobinemia is mainly caused by prilocaine but can also be caused by benzocaine and rarely reported with lignocaine.
The essential. sulphur containing amino acid is: 1. Methionine 2. Cystetne 3. Cystine 4. Valine
Biochemistry Answer: 1Methionine is sulphur containing AminoAcid
Slightly raised vesicles rupturing to form ulcers are a feature of
1) Rubeola
2) Rubella
3) Condyloma acuminatum
4) Chicken pox
Chicken pox presents with multiple dermal lesions characteristically with vesicles, pustules which may secondarily ulcerate
What is the recommended retention period for dental records?
1) Indefinitely
2) Until the patient turns 18
3) For a certain period after the last treatment
4) Only as long as the patient is a current client
While specific retention periods may vary, dental records should generally be kept for a defined time after the last treatment to comply with legal and professional standards.
What is the significance of 'dentin involvement' in determining
operative treatment for dental caries?
1) It is a precise indicator for the need for operative treatment.
2) It is a vague term and cannot be relied upon for decision-making.
3) It is always indicative of severe caries progression.
4) It is directly correlated with the presence of cavities.
The term 'dentin involvement' is not specific enough to accurately
describe the various changes occurring in the pulpo-dentinal organ during caries
progression. This limits its use as a reliable indicator for determining the
need for operative treatment.
Which of the following is NOT a consideration when providing care to a patient with a hearing impairment?
1) Communication preferences (e.g., sign language, lip reading)
2) The use of visual cues
3) The patient's ability to understand dental terminology
4) The patient's favorite brand of toothpaste
While the patient's preference for toothpaste can be important for their oral hygiene compliance, it is not a critical consideration in the communication and care provision for a patient with a hearing impairment.
What type of information should be included in the patient's medical history?
1) Only dental information
2) Only medical information
3) Both dental and medical information
4) Dental, medical, lifestyle, and family history information
A comprehensive medical history should include the patient's dental information, medical conditions, current medications, allergies, and surgeries. Additionally, lifestyle factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, and family history of diseases can be relevant to the patient's oral health and treatment decisions.
Which receptors are implicated in anti emetic effects:
1) D2
2) V2
3) MU2
4) GABA
CTZ rich in D2 and 5HT receptors
A 6 year old child has a non-vital primary mandibular second molar which has a
draining sinus tract from he bifurcation area The most appropriate management
is
1) extraction.
2) observation.
3) pulpotomy.
4) direct pulp capping.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in therapeutic doses?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Clindamycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Tetracycline
Clindamycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal cramps, even at therapeutic doses.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but
that it is still intact. Your instructions should be to
1) put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day.
2) place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately. .
3) put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately.
4) place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately.
Placing an avulsed tooth in milk is recommended because it helps preserve the vitality of the periodontal ligament cells. Milk has a similar osmolality to that of human cells, which can help keep the cells alive until the patient can receive professional dental care. Immediate treatment is crucial for the best chance of successful re-implantation.
Extraction of a distoangular impaction of the mandibular third molar can cause:
1) Slippage in the lingual pouch
2) Fracture of the ramus of the mandible
3) Excessive hemorrhage
4) Dry socket
Distoangular impactions are particularly challenging due to their
position and the extensive bone removal required for extraction. This can weaken
the ramus of the mandible, making it more susceptible to fracture during the
extraction process. The risk of fracture is a significant concern for surgeons
when dealing with this type of impaction.
Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off 4. all of the above
Dental Material Answer: 4Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off
What is least important for the success of a post?
1) Diameter
2) Material
3) Luting agent
4) Length
While the luting agent is important, the diameter, material, and length of the post are more critical factors influencing the success of the post in retaining the restoration.
What is the primary route of transmission for most blood borne pathogens in
the dental setting?
1) Inhalation
2) Ingestion
3) Mucous membrane exposure
4) Skin absorption
The most common route of transmission for bloodborne pathogens in the dental setting is through mucous membrane exposure, such as when blood or other infectious materials come into contact with the eyes, nose, or mouth of a healthcare worker. This can occur through splashes, sprays, or contact with contaminated surfaces.
For a 15-year-old boy with a missing lateral incisor, what is the recommended treatment?
1) Dental implant
2) Resin bonded bridge
3) Removable partial denture
4) Orthodontic treatment
In younger patients, a resin-bonded bridge is often preferred due to the ongoing growth and development of the jaw.
Which of the following is main cause of pain during pulpal injury progression
1) increased vascular permeability
2) decreased threshold of nerve fibers to pain
3) arteriolar dilatation
4) decrease pressure
Increased vascular permeability: When the dental pulp becomes injured
or inflamed, the blood vessels in the pulp dilate and become more permeable.
What is the recommended method for labeling the outside of a patient's dental record?
- With the patient's full name, date of birth, and social security number
- With the patient's initials and the first three digits of their phone number
- With the patient's full name and a unique identifier
- With the patient's full name and medical history
The outside cover of the chart should only display the patient's name to maintain confidentiality.
What is the best way to communicate with a patient who has an intellectual disability?
1) Using medical jargon to assert authority
2) Using simple language and visual aids
3) Ignoring the patient and speaking only to their caregiver
4) Relying on nonverbal cues from the patient
Communicating with a patient with an intellectual disability requires patience and clarity.
Why should we give 5 rescue breaths first in a child during CPR?
1) Children require more oxygen
2) Children often have cardiac arrest
3) Children have asphyxial arrest
4) Children can often breathe on their own
In children, cardiac arrest is often due to respiratory failure or asphyxia, hence providing early rescue breaths ensures they receive vital oxygen quickly.
Which type of neurons supply the masticatory muscles?
1) Slow conducting
2) Fast conducting
3) Both
4) None
The masticatory muscles are supplied by fast-conducting motor neurons, allowing swift and effective muscle contractions for functions like chewing.
What causes amalgam expansion?
1) Excess mercury
2) Sufficient ventilation
3) Moisture contamination
4) Inadequate mixing
Moisture during the mixing and placement of amalgam can result in expansion, particularly with zinc-containing alloys.
Infantile Osteopetrosis as a genetic condition can result into the following
options except?
1) Fractures
2) Hearing loss
3) Vision problems
4) Peeked nose
Infantile Osteopetrosis is a genetic condition that causes abnormal bone growth and density. It can lead to various complications such as fractures, hearing loss, and vision problems. However, a "peeked nose" is not a known symptom or complication of this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is "Peeked nose" as it is not associated with Infantile Osteopetrosis.
Thymol is preservative used for:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Desflurane
4) Enflurane
Halothane can be decomposed by light so stored in amber colour bottles and contains thymol 0.01 % as preservative.
Which muscle protrudes the hyoid?
1) Suprahyoids
2) Infrahyoids
3) Geniohyoid
4) Stylohyoid
The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located in the neck, just above the larynx.
Brief explanation of the other muscles:
1) Suprahyoids: The suprahyoid muscles are a group of muscles that are situated
superior to the hyoid bone. Their primary function is to elevate the hyoid
during activities like swallowing. They include the digastric, stylohyoid, and
mylohyoid muscles. However, they do not directly protrude the hyoid.
2) Infrahyoids: The infrahyoid muscles are a group of muscles that are situated
inferior to the hyoid bone. They function to depress the hyoid bone during
activities like swallowing and speech. They include the sternohyoid, omohyoid,
thyrohyoid, and geniohyoid muscles.
4) Stylohyoid: The stylohyoid muscle is one of the infrahyoid muscles and it
originates from the styloid process of the temporal bone and inserts into the
lesser cornu and the body of the hyoid bone. Its main function is to elevate and
draw the hyoid bone backward and laterally. It does not directly protrude the
hyoid.
The geniohyoid muscle is the most specific in its action to protrude the hyoid
bone .
On replantation of an avulsed tooth, which type of resorption is most commonly observed
1) Surface resorption / External resorption
2) Internal resorption
3) Inflammatory resorption
4) Replacement resorption
ADC Test Answer: 4
After replantation of an avulsed tooth, the periodontal ligament cells are often damaged. When these cells fail to regenerate properly, the root surface fuses directly with alveolar bone. This leads to replacement resorption (ankylosis), where the tooth structure is gradually substituted by bone.
While combining NaOCH and H2O2 as irrigants
1) H2O2 should be used last
2) NaOCH should be used last
3) First irrigation should be done by normal saline
4) NaOCH and H2O2 should never be used simultaneously
Because residual H2O2 might react with debris and produce gas that can cause continuous pain.
Penumbra in radiology and imaging refers to?
1) Area of sharpness in imaging
2) Lack of sharpness of the film
3) The outer region of a shadow
4) The central part of an image
In the context of radiology and imaging, penumbra refers to the peripheral, less dense area surrounding the shadow cast by an opaque object. It is the transition zone between the dense shadow and the surrounding, unaffected tissue. It can sometimes cause difficulties in interpreting the extent of lesions or structures due to the blending of the shadow's edges with the surrounding tissue.
The function of 2% potassium sulphate in a gypsum product is
1) to regulate the setting expansion.
2) to regulate the setting time.
3) to act as a retarder.
4) none of the above.
Sodium chloride is an accelerator up to about 2% of the hemihydrates, but at a higher concentration, it acts as a retarder. Sodium sulphate has its maximum acceleration effect at approximately 3.4%; at greater concentrations, it becomes a retarder.
The most commonly used accelerator is potassium sulphate.
particles act as nuclei of crystallization.
Citrates. acetates and borates generally retard the reaction.
What is the most critical aspect of communication with geriatric patients?
1) Using technical dental terminology
2) Using complex sentence structures
3) Speaking loudly
4) Being patient and empathetic
Effective communication with elderly patients often involves
patience, empathy, and simplifying explanations to address potential hearing or
cognitive impairments.
Firm contact between approximating teeth is important because it
1) locates the marginal ridges of each tooth.
2) keeps the teeth from having any movement during function.
3) insures proper cusp form and increases masticatory efficiency.
4) stabilizes the dental arches and gives protection to the gingival papillae.
Firm contact between teeth helps maintain the stability of the dental arches, preventing unwanted movement during function. This contact also protects the gingival papillae by ensuring that the teeth are properly aligned and that the forces of mastication are distributed evenly, reducing the risk of periodontal issues.
Which of the following drugs acts by enzyme inhibition?
1) salbutamol
2) acetazolamide
3) tolbutamide
4) chlorpromazine
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces aqueous humour production and is therefore indicated in glaucoma to reduce the intraocular pressure.
Salbutamol is a selective, short-acting beta2-agonist used as a bronchodilator in asthma.
Chlorpromazine is an aliphatic neuroleptic antipsychotic drug used in schizophrenia.
The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth
would most likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the
1) mesial of a mandibular first premolar.
2) distal of a mandibular first premolar.
3) distal of a mandibular first molar.
4) mesial of a mandibular first molar.
The mesial aspect of the mandibular first molar is often more prone to periodontal ligament perforation when placing retentive pins due to the anatomy of the tooth and the proximity of the root to the periodontal ligament. The mesial root is typically larger and has a more complex canal system, which can increase the risk of perforation if the pin is not placed carefully.
What is the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient?
- To establish a baseline for future comparisons
- To screen for cavities
- To assess the patient's overall oral health
- To plan for a specific treatment
Although radiographs are used for various purposes, including detecting cavities and planning treatment, the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient is to assess the patient's overall oral health and identify any underlying conditions that may require attention.
A picture of the gingiva of a black person with melanin pigmentation and a white line across the central incisors. What is the cause of the white line?
1) Amelogenesis imperfecta
2) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
3) Hypo-mineralization
4) Fluorosis
The white line is likely due to hypo-mineralization, which can occur due to various factors, including nutritional deficiencies or environmental influences.
Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of the following sites?
1) Lateral border anteriorly
2) Anterior dorsal surface
3) Posterior dorsal surface
4) Lateral border posteriorly
ADC Test Answer: 4
The lateral border of the tongue, particularly posteriorly, is a common site for oral squamous cell carcinoma.
In the extended ecological caries hypothesis, what is the primary
factor that influences microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm?
1) The presence of fermentable carbohydrates.
2) Environmental acidification.
3) The host's immune response.
4) The availability of oxygen.
The extended ecological caries hypothesis posits that acidic environments created by dietary sugars and acids are the main drivers for microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm, particularly favoring the growth of aciduric and acidogenic bacteria like mutans streptococci.
Which anesthetic is known to penetrate the bone better?
1) Lidocaine
2) Articaine
3) Bupivacaine
4) Mepivacaine
Articaine has a unique chemical structure that facilitates better penetration of bone, making it very effective in dental anesthesia, especially for inferior alveolar nerve blocks.
Of the following, the most difficult impaction to extract is:
1) Mesioangular
2) Vertical
3) Distoangular
4) Horizontal
Distoangular impactions of mandibular molars are often considered the most challenging to extract due to their position and the amount of bone that must be removed to access the tooth. The angulation of the tooth can complicate the extraction process, requiring more extensive surgical intervention. Additionally, the removal of bone in this area can weaken the ramus of the mandible, increasing the risk of fracture during extraction.
What is the appropriate management when treating patients on long-term corticosteroids for dental procedures?
1) Increase antibiotics
2) Increase corticosteroid dose
3) Avoid treatment
4) Normal treatment without modifications
Patients on long-term corticosteroids may have adrenal suppression, necessitating an increased dose of corticosteroids prior to dental treatment to prevent adrenal crisis.
What is the most benign tumor among the following options?
1) Kaposi sarcoma
2) Burkitt's lymphoma
3) Adenolymphoma
4) Acinic cell carcinoma
Adenolymphoma, also known as Warthin’s tumor, is a benign glandular tumor typically found in the parotid gland, characterized by two layers of eosinophilic epithelial cells.
What is the recommended maximum safe dosage of epinephrine for geriatric
patients with cardiovascular diseases?
1) 0.04 mg
2) 0.2 mg
3) 0.1 mg
4) 0.5 mg
It's typically recommended to limit the total dose of
epinephrine to 0.04 mg due to the risk of cardiovascular events in older
patients.
What is the difference between incipient and cavitated lesions?
1) Incipient lesions are white and cavitated lesions are brown
2) Incipient lesions are brown and cavitated lesions are white
3) Incipient lesions are reversible and cavitated lesions are irreversible
4) Incipient lesions are always cavitated
Incipient lesions are the earliest stages of enamel demineralization and can be reversed with fluoride and remineralization, whereas cavitated lesions involve a break in the enamel surface and require restorative treatment.
How would you treat exposed and softened cementum due to gingival recession of several anterior teeth?
1) Scrap the soften cementum and apply fluoride.
2) Scrap the soften cementum and use GIC.
3) Class V amalgam.
4) None of the above.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Glass ionomer cement (GIC) is commonly used for class V restorations to protect the exposed root surfaces and cementum.
Marginal leakage of a composite resin restoration will
1) not be detectable.
2) be minimized by use of a bonding agent.
3) decrease with longevity.
4) noneof above
Bonding agents create a seal between the composite resin and the tooth structure, reducing marginal gaps and leakage.
Protamine sulphate reverses the effect of
1) Meperidine
2) Atropine
3) Hepartn
4) Strychnine.
Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be associated with irreversible aggregation of platelets and treating venous thromboembolism.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a high-risk patient?
1) 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient
2) 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient
3) Level of viruses are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
4) Level of virus in saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
ADC Test Answer: 2
Hepatitis B is known to be significantly more infectious than HIV, and small amounts of Hepatitis B virus can lead to transmission.
Which artery leaves the thoracic cavity at T12?
1) Descending aorta
2) Inferior phrenic artery
3) Superior mesenteric artery
4) Celiac trunk
The descending aorta exits the thoracic cavity at the level of T12 to enter the abdominal cavity.
Bone assessment of abutment teeth:
1) Horizontal bone loss is more important.
2) Vertical bone loss is more important.
3) Equally important.
4) Not important.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Both horizontal and vertical bone loss are important factors in assessing the health of abutment teeth, as they can influence the stability and longevity of prosthetic restorations.
About lidocaine all are true, except:
1) Dose need to altered in renal failure
2) Loading dose before infusion
3) It is little effected by heat & pH
4) Prolongs refractory period
Local anesthetics are poorly water soluble and this limits their renal excretion (of unchanged drug) to less than 5%.
Local anaesthetic used as an antiarrhythmic agent is:
1) Bupivacaine
2) Lignocaine
3) Cocaine
4) Chlorprocaine
It is also used to treat ventricular tachycardia and to perform nerve blocks Dosage Of Local Anesthesia: 1) Safety dose of 2% Lignocaine is 4.5mg/kg without a Vasoconstrictor Without a Vasoconstrictor 300 mg (maximum dose) 2) Safety dose of 2% Lignocaine is 7mg/kg with a Vasoconstrictor With a Vasoconstrictor – 500 mg (maximum dose) 3) As 1ml of 2% Lignocaine contains 20mg – Where the Maximum safety dose being 300 mg So 15 ml of Drug can be given safely 4) 1:1,00,000 concentration means 1 part of Adrenaline is 1,00,000 parts of Solution Safety Dose of Adrenaline for Dental Use in normal patients is 0.2 mg – which means 20 ml of LA can be given to normal patients containing Adrenaline For cardiac Patients the safety dose of Adrenaline is 0.04mg – Which means 4ml of LA can be given to Patients with cardiac problems containing Adrenaline 5) If the concentration of LA is 1:50,000 – 10 ml of LA can be given safely
How often should fire risk assessments be carried out in dental practices?
1) Every 3 months
2) Every 6 months
3) Every 9 months
4) Once a year
Fire safety regulations stipulate that fire risk assessments must be conducted at least once a year to ensure the safety of individuals in environments such as dental practices.
The working time for a polysulfide impression material can be safely and effectively increased by 1. greatly altering the base/accelerator ratio 2. doubling the mixing time 3. adding three drops of water to the base 4. cooling the mixing slab to a temperature above the dew point
Dental Material Answer: 4The working time for a polysulfide impression material can be safely and effectively increased by cooling the mixing slab to a temperature above the dew point
What is the primary goal of a dentist when treating a patient with a history of abuse or neglect?
1) To provide comprehensive dental care
2) To determine the cause of the patient's injuries
3) To provide psychological support and referrals
4) To gather evidence for legal proceedings
The primary goal of a dentist is to provide the best possible dental treatment to their patients, while also being sensitive to their history.
In what circumstances does a child's consent for dental treatment supersede a
parent's refusal?
1) When the child is a mature minor
2) When the parent is not present
3) When the child is financially independent
4) When the treatment is not in the child's best interest
A mature minor is a child who has the capacity to understand the
nature, purpose, and potential risks of the treatment, and in such cases, their
consent may override a parent's refusal.
What is the most common cause of dental trauma in children?
1) Sports injuries
2) Falls
3) Accidental injuries
4) Physical altercations
Falls are the most common cause of dental trauma in children, often resulting in fractures or avulsions of teeth.
WARPAGE OF AN IMPRESSION OCCURS: 1. If surface of compound is soft and inside is hard 2. If surface and inside of compound are hard 3. If the surface of compound is hard and inside Is soft 4. If surface and inside of compound are soft
Dental Material Answer: 3Warpage of an impression compound occurs when the surface of the compound is hard and inside is soft
What is the primary consideration for a substitute decision-maker in the
case of a patient with advanced Alzheimer's disease?
1) The patient's past preferences
2) The cost of treatment
3) The healthcare provider's opinion
4) The decision-maker's personal beliefs
The primary consideration for a substitute decision-maker should be
to make choices that align with what the patient would have wanted based on
their past preferences and best interests.
Which of the following is NOT a common sign of dental anxiety?
1) Excessive sweating
2) Increased heart rate
3) Difficulty in swallowing
4) Fear of needles
While anxiety can affect swallowing reflexes, it is not a universally recognized sign of dental anxiety. Common signs include increased heart rate, sweating, and fear of needles or specific dental procedures.
Which of the following is the drug of choice in bupivacaine induced VT:
1) Lidocaine
2) Phenytoin
3) Digoxin
4) Quinidine
The drug of choice is bretylium but in its absence lignocaine can be used.
What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists ?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss
Musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it. This is consistent with findings from other studies that highlight the prevalence of musculoskeletal disorders in the dental profession due to prolonged sitting postures, repetitive movements, and manual dexterity required in dental practice.
What does the acronym "CQC" stand for in the context of dental record keeping?
1) Care Quality Commission
2) Clinical Quality Control
3) Comprehensive Quality Care
4) Centralized Quality Compliance
The Care Quality Commission (CQC) is responsible for regulating health and social care services in England, including dental practices.
What is the most likely cause for the failure of a long-standing post-crown?
1) The post was too narrow
2) The post was too short
3) Failing root canal treatment
4) Presence of a vertical root fracture
Vertical root fractures often lead to the failure of a post-crown, especially if there are no other evident issues like caries or post malposition.
Which of the following antihypertensive agents is classified as a beta-blocker?
1) Amlodipine
2) Losartan
3) Captopril
4) Atenolol
Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker, whereas Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), and Captopril is an ACE inhibitor.
False statement regarding phenytoin is?
1) It is a teratogenic drug
2) Highly protein bound
3) Induces insulin secretion
4) Follows saturation kinetics
Phenytoin inhibits insulin secretion and causes hyperglycemia.
Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by
1) metal ions
2) hydroxyl bond
3) carboxyl bond
4) ionic bond
one ot the main adanhtges of GIC as a restoratie material was its ability to form chemical bonds with the tooth structure. Bonding in GIC primarily invokes chelation of carboxyl groups of the polyacids sith the calcium in the apatite of enamel and dentin.
What is the recommended fluoride concentration for community water fluoridation?
1) 0.5 ppm
2) 1.0 ppm
3) 1.5 ppm
4) 2.0 ppm
The recommended fluoride concentration for community water fluoridation is 1.0 ppm, which is effective in reducing dental caries.
What is the purpose of using a dental dam during a restorative procedure? 1) To prevent cross-contamination 2) To keep the area dry 3) To isolate the tooth from saliva and debris 4) To provide a clear visual field for the dentist
Dental Records Answer: 3A dental dam is a thin piece of rubber or latex that is placed over the tooth being worked on to keep it dry and free from saliva and debris during a restorative procedure like a filling or root canal treatment. This helps maintain a clean and sterile environment, which is crucial for the success of the treatment.
Which antibiotic can be safely prescribed to a patient who is on warfarin and is not allergic to penicillin?
1) Clindamycin
2) Erythromycin
3) Penicillin
4) Metronidazole
Penicillin is an appropriate choice for patients who are on warfarin and not allergic to penicillin.
Hyperthermia can be seen with:
1) Lithium toxicity
2) Opium withdrawal
3) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
4) Eclampsia
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome, often caused by phenothiazine used for neuroleptanalgesia and premedication, can cause hyperthermia.
What is the standard of care in dental records?
- The highest level of care possible
- The average care provided by dentists in the community
- The care mandated by the patient's insurance policy
- The care required by dental board regulations
The standard of care is based on what a reasonably prudent dentist would do under the same or similar circumstances, which is often reflected in the community average.
During crown cementation, complete filling of crown with cement is not advisable due to :
1) Increased risk of bubble entrapment
2) Increased seating time
3) Increased pressure required for seating crown
4) All of the above
It is not advisable to fill the crown completely with cement due to following 4 reasons: 1.
2. the risk for bubble entrapment increases
3. increased pressure may be needed
4. the time for seating increases
Best clinical sign for adequate reversal is:
1) Spontaneous eye opening
2) Spontaneous limb movements
3) Able to protrude tongue
4) Able to lift head > 5 seconds
Being able to lift the head for more than 5 seconds is considered the best clinical sign for adequate reversal, corresponding to a train of four ratio > 0.7.
Which of the following is a key step in preparing a tooth for a stainless steel crown?
1) Reducing the occlusal surface.
2) Placing a rubber dam.
3) Applying a sealant.
4) Using a diamond bur to prepare the crown.
Before placing a stainless steel crown, the occlusal surface needs to be reduced to ensure proper fit and prevent interference with opposing teeth.
Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of local
anesthesia in a geriatric patient?
1) Hypertension
4) Cardiovascular disease
3) Diabetes
4) All of the above
All of the listed conditions can influence the patient's response
to local anesthetics. It is important to carefully consider the patient's
medical history and current medications before administering local anesthesia.
What is the best description of the morphology of periodontal ligament fibers?
1) Elastic
2) Striated
3) Non-striated
4) Wavy
The fibers of the periodontal ligament exhibit a wavy morphology, which allows for flexibility and resilience to the stresses placed on them by occlusion.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the size of the face at birth?
1) The face forms 2/3rd the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd of the bulk.
2) The face forms the bulk of the head through life
3) The face forms 1/3rd the bulk of the head, whereas in the adult it forms 1/8th of the bulk
4) The face forms only 1/8th of the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd to of the bulk.
Due to the advanced state of the growth of brain this size at birth of the head of the infant is relatively large .
Paraesthesia in the distribution of the inferior alveolar nerve, including the lower lip, strongly suggests a mandibular fracture. This is often due to trauma to the inferior alveolar nerve.
What is the average number of 15-year-olds who have lost 6-7 teeth?
1) 1.1
2) 3.1
3) 4.7
4) 5.5
Current statistics indicate that approximately 3.1% of 15-year-olds have lost 6-7 teeth due to caries or other dental issues.
What feature of a crown is most likely responsible for gingival swelling?
1) Material of the crown
2) The occlusion
3) Proximal Contour
4) Surface finish
Poor proximal contour can lead to food impaction and plaque accumulation, contributing to gingival swelling and inflammation around crowns.
White coat hypertension refers to: 1) Low blood pressure when seeing a doctor 2) Elevated blood pressure only in a medical setting 3) Consistently high blood pressure at all times 4) Normal blood pressure at all times
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2White coat hypertension occurs when blood pressure is elevated only in the presence of healthcare workers.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using computerized dental records?
- Enhanced data security
- Reduced need for physical storage space
- Increased likelihood of errors and illegibility
- Improved efficiency in retrieving patient information
Computerized records generally reduce errors and improve legibility compared to handwritten notes.
If the tooth has not erupted to the line of occlusion it is called
1) Supraversion
2) Torsiversion
3) Rotated
4) Infraversion
Orthodontics Answer: 4
Terms used to describe the position of teeth. Mesioversion - A tooth in the arch located more mesial than normal
Distoversion - A tooth in the arch located more distal than normal
Labioversion - An incisor or canine outside of arch towards the lips
Buccoversion - A posterior tooth outside the arch toward the cheek
Linguoversion - A tooth inside the arch form toward the tongue
Infraversion - A tooth that has not erupted to the occlusal plane
Supraversion - A tooth the has over-erupted
Torsiversion - A tooth rotated on its axis
Transversion (Transposition) - Teeth that are in the wrong sequential order.
The extraction of a primary maxillary central incisor at the age of 6 years will
cause
1) loss of intercanine space.
2) increased intercanine space.
3) no change in intercanine space.
4) decreased overjet.
Primary incisors generally do not influence intercanine space, as it is
maintained by the canine teeth.
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin in saliva during infections?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgE
IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in saliva and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity, especially during infections.
What is the primary function of a rest in a removable partial denture (RPD)?
1) Aesthetic enhancement
2) Provide resistance against occlusal load
3) Act as a connector
4) Support the denture base
The primary function of a rest is to provide resistance against occlusal load, ensuring stability in the RPD.
What type of crown is placed after a Nayyar core technique?
1) Porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
2) Amalgam crown
3) All-ceramic crown
4) Gold crown
The Nayyar core technique is often followed by placing an amalgam crown due to its strength and durability.
Enamel most likely effected by deficiency of vitamin A
What is the primary factor that influences the ease of removing an impacted third molar?
1) The depth of impaction
2) The age of the patient
3) The angulation of the tooth
4) The patient's pain tolerance
The angulation of the tooth significantly affects the difficulty of extraction, with certain angles (like mesinangular impaction) being easier to manage compared to others (like distoangular impaction).
A 22-year-old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy, spontaneous bleeding from the gingiva, and complains of weakness and anorexia. Her blood analysis was as follows: HB=12gm, Neutrophils=90%, Monocytes=1%, Platelets=250000, WBC=100000, Lymphocytes=9%, Eosinophils=0%. The most likely diagnosis is:
1) Myelogenous leukemia
2) Infectious mononucleosis /glandular fever/
3) Thrombocytopenic purpura
4) Gingivitis of local etiological origin
ADC Test Answer: 1
The elevated white blood cell count (WBC=100000) and neutrophils (90%), along with gingival hypertrophy, suggest myelogenous leukemia, which is characterized by abnormal proliferation of myeloid cells.
Which blood vessels have softer walls?
1) Arteries
2) Veins
3) Arterioles
4) Capillaries
Veins have thinner walls and are more compliant than arteries, allowing them to accommodate varying volumes of blood.
Diffusion hypoxia is caused by:
1) Ether
2) Halothane
3) N2O
4) Trielene
Nitrous oxide (N2O) can cause diffusion hypoxia when its delivery is stopped, as it displaces oxygen in the alveoli.
What is a common appearance of vertical tooth fracture?
1) Perio abscess-like appearance
2) Displacement of fragments
3) A clear film of pus
4) Tooth mobility
ADC Test Answer: 1
Vertical root fractures often present as periodontal abscesses, as the fracture involves the root structure and can lead to localized periodontal inflammation.
The oral lesion of warty dsykeratoma is described as a small whitish area of the mucosa with a central depression
For anterior teeth restorations, which type of material is preferred due to its esthetics?
1) Amalgam
2) Glass ionomer
3) Composite resin
4) Dental cement
Composite resin is preferred for anterior teeth restorations due to its superior esthetic qualities, allowing for natural color matching.
Which clinical sign can indicate an open fracture of the mandible? 1) Sublingual hematoma 2) Mobility of fractured teeth 3) Step in the occlusion 4) Presence of blood-stained saliva
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 4Blood-stained saliva, along with evidence of current or prior bleeding from the tooth sockets, is a strong indicator of an open mandibular fracture, where the fracture communicates with the oral cavity.
Visual aids can help reduce anxiety in dental patients by:
1) Making the procedure seem more complex
2) Distracting the patient from their fear
3) Clarifying what will happen during treatment
4) Encouraging the patient to avoid the procedure
Visual aids can improve understanding and reduce anxiety by clearly illustrating the steps of the treatment.
What is the correct sequence of events in tooth development?
1) Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then enamel formation
2) Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of enamel epithelium
3) Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation
4) None of the above
ADC Test Answer: 3
The processes in tooth development unfold with the elongation of the enamel epithelium followed by odontoblast differentiation and the sequential formation of dentine and enamel.
Which of the following has highest minimum alveolar concentration?
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Nitrous oxide has the highest MAC value of 104 among all inhalational anaesthetics.
Which of the following is NOT a protective component of saliva against dental
caries?
1) Urea
2) Lactoferrin
3) Statherin
4) Sodium lauryl sulfate
Saliva contains urea, lactoferrin, glycoproteins, lysozyme, lactoperoxidase, sIgA, and calcium/phosphate ions that help protect against caries. Sodium lauryl sulfate is a detergent and not a natural component of saliva with known caries-fighting properties.
What is the primary reason for the increased incidence of root caries in the
elderly?
1) Poorer oral hygiene
2) Decreased salivary flow
3) Increased exposure of root surfaces due to gum recession
4) Decreased tooth enamel quality
Gum recession, a common issue in the elderly, exposes the softer root surfaces to decay-causing bacteria, leading to an increased incidence of root caries.
What does T2 indicate in the TNM classification?
1) Tumor size less than 2 cm
2) Tumor size between 2-4 cm
3) Tumor size greater than 4 cm
4) Tumor extending to adjacent structures
T2 indicates that the tumor measures between 2 and 4 cm in its greatest dimension, which is important for staging cancer.
What is the GDC's guideline regarding the use of abbreviations in dental records?
- Abbreviations should be avoided altogether
- Only standardized dental abbreviations should be used
- Abbreviations are acceptable as long as they are legible
- It is up to the dentist's discretion
The GDC advises that abbreviations should be kept to a minimum and only standardized abbreviations should be used to avoid misunderstandings or misinterpretations of the recorded information.
Administration of which among the following anaesthetic agent results in a state of dissociative anaesthesia?
1) Ether
2) Propofol
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopentone sodium
Dissociative Anaesthesia refers to a characteristic state which results after an induction dose of Ketamine.
What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing pre-capillary sphincters?
1) Acetylcholine
2) Serotonin
3) Nor-adrenaline
4) Substance P
Nor-adrenaline is responsible for vasoconstriction and can close pre-capillary sphincters, regulating blood flow.
Which of the following lesions cannot be classified as an intra-epithelial lesion?
1) Herpes simplex infections
2) Pemphigus vulgaris
3) Herpangina
4) Lichen planus
ADC Test Answer: 4
Lichen planus is characterized by a band-like infiltrate of lymphocytes at the epithelial-connective tissue interface, rather than being classified as an intra-epithelial lesion.
A dental patient on clonidine therapy for hypertension most often complains of
1) Xerostomia
2) Frequent visit to the bathroom
3) Restlessness
4) Postural hypertension
Clonidine cause significant CNS depression and xerostomia
A 1.5mm diameter carious pulp exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7
year old child The tooth is vital and has no periapical involvement. The most
appropriate initial treatment is to perform a/an
1) pulp capping.
2) partial pulpotomy
3) pulpotomy.
4) pulpectomy.
A partial pulpotomy preserves pulp vitality by removing inflamed tissue while maintaining healthy radicular pulp.
Bone tissue grows by
1) Apposition
2) Interstitial growth
3) Osteoclastic growth
4) Mesenchymal tissue growth
SOLUTION Interstitial growth, simply means that it occurs at all points within the tissue.
Ideally, Orthodontic traction to pull an impacted tooth to line of arch should begin at
1) 2-3 months post surgically
2) As soon as possible after surgery
3) After a waiting period of at least1.5 months
4) Only the method of traction is critical, not the time
SOLUTION Mechanical approaches for aligning unerupted teeth.
Ideally a fixed orthodontic appliance should already be in place before the unerupted tooth is exposed, so that orthodontic force can be applied immediately.
If this is not practical, active orthodontic movement should being no later than 2 or 3 weeks post-surgically.
Which of the following is a potential complication of dental anesthesia?
1) Nerve damage
2) Hematoma formation
3) Infection
4) All of the above
Dental anesthesia can lead to complications such as nerve damage, hematoma formation, and infection at the injection site.