Dentist Abroad
Which antihypertensive medication type may cause gingival hyperplasia? 1) ACE inhibitors 2) Beta-blockers 3) Calcium channel blockers 4) Diuretics
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 3Calcium channel blockers, like Amlodipine, are known to cause gingival hyperplasia.
Tongue is protruded by Genioglossus
Which type of therapy is particularly beneficial for patients with significant intellectual disabilities when it comes to dental care?
1) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
2) Music therapy
3) Behavior modification therapy
4) Art therapy
Behavior modification therapy can help in training patients to accept dental treatment by providing positive reinforcement for cooperative behavior.
Which cement is more susceptible to failure if contaminated with saliva?
1) Resin cement
2) Glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate cement
4) Glass ionomer cement (GIC)
GIC is particularly sensitive to contamination with saliva, which can compromise its bonding ability.
Which of the accompanying is NOT an intermediate acting muscle relaxant?
1) Cisatracurium
2) Rocuronium
3) Mivacurium
4) Vecuronium
Mivacurium is a short-acting muscle relaxant, whereas Cisatracurium, Rocuronium, and Vecuronium are intermediate-acting.
Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated?
1) Giant cell granuloma
2) Lipoma
3) Fibrous epulis
4) Hematoma
ADC Test Answer: 1
Giant cell granulomas have a recurrence rate of 15-20% if not adequately treated.
Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?
1) Heavy and continuous
2) Heavy and intermittent
3) Light and continuous
4) Light and intermittent
SOLUTION Light and continuous
Use of continuous light force is recommended to be applied for adult group of patient rather than intermittent force as applied by removable appliance.
with normal biologic functioning. In adult due to heavy force teeth may devitalize because the opening into the tooth (apical foramen) is smaller and blood vessels can be easily disrupted.
Which antihypertensive class includes drugs that are specifically cardioselective or non-cardioselective?
1) ARBs
2) Beta-blockers
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) Diuretics
Beta-blockers can be cardioselective (e.g., Atenolol) or non-cardioselective (e.g., Propranolol), affecting their selectivity on heart rate.
There are some enzymes that cause protein to coagulate rather than to produce simpler compund These are known as 1. lab enzymes 2. coagulase 3. proteolytic enzymes 4. enmycin
Microbiology Answer: 1There are some enzymes that cause protein to coagulate rather than to produce simpler compund These are known as lab enzymes
Consent is needed from a patient to share information. Which of the following requires explicit consent?
1) To share information with an insurance company
2) To share information with other doctors in the practice
3) To share information with the therapist treating the patient
4) To share information with the patient's General Medical Practitioner (GMP)
Sharing patient information with an insurance company typically requires explicit consent due to the sensitive nature of the information and privacy regulations.
For composite resin preparations, cavosurface enamel margins are bevelled because
1. A bevelled margin produces a more favorable surface for etching.
2. A bevelled margin improves the edge strength of the composite resin.
3. After etching, the bonding agent reduces microleakage.
4. The procedure eliminates the need to polish the restoration.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
Beveling the margins of a cavity preparation for composite resin has specific benefits:
- Favorable surface for etching: A bevelled margin increases the surface area for bonding and improves the etching process.
- Reduces microleakage: Proper bonding after etching can help seal the margins and reduce the risk of microleakage.
- Edge strength: While beveling can improve aesthetics and bonding, the primary reasons are related to etching and sealing.
What is the primary function of an apex elevator?
1) To remove the tooth root apex
2) To luxate the tooth
3) To expand the tooth socket
4) To remove bone around the tooth apex
An apex elevator is used to remove bone or soft tissue obstructing the tooth apex, facilitating extraction.
The decreased CO2 concentration the airways causes 1. Dilation of airways 2. Constriction of airways 3. No effect on airway 4. Complete obliteration of airway.
Physiology Answer: 2The decreased CO2 concentration the airways causes Constriction of airways
Which of the following series of cements have anticariogenic properties? 1. zinc phosphate, silicate, and polycarboxylate cements 2. silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements 3. zinc oxide eugenol, ethoxybenzoic, and zinc oxide eugenol polymer reinforced cements 4. calcium hydroxide and ethoxybenzoic cements
Dental Material Answer: 2Cements with anticariogenic properties are silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements
Which of the following anaesthetic has beta blocker action:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Halothane produces beta-blocker-like action, causing direct depression of the myocardium and bradycardia.
Which type of headgear is most appropriate for the management of a 10 year old patient with an increased lower third of the face, incompetent lips, an Angle Class II malocclusion and vertical maxillary excess?
1) High-pull.
2) Cervical.
3) Combination.
4) Protraction.
The high-pull headgear is used in orthodontics to exert a force on the upper
jaw, pulling it backward and upward. This action aims to correct the vertical
excess and improve the skeletal relationship between the maxilla and the
mandible, thus reducing the overjet and improving the overall facial profile. The high-pull mechanism targets the upper molars and can also help to control
the growth of the upper jaw, guiding it into a more favorable position. It is
often used in growing patients to take advantage of their developing
craniofacial structures.
2) Cervical headgear, on the other hand, is typically used to correct a Class II
malocclusion by providing a downward and backward force on the upper molars. However, it does not have the vertical component needed to address the excessive
vertical growth of the maxilla in this case.
3) Combination headgears can also be used for Class II corrections but may not
be as efficient as a high-pull in addressing the vertical excess specifically.
4) Protraction headgears are used to move the upper jaw forward to correct Class
III malocclusions, where the lower jaw is more prominent. Since the patient has
a Class II malocclusion, this would not be the correct type of headgear.
Which component of amalgam gives strength?
1) Copper
2) Silver
3) Tin
4) Zinc
Copper enhances the strength and hardness of dental amalgam, making it a critical component in its formulation.
IN HEALTH EDUCATION PROGRAMME a group of 10 ppl r planning to speak on a topic of common interest. Which is the best ed. Approach
1.panel discussion
2.symposium
3.group discussion
4.workshop
Group discussion because participants get chances to express thier views Idea panel discussion : 4-8 people talk abt a topic in front of large group. symposium:series of speeches on a selected subject, no discussion. group discussion :considered a very effective method of health edu if the group consists of not less than 6 and not more than 20 persons. workshop:usually lasts for few days wher people get together and work in different groups and discuss problem of concern it can be called a problem solving method.
How often should dental records be updated?
- Annually
- With each appointment
- Only when there is a change in treatment plan
- It depends on the patient's dental insurance
Dental records should be updated at every appointment to reflect the most current information regarding the patient's oral health and treatments.
What is the difference between implied and verbal consent?
1) Implied consent requires no action from the patient, while verbal consent
involves the patient stating their agreement
2) Verbal consent is documented, while implied consent is not
3) Implied consent is for diagnostic procedures, and verbal consent is for
treatments
4) There is no difference between implied and verbal consent
Implied consent is inferred from the patient's passive cooperation, while verbal consent requires the patient to explicitly state their agreement to the proposed treatment.
What enzyme assists microorganisms in the dentin caries process?
1) Enolase
2) Collagenase
3) Amylase
4) Lactoferrin
Enolase plays a crucial role in the metabolic processes of bacteria involved in dentin caries, facilitating their growth and acid production.
What should be included in the patient's medical history section of the dental record?
- Allergies and medication use
- Social history, such as smoking and alcohol intake
- Previous dental treatments and surgeries
- All of the above
A patient's medical history should include allergies, medication use, social history, and dental history to provide a comprehensive overview of the patient's health, which can affect treatment decisions and patient care.
Can informed consent be given over the phone or through email?
1) Yes, as long as the patient signs and returns the form
2) No, it must always be obtained in person
3) It is preferred in person, but alternatives can be used in some cases
4) Only for emergency treatments
Informed consent is typically a face-to-face interaction where the
dentist can assess the patient's understanding and answer questions. However,
some jurisdictions may allow for alternative methods under certain
circumstances, such as telemedicine or in emergencies.
The recommended level of fluoride in drinking water for temperate climate zones
is 1 ppm. This level is considered optimal for preventing tooth decay and
promoting dental health. It is important to maintain the right balance of
fluoride in drinking water as too little fluoride may not provide the desired
benefits, while too much fluoride can lead to dental fluorosis, a condition that
causes discoloration and damage to tooth enamel. Therefore, 1 ppm is the
recommended level to ensure the right amount of fluoride for dental health.
Epidural space has negative pressure in:
1) 20%
2) 30%
3) 50%
4) 80%
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
80°/" Epidural space has negative pressure in more than 80% of individuals.
Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a premature baby is :
1) Domperidone
2) Metoclopramide
3) Cisapride
4) Omeprazole
Cisapride can cause QT prolongation when administered along with drugs like ketoconazole which inhibit hepatic cytochrome p-450 CYP 3A4 enzyme.
What is the significance of the danger zone in dental surgery?
1) It indicates areas of high infection risk
2) It is a region where anesthesia is ineffective
3) It is a site for surgical incisions
4) It is a location for dental implants
The danger zone refers to areas of the face where infections can spread to critical structures, such as the cavernous sinus, posing serious health risks.
What is the most effective non-pharmacological method for managing dental anxiety?
1) Tell-Show-Do technique
2) Breathing exercises
3) Positive reinforcement
4) Nitrous oxide sedation
Breathing exercises, such as deep breathing or diaphragmatic breathing, are widely recognized as effective non-pharmacological methods for reducing anxiety. They help the patient to relax and can be performed easily without additional equipment.
How should a dentist ensure that a patient fully understands the
information provided during the informed consent process?
1) Use complex medical terminology
2) Ask if the patient has any questions and encourage discussion
3) Provide the information in writing only
4) Assume the patient understands based on their age
Explanation: Engaging the patient in discussion and encouraging questions helps
ensure they understand the information provided, which is crucial for informed
consent.
A patient returns from holiday with diarrhea and vomiting after eating street food. What is the likely diagnosis?
1) Hepatitis A
2) Norovirus infection
3) Gastroenteritis
4) Food poisoning
Hepatitis A is often associated with consuming contaminated food or water, especially in areas with poor sanitation.
Which of the following is an indication for a stainless steel crown?
1) Primary teeth with carious pulpal exposure.
2) Extensive loss of tooth structure in primary molars.
3) Following pulp therapy.
4) All of the above.
A stainless steel crown is indicated for primary teeth with carious pulpal exposure, extensive loss of tooth structure in primary molars, and following pulp therapy.
What is the kind of bur used for refinement and polishing of composites?
1) Fine carbide.
2) Diamond.
3) Both A and B.
4) Disc.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Both fine carbide burs and diamond burs are effective for the refinement and polishing of composite materials.
The permanent anterior tooth most often missing congenitally is the 1. maxillary central incisor 2. mandibular central incisors 3. mandibular lateral incisors 4. maxillary lateral incisors
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4lateral incisor is most often missing congenitally
Chlortetracycline acts by interfering with protein synthesis on bacterial but not mammalian ribosomes
If the tooth has not erupted to the line of occlusion it is called
1) Supraversion
2) Torsiversion
3) Rotated
4) Infraversion
Orthodontics Answer: 4
Terms used to describe the position of teeth. Mesioversion - A tooth in the arch located more mesial than normal
Distoversion - A tooth in the arch located more distal than normal
Labioversion - An incisor or canine outside of arch towards the lips
Buccoversion - A posterior tooth outside the arch toward the cheek
Linguoversion - A tooth inside the arch form toward the tongue
Infraversion - A tooth that has not erupted to the occlusal plane
Supraversion - A tooth the has over-erupted
Torsiversion - A tooth rotated on its axis
Transversion (Transposition) - Teeth that are in the wrong sequential order.
Bone tissue grows by
1) Apposition
2) Interstitial growth
3) Osteoclastic growth
4) Mesenchymal tissue growth
SOLUTION Interstitial growth, simply means that it occurs at all points within the tissue.
What is the dentist's role in identifying signs of domestic violence in a patient?
1) To ask the patient directly if they are being abused
2) To recognize and document physical and behavioral signs of abuse
3) To provide counseling services
4) To provide legal advice
The dentist's role involves recognizing and documenting any physical injuries or behavioral indicators that may suggest abuse.
A patient expresses extreme anxiety about getting needles. What is the most appropriate response?
1) Tell them not to worry
2) Avoid discussing needles altogether
3) Explain the procedure and show the needle in a non-threatening way
4) Schedule their appointment without discussing their fears
Providing clear information and familiarizing the patient with the process can help reduce anxiety associated with needles.
What is the difference between incipient and cavitated lesions?
1) Incipient lesions are white and cavitated lesions are brown
2) Incipient lesions are brown and cavitated lesions are white
3) Incipient lesions are reversible and cavitated lesions are irreversible
4) Incipient lesions are always cavitated
Incipient lesions are the earliest stages of enamel demineralization and can be reversed with fluoride and remineralization, whereas cavitated lesions involve a break in the enamel surface and require restorative treatment.
What is the first line of treatment for a patient with a lower lateral tooth extracted while the alveolus heals to cover the gap?
1) Conventional cantilever
2) Partial denture
A partial denture is often the preferred option to replace missing teeth during the healing process, providing functional and aesthetic support.
What is a primary rest?
1) Additional support for indirect retention
2) The rest part of a direct retainer
3) A support for the denture base
4) A type of occlusal contact
A primary rest is part of the direct retainer that provides essential support in an RPD.
How does fluoride in saliva promote tooth remineralization?
1) It forms hydrogen bonds with phosphate ions in the apatite structure.
2) It forms a more stable crystal structure with calcium called fluorapatite.
3) It reacts with carbonate ions to form calcium carbonate.
4) It produces an alkaline environment that dissolves hydroxyapatite.
Fluoride ions in saliva can replace hydroxyl ions in the hydroxyapatite lattice, creating fluorapatite, which is more resistant to acid attack.
What is the typical arrangement for paper dental records in a lateral filing system?
- Files are stored alphabetically on a shelf
- Files are stored in drawers with the patient's name on the spine
- Files are stored in color-coded envelopes
- Files are stored in a cardboard box labeled with the patient's name
Lateral filing cabinets hold files side by side, allowing for easy retrieval when organized alphabetically.
What is the most appropriate initial management of a tooth which is sensitive to
percussion but responds normally to electric pulp testing?
1) Pulpectomy.
2) Occlusal assessment.
3) Pulpotomy.
4) Restoration replacement.
Percussion sensitivity may result from occlusal trauma, which can be corrected by adjusting the bite.
What is the primary factor that influences the ease of removing an impacted third molar?
1) The depth of impaction
2) The age of the patient
3) The angulation of the tooth
4) The patient's pain tolerance
The angulation of the tooth significantly affects the difficulty of extraction, with certain angles (like mesinangular impaction) being easier to manage compared to others (like distoangular impaction).
In which situation is it generally considered unethical for a dentist to
terminate a patient-provider relationship?
1) Non-compliance with treatment recommendations
2) Patient non-payment for services
3) Patient's lack of respect for the dentist or staff
4) Patient's refusal of a recommended treatment plan
While dentists have the right to set their own financial policies, terminating a relationship solely on the basis of non-payment may not be ethical, especially if it results in the patient being denied necessary care.
Which of the following is not true about casting gypsum-bonded investment material?
1) Its used for cast metal alloys
2) 50—65% of gypsum changes to form α-hemihydrate
3) The investment material is not heated above 700°C temperature
4) Heating above 700°C causes formation of sulphur dioxide from copper sulphate
Gypsum-bonded investments are used for gold alloys.
Ist investments flow contain the α-hemihydrate of gypsum. because greater strength is obtained. This gypsum
product serves as a binder to hold other ingredients together and provide rigidity. The strength of the investment is dependent on the amount of binder present.
A slight expansion takes place between 400°C and approximately 700°C (1292°F). and then a large contraction occurs. This later shrinkage is most likely caused by decomposition and release of sulphur gases, such as sulphur dioxide.
This decomposition not only causes shrinkage but also contaminates the casting with the sulphides of the nonnohlc alloying elements, such as silver and copper. Thus, it is imperative that gypsum investments should not be heated above 700°C (1292°F). however, for gypsum products containing carbon, the maximum temperature should be 650°C (1202°F). In this way, proper ut and uncontaminated alloys are obtained.
In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards?
1) Facial / buccal
2) Lingual
3) Mesial
4) Distal
ADC Test Answer: 1
The palatal root of the maxillary first molar typically curves towards the buccal, creating challenges in accessing and treating its canals.
Flaccid lip, digit sucking, high frenum attachment & poor muscle tone are the etiology of :
1) Anterior cross bite
2) Diastema
3) Anterior bite
4) Posterior cross bite
Midline diastema Etiology Normal developing dentition - (Ugly Ducking Stage) Parafunctional habits Retrognathic mandible/ Prognathic mandible Frenum attachments
- Flaccid lips along with poor muscle tone
- Simple Tongue thrust can cause anterior open bite as well as diastema
- Thumb sucking or digit sucking for a prolonged time period
Mesio-distal angulation of teeth
Tooth anomalies (eg.
Pathological (Juvenile periodontitis)
Which of the following is NOT a component of a comprehensive dental record?
- Patient medical and dental history
- Clinical examination findings
- Treatment plans and consent forms
- Social security number of the patient's next of kin
While it's essential to have emergency contact information, including the next of kin, a social security number is not typically considered a necessary part of a comprehensive dental recor4) The primary components of a comprehensive dental record include the patient's personal and medical/dental history, clinical examination findings, diagnoses, treatment plans, consent forms, and radiographs/images.
What is the retention period for dental records according to most dental boards? 1) 2 years 2) 5 years 3) 10 years 4) Varies by country/state
Dental Records Answer: 4The retention period for dental records is typically dictated by each country's or state's dental board. In many jurisdictions, the minimum retention period is 10 years after the patient's last appointment, but it can vary. For example, in some states in the U.S., the requirement may be 7 or 10 years, while in others it can be indefinitely if the patient is a minor. It's important for dental offices to follow the specific guidelines set by their local regulatory bodies.
What is the retention period for dental records according to most dental boards?
1) 2 years
2) 5 years
3) 10 years
4) Varies by country/state
The retention period for dental records is typically dictated by each country's or state's dental board.
Which of the following conditions is an example of a mucous retention
phenomenon?
1) Nasopalatine cyst.
2) Koplik’s spots.
3) Ranula
4) Residual cyst.
A ranula is a mucous cyst caused by obstruction of the sublingual or
submandibular salivary glands.
It presents as a swelling in the floor of the mouth, typically painless unless
infected
During treatment, the dentist observes that the patient is clenching their fists. This reaction likely indicates:
1) Interest in the procedure
2) Relaxation
3) Anxiety or fear
4) Satisfaction with the treatment
Clenching fists is a common physical response to anxiety or fear, indicating that the patient may need additional support.
What does muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile usually
lead to?
1) Type I diabetes
2) Type 2 diabetes
3) Hyperpigmentation
4) Depression
Muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile usually leads to type 2 diabetes. This is because insulin resistance occurs when the muscle cells do not respond properly to insulin, resulting in elevated blood sugar levels. Obesity and genetic factors can contribute to the development of insulin resistance, leading to the progression of type 2 diabetes. Hyperpigmentation and depression are not directly related to muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile.
madibular first molar normally have 3 root canals
A picture of the tongue with an ulcer on the lateral border. What drug causes it?
1) ACE inhibitors
2) Calcium channel blockers
3) Potassium-sparing drugs
4) NSAIDs
ACE inhibitors can cause oral side effects, including ulcers on the tongue and other mucosal surfaces.
Drug used in acute gout is?
1) Aspirin
2) Indomethacin
3) Phenylbutazone
4) Allopurinol
Treatment of acute gout is mainly to control symptoms, i.e.
The symptoms of acute gout are due to inflammation in the joints.
So, drugs which decrease inflammation are used in acute gout, i.e. anti-inflammatory drugs. Drugs are:- NSAIDs, Colchicine, Corticosteroids
What type of information should be included in the patient's medical history?
1) Only dental information
2) Only medical information
3) Both dental and medical information
4) Dental, medical, lifestyle, and family history information
A comprehensive medical history should include the patient's dental information, medical conditions, current medications, allergies, and surgeries. Additionally, lifestyle factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, and family history of diseases can be relevant to the patient's oral health and treatment decisions.
What is the significance of the pH buffering capacity of saliva in
preventing dental caries?
1) It does not affect caries formation
2) It prevents the formation of lactic acid
3) It helps to maintain a pH above the critical threshold for demineralization
4) It promotes the formation of enamel
Saliva's buffering capacity helps to counteract the acidity produced by bacterial fermentation of sugars, maintaining a pH above the critical threshold and preventing demineralization.
What is the recommended time frame for administering nitrous oxide sedation to achieve its anxiolytic effect?
1) 5-10 minutes
2) 2-3 minutes
3) 30-60 minutes
4) 1-2 minutes
Nitrous oxide typically takes 5-10 minutes to reach its full effect, allowing patients to feel relaxed and less anxious about their dental treatment.
The advantage of the lingual split technique for the extraction of impacted
mandibular third molar teeth is/are:
1) Bone loss is minimal
2) Easy and quick method
3) Tissue trauma is minimal
4) All of the above
The lingual split technique, introduced by Sir William Kelsey Fry, is advantageous because it minimizes bone loss and tissue trauma during the extraction of impacted mandibular third molars. This technique allows for a more conservative approach, preserving surrounding structures while facilitating the removal of the tooth, making it a preferred method in many cases.
What is the most effective preventive care for dental caries in geriatric
patients?
1) Daily flossing
2) Professional cleanings every six months
3) Fluoride applications
4) Routine radiographs
Frequent fluoride applications can strengthen enamel and reduce
caries incidence, especially in those with reduced salivary flow.
A single force applied at which point of a tooth will allow complete translation of the tooth.
1) At the apex
2) At the incisal edge
3) At the center of resistance
4) At the center of rotation
SOLUTION Center of resistance- Point analogous to the centers of gravity.
Generally it is constant.In single root it lies between one third and one half of the root apical to alveolar crest.
In multi rooted tooth it lies 1-2 mm apical to furcation
A woman aged 48 years visits a dermatologist to have a mole removed. The patient tells her physician that she got allergic reaction to a local anaesthetic the last time she had undergone dental work. Investigation of the lady's dental records by her dentist discloses that the patient received procaine for a tooth extraction. Among the following alternatives, which drug would be suitable for the present procedure?
1) Benzocaine
2) Chloroprocaine
3) Tetracaine
4) Mepivacaine
Two classes of local anaesthetics exist namely: Esters and Amides. The rule of thumb describes that in case you are allergic to one drug in a given class (generally the ester class), you will also be allergic to other drugs of the same class. The lady received procaine which is an ester in the present case. Hence, we need to identify Amide in the list of answers. Mepivacaine is the only amide listed here.
What is the most benign tumor among the following options?
1) Kaposi sarcoma
2) Burkitt's lymphoma
3) Adenolymphoma
4) Acinic cell carcinoma
Adenolymphoma, also known as Warthin’s tumor, is a benign glandular tumor typically found in the parotid gland, characterized by two layers of eosinophilic epithelial cells.
A patient comes complaining of a bad taste and bad smell from a newly fixed 3-unit fixed partial denture. Upon examination, bubbles are coming from one of the abutments when pressure is applied on it with a water spray. What is the likely reason?
1) Fractured joint.
2) Open margin.
3) Loose abutment.
4) Overcontoured restoration.
ADC Test Answer: 2
The presence of bubbles and bad taste/smell indicates potential leakage or movement at the margins of the restoration, suggesting an open margin that allows bacteria and fluids to enter, causing these symptoms.
In designing a partial denture, what is the first step?
1) Outline saddles
2) Surveying
3) Plan supports
4) Obtain retention
Surveying helps determine the best path of insertion and identifies any undercuts, which is important for subsequent design steps to ensure proper retention and esthetics.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in toxic doses?
1) Penicillin
2) Cephalosporins
3) Macrolides
4) Tetracyclines
Cephalosporins can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, including cramps, particularly at higher doses.
The patient whom you are about to treat states that he has Von Willebrand’s disease. Which one of the following preoperative hematological analyses may reflect this disease?
1) Bleeding time and factor VIII level
2) Bleeding time and factor IX level
3) Bleeding time and factor X level
4) Platelet count
ADC Test Answer: 1
Von Willebrand's disease is characterized by prolonged bleeding time and low levels of factor VIII, which is essential for normal clotting.
The thoracic duct is located in the:
1) Anterior mediastinum
2) Posterior mediastinum
3) Middle mediastinum
4) Lateral mediastinum
The thoracic duct lies in the posterior mediastinum, between the descending thoracic aorta and the azygos vein.
All of following are effects of being unassertive, except:
1) Having low self-esteem.
2) Becoming aggressive.
3) Having a lack of purpose.
4) Developing social anxiety.
Being unassertive can lead to various negative effects, such as having low self-esteem, developing social anxiety, and having a lack of purpose. However, becoming aggressive is not typically associated with being unassertive. In fact, individuals who are unassertive may tend to avoid confrontation and conflict, which is the opposite of aggression.
Which drug is most effective in reducing mortality in patients with left ventricular systolic dysfunction ?
1) Enalapril
2) Aspirin
3) Digoxin
4) Frusemide
ACE inhibition has a beneficial impact on survival rates, functional status, and hemodynamics in patients with left ventricular systolic dysfunction.
In the renin-angiotensin system, a fall in perfusion pressure stimulates the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney to release the enzyme renin.
Renin cleaves the decapeptide angiotensin I from angiotensinogen, a glycoprotein synthesized in the liver.
The octapeptide angiotensin II is formed by the action of ACE on angiotensin I.
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and stimulates the release of aldosterone and norepinephrine.
A child with autism may exhibit:
1) Repetitive actions and sensitivity to light and noise
2) Social withdrawal and lack of eye contact
3) High intelligence and advanced verbal skills
4) All of the above
Autism spectrum disorder (AS4) is characterized by a range of behaviors, including repetitive actions such as hand-flapping or rocking, and sensory sensitivities like being overly sensitive to light and noise. While children with ASD can have varying levels of intelligence and verbal skills, the core features of the disorder are the presence of repetitive behaviors and sensory issues, which are crucial for diagnosis and understanding the condition's impact on daily functioning.
What is the purpose of a consent form?
1) To serve as legal evidence of informed consent
2) To inform the patient of the risks and benefits of treatment
3) To protect the dentist from legal liability
4) To replace verbal communication between the dentist and patient
While consent forms do provide a written record of the consent
discussion, their primary purpose is to serve as evidence that the patient has
been informed and has voluntarily agreed to the proposed treatment. Verbal
communication remains essential for the informed consent process.
Which of the following drugs is known for potentially causing gingival hyperplasia?
1) Phenytoin
2) Aspirin
3) Metoprolol
4) Clindamycin
Phenytoin is associated with gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which is characterized by the overgrowth of gum tissue.
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious?
1) Hypotension
2) Hepatotoxicity
3) Uterine neoplasia
4) Thromboembolism disorder
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thromboembolism is a significant risk associated with oral contraceptives, particularly in women with additional risk factors.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the
1) anterior maxilla
2) posterior mandible.
3) posterior maxilla
4) anterior mandible.
The posterior mandible is more susceptible due to its dense cortical bone and
reduced blood supply, which hinder immune responses.
Suppuration results from the combined action of several factors. Which of the following is not one of them?
1) Necrosis
2) Presence of lymphocytes
3) Collection of neutrophils
4) Accumulation of tissue fluid
Neutrophils primarily mediate the inflammatory response and pus formation, while lymphocytes are more involved in chronic inflammation, not in the acute pus production.
Which one of the following statements is true as defined in endodontics?
1) Overfilling refers to the incomplete filling of the canal system with a
surplus of material extruding beyond the apical foramen.
2) Under filling refers to the complete filling of the canal space, but leaving
voids in the pulp chamber for possible recontamination or infection.
3) Overextension refers to the extrusion of filling material through an
accessory canal.
4) Under extension refers to the vertical extent of the filling material
regardless of its completeness of obturation.
In endodontics, "under extension" specifically refers to the filling material not reaching the appropriate vertical length within the canal system, which can leave parts of the canal unfilled. This is distinct from other terms like overfilling or underfilling, which have different implications regarding the completeness and placement of the filling material.
What is the primary treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Antidepressants
2) Anticonvulsants
3) Opioids
4) Muscle relaxants
Anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine, are the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, effectively reducing the frequency and intensity of pain episodes.
What are the benefits of using computerized patient records?
- Improved access and data retrieval
- Reduced cost and errors
- Enhanced outcomes management and decision support
- All of the above
Electronic patient records offer benefits such as improved access, reduced cost and errors, and better outcomes management and decision support.
What is the correct order for removing personal protective equipment (PPE)
at the end of a procedure?
1) Face shield, gown, mask, gloves
2) Gloves, mask, gown, face shield
3) Gown, face shield, mask, gloves
4) Mask, gloves, gown, face shield
The correct order for removing PPE is to first remove the gloves, then the mask, followed by the gown, and finally the face shiel4) This order helps to prevent contamination of the skin and mucous membranes during the removal process.
A3 shades of composite resins should be light-cured in increments limited to a
maximum of
1) 0.50mm.
2) 1.00mm.
3) 1.50mm.
4) 2.00mm.
To ensure complete curing and avoid inadequate polymerization, A3 shades should be cured in layers no thicker than 2mm.
What is the primary route of transmission for most blood borne pathogens in
the dental setting?
1) Inhalation
2) Ingestion
3) Mucous membrane exposure
4) Skin absorption
The most common route of transmission for bloodborne pathogens in the dental setting is through mucous membrane exposure, such as when blood or other infectious materials come into contact with the eyes, nose, or mouth of a healthcare worker. This can occur through splashes, sprays, or contact with contaminated surfaces.
What are the main challenges in the adoption of computerized dental records?
- Affordability and reliability of technology
- Lack of patient interest
- Limited space for computer equipment
- Complex regulations regarding color coding
The main barriers to adopting electronic records are the cost of the technology and ensuring it is reliable and user-friendly.
Which of the following is used to decrease the toxicity of amphotericin B?
1) Dose reduction
2) Liposomal delivery systems
3) Supplementing glucose
4) Giving it along with flucytosine
Liposomal delivery systems decrease the amount of free drug in the blood Infected cells interact with the liposomes, resulting in the release of amphotericin B at the site of action.
Which of the following is contraindicated in hypertensive patients for gingival retraction?
1) Plain retraction cord
2) Adrenalin-impregnated cord
3) Saline solution
4) None of the above
Adrenalin-impregnated cords can cause significant blood pressure spikes, which are risky in hypertensive patients.
Which type of rest is often used for additional support or indirect retention?
1) Primary rest
2) Secondary rest
3) Occlusal rest
4) Cingulum rest
Secondary or auxiliary rests provide additional support and help in maintaining retention in the RPD.
Which investigation would be most useful to check for hypertensive heart disease? 1) Urinalysis 2) Chest radiography 3) Blood sugar test 4) Echocardiogram
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Chest radiography can help identify cardiomegaly, which is suggestive of hypertensive heart disease.
A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the kidney presented with a radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. The disease that you would immediately suggest is:
1) Diabetes
2) Thyrotoxicosis
3) Hyperparathyroidism
4) Osteoporosis
ADC Test Answer: 3
Hyperparathyroidism can lead to radiolucent lesions in the jaw due to increased osteoclastic activity and calcium mobilization from bones.
Which of the following is NOT part of a typical adult dental record?
1) Medical history
2) Social history
3) Dental x-rays
4) List of family members' names
A typical adult dental record includes a medical history to inform the dentist about any health issues that may affect dental treatment, a social history to understand lifestyle factors impacting oral health, and dental x-rays to visualize the patient's oral structures. While family dental histories are sometimes noted, a list of family members' names is not typically part of a standard dental record.
What is the purpose of using a handpiece with a 330 bur during a pulpotomy procedure?
1) To remove caries.
2) To reduce occlusal surface.
3) To remove the roof of the pulp chamber.
4) To mix IRM.
A handpiece with a 330 bur is used to remove the roof of the pulp chamber during a pulpotomy procedure.
Which of the following statements about informed consent is true?
1) It is
only necessary for surgical procedures.
2) It must always be documented in writing.
3) It is a one-time process that does not require updates.
4) It should be tailored to the individual patient's needs and understanding.
;Informed consent should be personalized to ensure that the patient fully understands the information relevant to their treatment.
What dental relationship is present in an Angle Class I occlusion?
Orthodontics Answer: 31. The buccal cusp of the maxillary second premolar aligns with the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
2. The cusp of the maxillary canine aligns with the cusp of the mandibular canine.
3. The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar aligns with the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
4. The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar aligns with the embrasure between the mandibular first molar and second premolar.
The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar aligns with the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
The rate of set of polysulfide impression materials is accelerated by:
1) Increasing the mixing temperature.
2) Decreasing the mixing temperature.
3) Adding oleic acid to the mix.
4) Increasing the base/catalyst ratio.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
Explanation: Higher temperatures increase the chemical reactivity of polysulfide impression materials, resulting in faster setting times.
Which of the following anaesthetic agent can be given by both intravenous and intramuscular routes:
1) Thiopentone
2) Propanidid
3) Ketamine
4) Fentanyl-droperidol
Ketamine can be given by iv, im, oral and intrathecal (spinal) routes.
The fibres of Purkinje?
1. Are remains of embryonic cardiac muscle fibres
2. Are placed over the pericardium
3. Arise from the sinu-arterial noded a and b both
4. a and b both
These form specialized fibres of the heart and are supposed to be terminal filaments of bundle of His.
Patient received a heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture is most likely to be present in:
1) Symphysis region
2) Left body of the mandible
3) Left sub-condylar region
4) Right sub-condylar region
ADC Test Answer: 3
Due to the mechanics of jaw fractures, a blow to one side may often result in a corresponding fracture on the contralateral sub-condylar region.
Which of the following procedures typically requires written informed
consent?
1) Routine dental examination
2) Tooth extraction
3) Periodontal probing
4) Radiographic imaging
Tooth extraction is considered an invasive and irreversible procedure, thus requiring written informed consent.
The active immunity offered by tetanus toxoid is effectively in nearly:
1. 25 % of the patients.
2. 50 % of the patients.
3. 75 % of the patients.
4. 100 % of the patients.
80 - 100 % so nearly 100 -- 75 % also equally correct
Which of these is the ideal appliance for correction of posterior cross bite due to digit sucking habit?
1) Tongue spikes
2) Hay rakes
3) Maxillary lingual arch with palatal crib
4) Quad helix
Classification of appliances for thumb-sucking
1.
a. Tongue spikes
b. Tongue guard
c. Spurs/rake
2 Fixed appliances
a. Quad helix
b. Hay rakes
c. Maxillary lingual arch with palatal crib
The ideal appliance to correct posterior cross-bite caused due to digit sucking is Quad Helix. It is a lingual arch which is adjustab and needs very little patient cooperation because it is fixed and is reliable and easy to use.
Which of the following is a common form of neglect that can lead to significant dental problems?
1) Failure to provide dental care
2) Forcing a child to eat only sugary foods
3) Physical abuse to the head and neck region
4) Emotional abuse
Neglect often manifests as the failure to provide essential dental care, leading to severe dental problems.
When considering local anesthesia for geriatric patients, which factor is
most important?
1) Pain tolerance
2) Anxiety levels
3) Systemic health status
4) Personal preference
Geriatric patients often have comorbidities that can influence
the choice and dosage of local anesthetics, therefore assessing systemic health
is crucial.
Which of the following is a non-preferable characteristic for an abutment
tooth root shape?
1) Broad and divergent roots
2) Round and fused roots
3) Single and conical roots
4) All of the above
While not explicitly mentioned as non-preferable, round and fused roots are not listed among the preferred characteristics for abutment teeth. Broad and divergent roots are considered desirable.
What is the GDC's requirement for the storage of patient records?
- They must be kept in a secure, locked cabinet
- They must be kept in a fireproof safe
- They must be kept in a format that is easily accessible and understandable
- They must be kept in a location that is accessible only to the dentist
The GDC requires that patient records be kept in a format that is easily accessible and understandable to ensure that dental professionals can provide effective care based on accurate and up-to-date information.
A medication that reduces the rate of aqueous humor formation in acute glaucoma
1) phenothiazines
2) amphotericin B
3) Isoniazid
4) carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Carbonic anhydrase is found in erythrocytes, kidney, gut, ciliary body, choroid plexus, and glial cells.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used primarily as probes for studying renal transport mechanisms and in the treatment of glaucoma
When used to treat glaucoma, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors diminish the transport of HCO3 - and Na+ by the ciliary process, which limits intraocular pressure.
This reduces the formation of aqueous humor by up to 50%, thereby reducing the intraocular pressure.
A 22-year-old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy, spontaneous bleeding from the gingiva, and complains of weakness and anorexia. Her blood analysis was as follows: HB=12gm, Neutrophils=90%, Monocytes=1%, Platelets=250000, WBC=100000, Lymphocytes=9%, Eosinophils=0%. The most likely diagnosis is:
1) Myelogenous leukemia
2) Infectious mononucleosis /glandular fever/
3) Thrombocytopenic purpura
4) Gingivitis of local etiological origin
ADC Test Answer: 1
The elevated white blood cell count (WBC=100000) and neutrophils (90%), along with gingival hypertrophy, suggest myelogenous leukemia, which is characterized by abnormal proliferation of myeloid cells.
Zinc phosphate cement powder contains zinc oxide, magnesium oxide, bismuth oxide
What is the function of the periodontal ligament?
1) To attach the tooth to the bone
2) To absorb shock during chewing
3) To supply nutrients to the tooth
4) To protect the tooth from bacteria
The periodontal ligament connects the tooth root to the alveolar bone, providing stability and support during functional movements such as chewing.
Which of the following is a sign of neglect in a dental patient?
1) A patient with a full set of dentures
2) A child with untreated dental decay and poor nutrition
3) A patient who regularly attends dental appointments
4) A patient who is anxious about dental procedures
Untreated dental decay and poor nutrition can indicate neglect, especially in children who rely on caregivers for proper care.
Whom to contact if there is a 20% increase in radiation dose?
1) The clinic manager
2) The radiation protection advisor
3) The health and safety officer
4) The dental board
The radiation protection advisor should be contacted to assess and address any significant increases in radiation exposure.
Which vitamin deficiency can lead to scurvy, affecting gingival tissues?
1) Vitamin A
2) Vitamin B12
3) Vitamin C
4) Vitamin D
Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakened collagen synthesis and can result in bleeding gums and other oral health issues.
The nerve to masseter passes 1. deep to the medial pterygoid muscle 2. posterior to temporomandibular joint 3. superior to zygomatic arch to enter the muscle on its medial surface 4. through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
Anatomy Answer: 2The nerve to masseter passes posterior to temporomandibular joint
What are the cells in cementum that line its boundary with the periodontal ligament (PDL) with cytoplasmic processes directed towards cementum?
1) Cementoblasts
2) Osteoblasts
3) Fibroblasts
4) Odontoblasts
Cementoblasts are responsible for forming cementum and have processes that extend towards the PDL.
Which of the following is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent?
- Cyclopropane
- Barbiturates
- Propofol
- Etomidate
Cyclopropane is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent.
What is the primary feature of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.
The cause of death with opioid intoxication is 1. respiratory depression 2. cardiac arrest 3. terminal convulsions 4. oxygen apnea
Pharmacology Answer: 1The cause of death with opioid intoxication is respiratory depression
What is the primary treatment for pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Topical steroids
2) Systemic corticosteroids
3) Antihistamines
4) Antibiotics
Systemic corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for pemphigus vulgaris to control the autoimmune response and reduce blister formation.
What is the role of SmartConsent technology in informed consent?
1) To
replace the need for consent
2) To standardize and communicate information effectively to patients
3) To eliminate the need for written consent
4) To provide legal protection for healthcare providers
SmartConsent aims to improve how information about risks and benefits is communicated to patients.
Firm contact between approximating teeth is important because it
1) locates the marginal ridges of each tooth.
2) keeps the teeth from having any movement during function.
3) insures proper cusp form and increases masticatory efficiency.
4) stabilizes the dental arches and gives protection to the gingival papillae.
Firm contact between teeth helps maintain the stability of the dental arches, preventing unwanted movement during function. This contact also protects the gingival papillae by ensuring that the teeth are properly aligned and that the forces of mastication are distributed evenly, reducing the risk of periodontal issues.
Marginal leakage of a composite resin restoration will
1) not be detectable.
2) be minimized by use of a bonding agent.
3) decrease with longevity.
4) noneof above
Bonding agents create a seal between the composite resin and the tooth structure, reducing marginal gaps and leakage.
Which nerve is affected if the tongue deviates to the right when protruded?
1) Right hypoglossal
2) Left hypoglossal
3) Glossopharyngeal
4) Vagus
Deviation of the tongue to the right indicates weakness in the right hypoglossal nerve, which innervates the muscles of the tongue.
A 30-year-old man with an unknown allergy to latex goes into anaphylactic shock whilst being treated in the dental surgery. Which drug and route of administration is of most benefit in this situation?
A. Hydrocortisone - orally
B. Epinephrine – intramuscularly
C. Chlorphenamine - orally
D. Epinephrine - intravenously
In anaphylactic shock, immediate administration of epinephrine is crucial as it acts quickly to reverse bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and subsequent hypotension.
Which nerve should be assessed in a patient suspected of having a mandibular fracture due to sensory deficits? 1) Facial nerve (CN VII) 2) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) 3) Inferior alveolar nerve (CNV3) 4) Vagus nerve (CN X)
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 3The inferior alveolar nerve is commonly involved in mandibular fractures. Damage to this nerve can result in sensory deficits in the lower teeth, lower lip, and chin.
Which of the following best describes ergonomic hazards in dentistry?
1) Exposure to infectious diseases
2) Improper use of dental materials
3) Repetitive motions and awkward postures
4) Chemical exposure from disinfectants
Ergonomic hazards involve physical strain from repetitive motions and awkward postures that can lead to musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals.
What is the most common type of periodontal charting? 1) Probing depths 2) Gingival recession 3) Tooth mobility 4) Furcation involvement
Dental Records Answer: 1Probing depths are the most commonly recorded periodontal charting measurement. They indicate the distance from the free gingival margin to the bottom of the periodontal pocket and are crucial in assessing the health of the periodontium.
What is the natural buffer in saliva that helps neutralize acidity and combat
demineralization?
1) Phosphoric acid (H3PO4)
2) Bicarbonate (HCO3-)
3) Carbonic acid (H2CO3)
4) Lactic acid
Saliva contains bicarbonate, which acts as a natural buffer to help maintain oral pH equilibrium and protect against demineralization.
Which of the following is NOT a common cause of secondary hypertension? 1) Pheochromocytoma 2) Smoking 3) Renal disease 4) Cushing’s syndrome
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Smoking is a risk factor for primary hypertension, while secondary hypertension is due to specific conditions like pheochromocytoma, renal disease, and Cushing’s syndrome.
You are interested in finding out what the risk indicators are for a rare form of oral cancer. What type of study would be the most appropriate for addressing this issue?
1) Cohort
2) Prevalence study
3) Clinical trial
4) Case-control study
5) Case-series
A case-control study is ideal for investigating risk factors for rare diseases, as it compares individuals with the disease to those without.
What percentage of the UK population receives fluoridated water?
1) 5%
2) 10%
3) 15%
4) 20%
Approximately 10% of the UK population has access to fluoridated water, which helps in reducing dental caries.
Lidocaine (Xylocaine) effect on ventilation response to hypoxia?
1) Enhanced response
2) Depressed response
3) No effect
4) Enhanced response and no effect
Lidocaine, also known as Xylocaine, has been found to have a depressant effect on the ventilation response to hypoxia.
Creatine Phosphate is the major source of glucose for the whole body during starvation
Which of the following is NOT a common sign of dental anxiety?
1) Excessive sweating
2) Increased heart rate
3) Difficulty in swallowing
4) Fear of needles
While anxiety can affect swallowing reflexes, it is not a universally recognized sign of dental anxiety. Common signs include increased heart rate, sweating, and fear of needles or specific dental procedures.
Ultrashort acting blocker most commonly used in anaesthesia is:
1) Esmolol
2) Nadolol
3) Propranolol
4) Atenolol
Esmolol is metabolized by RBC esterase, making it very short acting with a half-life of only 8-10 minutes.
A contributing factor to pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular third molar is:
1) Trauma by opposing tooth
2) Previous radiation therapy
3) Systemic disease
4) Infected follicular cyst
Pericoronitis, an inflammation of the soft tissue surrounding a partially erupted tooth, is often exacerbated by trauma from the opposing tooth during normal biting. The operculum, or flap of gum tissue covering the partially erupted third molar, can become irritated and inflamed due to this trauma, leading to infection and discomfort.
A wound to the posterior left axillary line, between the ninth and tenth rib, and extending approximately 5 cm deep, will most likely damage which organ?
1) Ascending colon
2) Duodenum
3) Left kidney
4) Spleen
The spleen follows the long axes of ribs 9 to 11 and lies mostly posterior to the stomach, above the colon, and partly anterior to the kidney.
Most of the duodenum (choice 2) is positioned too far to the right to be affected by this injury.
Even the third part of the duodenum, which runs from right to left, would still be out of harm's way. In addition, the duodenum lies at about levels L1 to L3, placing it too low to be injured in this case.
The superior pole of the left kidney (choice 3) is bordered by the lower part of the spleen. However, it is crossed by rib 12 and usually does not extend above rib 11. It would probably be too low and medial to be injured in this case because this penetration is at the posterior axillary line.
During an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle ideally passes?
1) Through medial pterygoid
2) Anterior and lateral to medial pterygoid
3) Posterior and medial to medial pterygoid
4) Inferior to medial pterygoid.
During an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle ideally passes anterior and lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle.
Which of the following is NOT a typical adverse effect of opioids?
1) Diarrhea
2) Somnolence
3) Constipation
4) Nausea
Opioids are commonly associated with constipation due to their effect on the gastrointestinal tract, which slows down bowel movements. They also frequently cause somnolence and nausea due to their action on the central nervous system. Diarrhea, however, is not a typical side effect of opioid use. In contrast, opioids are often used to treat diarrhea associated with conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome and other gastrointestinal disorders due to their constipating effects.
What is the primary purpose of informed consent in healthcare?
1) To protect
the healthcare provider from legal liability
2) To ensure the patient understands the treatment options
3) To expedite the treatment process
4) To document the patient's medical history
Informed consent is primarily about ensuring that patients understand the nature of the treatment, its risks and benefits, and alternatives, allowing them to make an informed decision.
Epoxy resins are compatible with which of the following impression material :
1) Polysulphide impression material
2) Polyether impression material
3) Agar
4) Alginate
Epoxy resins
· Abrasion resistance is many times greater than gypsum
· More expensive
· Undergoes 0.1 – 0.2% shrinkage, thus their shrinkage is approximately equal to gypsum.
· Their detail reproduction is better.
· Hydrocolloids, polysulfides are not compatible with them.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is known for its cardio stability, making it a preferred choice in patients with cardiovascular issues.
The junction between primary and secondary dentine is:
1) A reversal line
2) Sharp curvature
3) A resting line
4) A reduction in the number of tubules
ADC Test Answer: 2
The relationship between primary and secondary dentine is characterized by a sharp transition in the curvature of dentinal tubules as changes in odontoblast activity occur post-eruption.
Disruption in occlusion (how the teeth meet) and step deformities in the mandible are key clinical features that raise suspicion of an underlying mandibular fracture, particularly after trauma.
What is the cellularity of exocrine glands?
1) Multicellular
2) Unicellular
3) Both multicellular and unicellular
4) None of the above
Most exocrine glands in the human body are multicellular, with the exception of unicellular glands like goblet cells.
In the TNM classification, what does T1 indicate?
1) Tumor size greater than 4 cm
2) Tumor size less than 2 cm
3) Tumor extending to adjacent structures
4) Tumor size between 2-4 cm
T1 indicates that the tumor is less than 2 cm in its greatest dimension, which is an important factor in staging cancer.
The neuromuscular blocker that does not need reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the operation is :
1) d–Tubocurarine
2) Doxacurium
3) Pipecuronium
4) Mivacurium
Long acting non-depolarizing (competitive) NM blocking agents require reversal with neostigmine.
Mivacurium is the shortest acting NDMR.
Mivacurium can be used in day care surgery.
What factor is most important to reduce dental irradiation risk?
1) Speed of the film
2) Rectangular collimation
3) Type of x-ray machine
4) Patient shielding
Using rectangular collimation significantly reduces the amount of radiation exposure by limiting the x-ray beam to the area of interest.
Least likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with amide or ester local anesthetics.?
1) Tetracaine (pontocaine)
2) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
3) Dyclonine (Dyclone)
4) Mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
Dyclonine (Dyclone) is the least likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with amide or ester local anesthetics.
Fusion Temperature of Impression Compound should occur: 1. Before mouth temperature 2.. At skin temperature 3. Ahove mouth temperature 4. At room temperature
Dental Material Answer: 3Fusion Temperature of Impression Compound should occur above mouth temperature
What is the primary goal of periodontal treatment?
1) Removal of all bacteria.
2) Elimination of plaque.
3) Reduction of inflammation.
4) Regeneration of lost tissue.
E. Prevention of further bone loss.
ADC Test Answer: 3
The primary goal of periodontal treatment is to reduce the inflammation in the gum tissues, which in turn helps in controlling the progression of the disease, maintaining tissue health, and preventing further bone loss.
What is the most common location for oral squamous cell carcinoma?
1) Tongue
2) Buccal mucosa
3) Hard palate
4) Floor of the mouth
The lateral borders of the tongue are the most common sites for oral squamous cell carcinoma, often due to the exposure to carcinogenic agents and irritation.
After performing an apicoectomy, which of the following should be placed in the
bony defect prior to suturing the flap?
1) Corticosteroids.
2) Nothing.
3) Oxidized cellulose.
4) Bone wax.
In most cases, after an apicoectomy, it is standard practice to leave the bony defect empty (nothing placed) to allow for natural healing and bone regeneration. The area is typically sutured closed without the addition of materials, as this can promote better healing and reduce the risk of complications.
Slowest induction and recovery is with:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Desflurane
Methoxyflurane has the highest blood gas partition coefficient (15), resulting in the slowest induction and recovery.
The function of cobalt in a cast chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy is to 1. increase resistance to shear and tensile stresses 2. provide tarnish resistance 3. increase tendency for higher ductility and decrease casting shrinkage 4. contribute strength, rigidity, and hardness
Dental Material Answer: 4Cobalt in a cast chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy contribute to strength, rigidity, and hardness
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
For a pigmented fissure, what is the best way to diagnose caries?
1) Visual examination
2) Radiographic examination
3) Investigate the area with a round bur
4) Transillumination
Investigating the area with a round bur allows for direct assessment of the fissure and any underlying carious lesions.
Symptoms from a riboflavin deficiency can be:
1. Cracks in the corner of the mouth (angular stomatitis)
2. Inflammation of the tongue (glossitis)
3. Eye and skin changes
4. All of the above
The eye change include an increase in blood vessels and inflammation of the conjunctivae, cornea is invaded by capillaries, producing opaque areas and even ulceration. Dermatitis characterized by a greasy and scaly reddened lesion develops on the skin around the nasolabial folds and may extend to a butterfly shape on the cheeks. There many also be lesions at the corners (canthi) of the eyes and lobes of the mouth.
The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make up at 0.5mm away from pulp is:
1) 20%
2) 50%
3) 70%
4) 80%
ADC Test Answer: 2
Studies have shown that approximately 50% of the total dentin surface at this distance from the pulp chamber is occupied by dentinal tubules, which play a crucial role in sensitivity and responsiveness.
What is the most effective method for dietary advice for a child?
1) Tell the parents not to give sweets to the child
2) Dentist tells the child which are good and bad foods
3) Nurse talks to the child
4) Send the child to a dietician
Direct communication with the child about dietary choices can be more impactful than parental instructions alone.
Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of poor oral health
in geriatric patients?
1) Pneumonia
4) Malnutrition
3) Dementia
4) Cardiovascular disease
While poor oral health is associated with an increased risk of
developing pneumonia and cardiovascular disease, it is not a direct cause of
dementi1) However, oral health can impact the quality of life and overall
systemic health.
Which of the following does NOT require informed consent?
1) General clinical examination
2) Removal of an impacted third molar
3) Periodontal probing
4) Administering medication with high risks
Informed consent is generally not required for diagnostic
procedures such as general clinical examinations, as they are considered part of
the initial assessment that patients expect when they visit a healthcare
professional.
What is the effect of xerostomia on dental health?
1) Increased salivary flow rate
2) Decreased risk of caries
3) Increased risk of dental caries
4) No impact at all
Xerostomia, or dry mouth, significantly reduces salivary flow, increasing the risk of dental caries due to decreased neutralization of plaque acidity and lack of protective effects that saliva provides to the dental tissues.
Shortest duration local anaesthetic is:
1) Chloroprocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Lignocaine
4) Procaine
Shortest duration local anaesthetic is chloroprocaine with duration of effect only 15-30 minutes.
What is the best method to disinfect a dental bridge before sending it to the lab?
1) Soaking in bleach
2) Autoclaving
3) Using 70% isopropyl alcohol
4) Rinsing with water
70% isopropyl alcohol is effective for disinfecting dental appliances as it kills bacteria and viruses without damaging the material of the bridge.
Is Myasthenia Gravis and Grave's disease type 2 or type 5 hypersensitivity reactions?
1) Type 2
2) Type 5
3) Both
4) Neither
Both Myasthenia Gravis and Grave's disease are classified as type 2 hypersensitivity reactions, mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies.
Which of the following conditions might warrant caution when using benzodiazepines?
1) Young adults
2) Pregnant women
3) Healthy athletes
4) Non-smokers
Caution is especially required when prescribing benzodiazepines to pregnant women due to potential risks and complications that could affect fetal health, including withdrawal symptoms and respiratory problems in the neonate.
What is the term for an irrational fear of dental procedures?
1) Odontophobia
2) Gag reflex
3) Hypochondria
4) Agoraphobia
Odontophobia is a specific phobia characterized by fear of dental procedures or the dental environment.
What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing pre-capillary sphincters?
1) Acetylcholine
2) Serotonin
3) Nor-adrenaline
4) Substance P
Nor-adrenaline is responsible for vasoconstriction and can close pre-capillary sphincters, regulating blood flow.
Which of the following drugs acts by enzyme inhibition?
1) salbutamol
2) acetazolamide
3) tolbutamide
4) chlorpromazine
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces aqueous humour production and is therefore indicated in glaucoma to reduce the intraocular pressure.
Salbutamol is a selective, short-acting beta2-agonist used as a bronchodilator in asthma.
Chlorpromazine is an aliphatic neuroleptic antipsychotic drug used in schizophrenia.
The regional lymphatic drainage of the left side of the tip of the tongue is to the?
1) Left submandibular lymph node.
2) Left submental lymph node.
3) Left and right submental lymph nodes
4) Left and right submandibular lymph nodes.
The regional lymphatic drainage of the left side of the tip of the tongue is to the left and right submental lymph nodes.
A patient undergoing caesarean section following prolonged labour under subarachnoid block developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocaine was' used as anaesthetic agent. The most likely' diagnosis is:
1) Amniotic fluid embolism
2) Lignocaine toxicity
3) Hypocalcemia
4) Hypokalemia
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
Hypocalcemia Patient developing carpopedal spasm is indicative of hypocalcemia.
What is the significance of erosive lichen planus?
1) High malignant potential
2) Some malignant potential
3) No malignant potential
4) Always requires surgical intervention
ADC Test Answer: 2
Erosive lichen planus can carry an increased risk for malignant transformation, but this potential varies among individuals.
Patients with which blood pressure range should be encouraged to seek medical consultation despite being able to undergo dental treatment? 1) 110/70 mmHg 2) 120/80 to 140/90 mmHg 3) 180/110 mmHg 4) 160/110 mmHg
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Patients with blood pressure between 120/80 and 140/90 should be encouraged to consult a doctor, even though dental treatment can proceed.
What is the main goal when treating an anxious patient in dentistry?
1) To complete the treatment as quickly as possible
2) To utilize the maximum amount of sedation
3) To alleviate fear and build trust
4) To avoid all invasive procedures
The primary goal is to reduce anxiety, thereby fostering a trusting relationship that improves the overall treatment experience.
What is the most appropriate management for an avulsed permanent tooth?
1) Rinse with water and replant immediately
2) Store in milk and seek immediate dental care
3) Let the tooth dry out and place it in a coffee cup
4) Wrap in tissue paper and keep in a pocket
Avulsed teeth should be kept moist, ideally in cold milk, saline, or the patient's own saliva, and dental care should be sought immediately for the best chance of successful re-implantation.
While doing preparation for an FMC crown prep on tooth 16 in a 20-year-old man, a pinpoint pulp exposure occurred. How would you best manage the situation?
1) Do DPC immediately under rubber dam then tell the patient about the situation
2) Tell the patient immediately and do pulpotomy
3) Start RCT then describe the situation to the patient
4) Tell the patient that you have encountered an inadvertent incident while preparing and refer him to a specialist
ADC Test Answer: 1
Direct Pulp Capping (DPC) is the most appropriate management strategy for a small pinpoint pulp exposure.
A dentist who performs unnecessary procedures for financial gain is violating which ethical principle?
1) Autonomy
2) Non-maleficence
3) Beneficence
4) Justice
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 3Beneficence involves acting in the best interest of the patient. Performing unnecessary procedures for financial gain is contrary to this principle and constitutes unethical behavior.
What is the most frequent site of endocarditis?
1) Aortic valve
2) Mitral valve
3) Tricuspid valve
4) Pulmonary valve
Endocarditis most commonly affects the mitral valve, especially in patients without a history of intravenous drug use.
The basic principle of Orthodontic spot welder lies on the concept of :-
1 Heat technique
2) Quenching
3) Diodelasers
4) Electrode Technique
SOLUTION The type of welding used to join Orthodontic components is called Spot welding.
1. Transmit current to the metals to be joined so as to cause a rapid increase in temperature.
2. The electrodes help in conducting the heat produced away from the area so as to preserve the properties of stainless steel around the weld spot.
3. The electrode also help in holding together the two metals to be joined.
4. The electrodes are designed to apply pressure on the metals being joined. As soon as the temperature increases, the pressure exerted by the electrodes helps in squeezing metal into each other.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining accurate and complete dental records?
- To comply with legal requirements
- To facilitate effective communication among dental professionals
- To ensure proper patient care and treatment planning
- All of the above
Accurate and complete dental records serve multiple purposes, including legal documentation, communication among dental professionals, patient care and treatment planning, and insurance reimbursement.
Methemoglobinemia caused by?
1) Procaine
2) Prilocaine
3) Etidocaine
4) Ropivacaine
Methemoglobinemia is mainly caused by prilocaine but can also be caused by benzocaine and rarely reported with lignocaine.
Which type of patient is most likely to benefit from pre-operative sedation?
1) A patient with no previous dental experience
2) A patient with a high level of anxiety related to dental treatment
3) A pediatric patient
4) A patient who prefers general anesthesia
Patients with significant anxiety may benefit greatly from pre-operative sedation to make their experience more comfortable.
If a patient is unable to give informed consent due to a medical condition,
who can provide consent on their behalf?
1) Any family member
2) A legal guardian or surrogate decision-maker
3) The healthcare provider
4) The patient's friends
If a patient lacks the capacity to consent, a legal guardian or designated surrogate can provide consent in their best interest.
What is the role of the dental nurse in maintaining patient records?
- To make and keep complete and accurate records of patient treatments and discussions
- To handle financial transactions and appointments
- To manage the dental office's social media accounts
- To oversee the sterilization of instruments
Dental nurses are crucial in the record-keeping process as they can take notes during patient appointments, ensuring that the records are made contemporaneously.
Which of the following is a common dental consideration in patients with autism?
1) Hyperactivity
2) Sensitivity to sensory stimuli
3) Aggressive behavior
4) Poor nutritional habits
Patients with autism often experience heightened sensitivity to sensory input, which can affect their comfort during dental procedures.
Activation of muscle contraction is promoted by : Opening of the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca channel. Ca2+ binding to troponin C. Opening of Na channels Ca2+ binding to the Ca2+-ATPase
What is the primary purpose of maintaining accurate dental records?
1) To fulfill insurance requirements
2) To support patient care and legal compliance
3) To reduce administrative costs
4) To improve marketing strategies
Accurate dental records are essential for providing quality patient care and ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.
What is a common reason why a ten-year-old amalgam filling has become raised above the tooth surface?
1) Wear
2) Creep
3) Improper placement
4) Over-carving
Creep is the tendency of dental amalgam to deform under constant stress, often leading to a raised filling surface as it continues to flow slowly over time.
Which of the following has highest minimum alveolar concentration?
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Nitrous oxide has the highest MAC value of 104 among all inhalational anaesthetics.
What is the primary advantage of using oral sedatives for anxious patients?
1) They provide deeper sedation
2) They are less expensive
3) They have a more predictable onset and duration
4) They require no needle administration
Oral sedatives are often preferred by patients with needle phobia as they avoid the discomfort associated with injections.
Which of the following is a characteristic of dentinogenesis imperfecta?
1) Abnormal enamel formation
2) Discolored teeth
3) Increased susceptibility to caries
4) All of the above
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is characterized by abnormal dentin formation, leading to discolored teeth and increased susceptibility to caries.
Acetylcholinesterase receptor opens an ion channel, undergoes irreversible conformational changes when exposed to carbamates , it is inactivated in myasthenia gravis
Pethidine should not be given with:
1) Reserpine
2) Propranolol
3) Atenolol
4) MAO inhibitors
Pethidine can cause severe excitatory response and arrhythmia in patients on MAO therapy due to high levels of catecholamines.
Nitinol has the disadvantage of which of the following?
1) It cannot be formed into desired shapes
2) It lacks elastic properties
3) Its strength is not suited for orthodontic purposes
4) It lacks stiffness
Nitinol is a metal alloy – or mixture – of nickel and titanium.
What is the best description of the morphology of periodontal ligament fibers?
1) Elastic
2) Striated
3) Non-striated
4) Wavy
The fibers of the periodontal ligament exhibit a wavy morphology, which allows for flexibility and resilience to the stresses placed on them by occlusion.
Which local anesthetic is known for its cardiotoxic effects?
1) Lidocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Mepivacaine
4) Articaine
Bupivacaine is a long-acting local anesthetic that has been associated with cardiotoxicity, making it important to use with caution.
All are fluorinated anaesthetics except:
1) Methoxyflurane
2) Halothane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Isoflurane
Halothane is fluorinated but does not undergo desfluorination under normal conditions.
Penicillins:
1) Are the antibiotic of choice for anaerobic infections
2) Are bacteriostatic
3) Are protagonistic to tetracycline
4) Interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis
The penicillins all act by interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis, by inhibiting cross-linking of the mucopeptides in the cell wall and as such are bacteriocidal.