Dentist Abroad
Which type of neurons supply the masticatory muscles?
1) Slow conducting
2) Fast conducting
3) Both
4) None
The masticatory muscles are supplied by fast-conducting motor neurons, allowing swift and effective muscle contractions for functions like chewing.
What is the recommended action if a dental record contains an error?
1) Erase the error
2) Cross out the error with a single line and write the correction
3) Ignore the error
4) Rewrite the entire record
Errors should be corrected transparently to maintain the integrity of the record.
Which of the following represents the normal relationship of the primary canines?
1) The distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
2) The mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
3) Normal articulation of primary canines is end-to-end.
4) None
Oral MicroAnatomy Answer: 2
In the primary dentition, the mesial inclined
plane of the maxillary canine aligns with the distal inclined plane of the
mandibular canine, facilitating proper occlusal function.
Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent in dentistry?
1) Explanation of the diagnosis
2) Description of the proposed treatment
3) Discussion of the risks and benefits of the treatment
4) Patient's agreement to pay for the treatment
While financial considerations are important in the overall decision-making process, informed consent specifically pertains to the patient's understanding and agreement to the medical aspects of the treatment, not the financial agreement.
Firm contact between approximating teeth is important because it
1) locates the marginal ridges of each tooth.
2) keeps the teeth from having any movement during function.
3) insures proper cusp form and increases masticatory efficiency.
4) stabilizes the dental arches and gives protection to the gingival papillae.
Firm contact between teeth helps maintain the stability of the dental arches, preventing unwanted movement during function. This contact also protects the gingival papillae by ensuring that the teeth are properly aligned and that the forces of mastication are distributed evenly, reducing the risk of periodontal issues.
What happens to the pH of the oral cavity after exposure to sugars and acids,
according to the Stephan Curve?
1) It rapidly increases.
2) It remains constant.
3) It rapidly decreases and then gradually recovers.
4) It decreases and does not recover.
The Stephan Curve shows that the oral pH drops quickly after sugar or acid exposure but gradually recovers to a neutral state within 30 minutes due to salivary buffering.
Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of < 50mg/min?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Trovafloxacin
3) Lomefloxacin
4) Sparfloxacin
Fluoroquinolones that are excreted mainly by non renal mechanisms: Pefloxacin Trovafloxacin Grepofloxacin Nalidixic acid
What is the primary goal of geriatric dentistry?
1) Complete restoration of all dentition
2) Preventive care only
3) Cosmetic improvement of smiles
4) Pain management and function maintenance
The foremost goals of geriatric dentistry focus on alleviating
pain, maintaining function, and preserving quality of life rather than achieving
complete restorations.
Which of the following is a sign of neglect in a dental patient?
1) A patient with a full set of dentures
2) A child with untreated dental decay and poor nutrition
3) A patient who regularly attends dental appointments
4) A patient who is anxious about dental procedures
Untreated dental decay and poor nutrition can indicate neglect, especially in children who rely on caregivers for proper care.
What is the primary purpose of a dental unit waterline treatment? 1) To improve the taste of the water 2) To prevent biofilm formation and contamination 3) To enhance the aesthetic appearance of the dental unit 4) To reduce the need for sterilization
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Regular treatment of dental unit waterlines is essential to prevent the growth of biofilms and ensure that the water used in procedures is safe and free from pathogens.
Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?
1) Patient commonly complains of postoperative headache
2) An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively
3) There is a profound amnesic action and no side effects
4) Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post-operatively
ADC Test Answer: 3
Although diazepam can cause amnesia, it is incorrect to say there are no side effects; benzodiazepines are known for various side effects including confusion and sedation.
The gas with greatest solubility in blood:
1) Nitrous oxide
2) Nitrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Hydrogen
Although the solubility of nitrous oxide in blood is less than other inhalational agents, its solubility is 35 times more than nitrogen and 15 times more than oxygen.
For a 10-year-old patient with expected treatment procedures, an OPG is:
1) Contraindicated below 12 years
2) Less radiative than combined BW and periapical X-rays
3) Only used for adults
4) Provides a comprehensive view of teeth only
ADC Test Answer: 2
OPGs generally expose patients to lower radiation doses compared to multiple intraoral radiographs, making them safer for diagnostic purposes.
An increase or decrease in the Y axis is related to:
1) The growth pattern
2) Extrusion of molars
3) Intrusion of molars
4) All of the above
SOLUTION
Which of the following is one of the "Four Cs" of record keeping?
1) Comprehensive
2) Complicated
3) Costly
4) Confusing
The "Four Cs" of record keeping include contemporaneous, clear, concise, and complete, emphasizing the importance of thorough documentation.
What are the cells in cementum that line its boundary with the periodontal ligament (PDL) with cytoplasmic processes directed towards cementum?
1) Cementoblasts
2) Osteoblasts
3) Fibroblasts
4) Odontoblasts
Cementoblasts are responsible for forming cementum and have processes that extend towards the PDL.
Which of the following is derived entirely from Meckel's cartilage?
1) Incus
2) Malleus
3) Stapes
4) Mandible
The malleus is derived from Meckel's cartilage, while the incus and mandible develop from other embryonic structures.
Which of the following is an indication for a pulpotomy on a primary tooth?
1) Radiographic evidence of internal root resorption.
2) Involvement of interradicular bone with no fistula
3) Involvement of interradicular bone with a fistula
4) Signs and symptoms of reversible pulpitis.
Pulpotomy is indicated when inflammation is limited to the coronal pulp, preserving vitality of the radicular pulp.
What is the primary feature of the double-blind method in clinical trials?
1) Both the patient and the researcher know the treatment being administered.
2) Only the patient knows the treatment being administered.
3) Neither the patient nor the researcher knows the treatment being administered.
4) The researcher knows the treatment, but the patient does not.
The double-blind method is designed to eliminate bias by ensuring that neither the participants nor the researchers know which treatment is being given, thus maintaining the integrity of the study.
In a patient shot in the back of the head with the bullet passing through the forehead, which bones are least likely to be damaged? 1) Maxilla and temporal 2) Frontal and parietal 3) Occipital and sphenoid 4) Zygoma and ethmoid
Anatomy Answer: 1The trajectory of the bullet from the back of the head to the forehead is less likely to involve the maxilla and temporal bones compared to the others.
Nickel-chromium alloys designed for porcelain bonded to metal crowns should be
used with caution because
1) nickel is an allergen.
2) the modulus of elasticity is low.
3) these alloys cannot be soldered
4) none of above
Nickel in the alloy may cause allergic reactions in sensitive individuals,
particularly women, necessitating caution.
The diagnosis for a patient having a sinus tract associated with a nonvital pulp
who presents with no symptoms is
1) acute apical abscess (acute periradicular abscess).
2) asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
3) periodontal abscess.
4) chronic apical abcess (chronic periradicular abscess).
Chronic apical abscesses typically present with sinus tracts and minimal symptoms
Are prions resistant to inactivation by conventional sterilization methods?
1) Yes
2) No
3) Only in certain conditions
4) Depends on the type of prion
Prions are resistant to inactivation by conventional sterilization methods, making them particularly challenging to eliminate.
Elgiloy arch wire is a 1. Cobalt chromium nickel alloy 2. Gold alloy 3. Optical fiber arch wire 4. Beta titanium arch wire
Dental Material Answer: 1Elgiloy arch wire is a Cobalt chromium nickel alloy
An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of which type of muscle? 1. Cardiac only 2. Cardiac and smooth 3. Skeletal and smooth 4. Skeletal and cardiac
Physiology Answer: 2An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of Cardiac and smooth muscles
Defluoridation of water can be done by:
1)
Lime and alum
2)
Bleaching powders
3)
Potassium permanganate
4)
Sodium chloride
One of the most effective methods for defluoridation is the Nalgonda
technique, which involves the use of lime, alum, and bleaching powder.
The principle of justice in healthcare ethics refers to:
1) The obligation to tell the truth
2) Fair distribution of healthcare resources
3) The duty to act in the best interest of the patient
4) Respecting the patient's wishes
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Justice involves ensuring that patients receive fair and equitable access to healthcare resources and services, regardless of their background.
What is the first line of treatment for a patient with a lower lateral tooth extracted while the alveolus heals to cover the gap?
1) Conventional cantilever
2) Partial denture
A partial denture is often the preferred option to replace missing teeth during the healing process, providing functional and aesthetic support.
Which antibiotics are commonly used for periodontitis?
1) Amoxicillin and Clindamycin
2) Tetracycline and Penicillin V
3) Ciprofloxacin and Metronidazole
4) Azithromycin and Doxycycline
While Tetracycline and Penicillin V are antibiotics that can be used to treat periodontal infections, they are not as commonly prescribed as Azithromycin and Doxycycline, which are both effective against the anaerobic bacteria often implicated in periodontitis. Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic and Doxycycline is a tetracycline derivative. These medications are commonly used due to their broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity and their ability to penetrate into the periodontal tissues effectively. They are often prescribed in combination with other antibiotics or as part of a systemic antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of moderate to severe periodontitis
The concentration of ketones is increased in body due to: 1. Starvation 2. High fat diet 3. Diabetes mellitus
Common cause of allergy in orthodontics:
1) Composite resin.
2) Vinyl.
3) Nickel.
4) Acrylic.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Nickel is a common allergen found in many orthodontic appliances, particularly in metal brackets or wires.
Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of stone dies used for crown fabrication?
1) They lack accurate reproduction of surface details
2) Their overall dimensions are slightly smaller than the original impression
3) The strength of the stone
4) The hazard of aspiration of toxic materials during trimming of the dies
ADC Test Answer: 2
One of the notable disadvantages of some types of stone dies is that they can shrink upon setting or due to dehydration, leading to dimensions that are slightly smaller than the original impression, impacting the fit of the final restoration.
What is the typical histological finding in pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Basal cell hyperplasia
Acantholysis, or the loss of adhesion between keratinocytes, is a hallmark of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of vesicles and ulcers.
What is a common oral manifestation of bulimia nervosa?
1) Xerostomia
2) Erosion of dental enamel
3) Oral thrush
4) Gingival hyperplasia
The exposure of teeth to stomach acids due to vomiting can lead to significant enamel erosion.
Which of the following is NOT a common sign of dental anxiety?
1) Excessive sweating
2) Increased heart rate
3) Difficulty in swallowing
4) Fear of needles
While anxiety can affect swallowing reflexes, it is not a universally recognized sign of dental anxiety. Common signs include increased heart rate, sweating, and fear of needles or specific dental procedures.
Brinnel hardness number of a dental gold alloy is directly proportional to its:
1) Tensile strength
2) Elongation
3) Modulus of elasticity
4) Modulus of resiLience
Brinnel and Rockwell tests are cLassified as macrohardness tests and they aie not suitable for brittle materials.
The Knoop and Vickers tests are classified as microhardness tests.
The Shore and the Barcot tests are used for measuring the hardness of rubbers and plastics.
The Bnnnel test is the one of oldest tests used for determining the hardness of materials and is directly related to proportional limit and the ultimate tensile strength of dental gold alloys.
The convenience of the Rockwell test, with direct reading of the depth of the indentation, has lead to its wide usage.
The Knoop hardness test is used to obtain the values for both exceedingly hard and soft materials. The hardness value is independent of the ductility of the material.
The Vickers test is employed for dental costing gold alloys. It is suitable for determining the hardness of brittle materials.
What does a rest seat refer to in RPD design?
1) A removable part of the denture
2) A prepared tooth surface for the rest to fit
3) A framework supporting teeth
4) A type of occlusal contact
A rest seat is the prepared surface on the tooth that accommodates the rest, providing a stable support.
The chemical nature of bacterial exotoxins is, a lipopolysaccharide complex
What is a potential use of dental records in forensic dentistry?
1) To determine the patient's insurance coverage
2) To identify a dead or missing person
3) To track treatment costs
4) To evaluate staff performance
Dental records can provide antemortem information that assists forensic odontologists in identifying deceased individuals.
Which of the following conditions might warrant caution when using benzodiazepines?
1) Young adults
2) Pregnant women
3) Healthy athletes
4) Non-smokers
Caution is especially required when prescribing benzodiazepines to pregnant women due to potential risks and complications that could affect fetal health, including withdrawal symptoms and respiratory problems in the neonate.
Which of the following can be an effective non-pharmacological technique to manage dental anxiety?
1) Immediate extraction
2) Encouraging distracted breathing
3) Ignoring the patient's fear
4) Avoiding all discussion about the procedure
Distracted breathing techniques can help patients manage anxiety by focusing their attention away from the stressor.
What type of caries is characterized by a rapid progression and is often light-colored?
1) Chronic caries
2) Arrested caries
3) Acute/rampant caries
4) Incipient caries
Acute/rampant caries are immediately damaging, light-colored, and very infectious.
Which of the following is a common sign of periodontal disease?
1) Tooth mobility
2) Bleeding gums
3) Bad breath
4) All of the above
Signs of periodontal disease include tooth mobility, bleeding gums, and bad breath, indicating inflammation and infection.
What is the most common cause of malignant hyperthermia during GA?
1) Halothane.
2) Ketamine.
3) Sevoflurane.
4) Desflurane.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Malignant hyperthermia is a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetic agents, most commonly halothane, which leads to hypermetabolism in skeletal muscles and can cause muscle rigidity, high temperature, and acidosis.
What does Stephan's curve primarily represent?
1) Change in pH of saliva over time
2) Change in pH of plaque over time
3) Change in pH of saliva with sugar intake
4) Change in pH of blood with exercise
Stephan's curve illustrates how the pH of dental plaque changes over time following sugar intake.
What is the primary study design to evaluate tetracycline as an adjunct to scaling and root planing for chronic periodontitis?
1) Cohort
2) Non-randomised controlled trial
3) Randomised controlled trial
4) Case-control
A randomized controlled trial (RCT) is the ideal design to assess the effectiveness of a treatment by removing bias and allowing for controlled comparisons.
Highest analgesic effect is a feature of:
1) Ketamine
2) Thiopentone
3) Propofol
4) Etomidate
Ketamine is a very potent analgesic, providing maximum analgesia among all IV anaesthetics.
Which ion acts as a second messenger?
1) Sodium
2) Potassium
3) Calcium
4) Magnesium
Calcium ions serve as important second messengers in various cellular signaling pathways, facilitating communication within and between cells.
What is the difference between a dental implant and a dental bridge?
1) A dental implant is a fixed restoration that replaces the root and crown of a tooth, while a bridge is a fixed restoration that uses adjacent teeth as supports.
2) A dental implant is a removable restoration, while a bridge is fixed.
3) A dental bridge is a single piece that replaces the root and crown, whereas an implant requires multiple components.
4) Both implants and bridges are used to replace single missing teeth only.
ADC Test Answer: 1
A dental implant is a titanium post that is surgically placed in the jawbone to mimic a tooth root and support a prosthetic crown.
Primary teeth begin to calcify between the ________ and ________months in
utero.
1) first; second
2) second; fourth
3) fourth; sixth
4) sixth; eighth
The primary teeth begin to form in utero at about six weeks.
Which dental material is known for its use as a direct restorative material?
1) Resin composite
2) Glass ionomer cement
3) Amalgam
4) All of the above
Resin composites, glass ionomer cements, and amalgam are all commonly used direct restorative materials in dentistry.
What is the purpose of regular audits of dental records?
- To assess and improve the quality of patient care
- To ensure compliance with data protection laws
- To determine staff performance levels
- To identify the most popular treatment options
Regular audits of dental records help dental practices to evaluate the quality of their care, identify areas for improvement, and ensure that records meet legal and professional standards.
Which bacteria is most commonly associated with acute dentistry-related infections?
1) Streptococcus viridans
2) Staphylococcus aureus
3) Escherichia coli
4) Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus viridans is part of the normal oral flora and frequently implicated in dental infections, particularly endocarditis following dental procedures.
During an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle ideally passes?
1) Through medial pterygoid
2) Anterior and lateral to medial pterygoid
3) Posterior and medial to medial pterygoid
4) Inferior to medial pterygoid.
During an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle ideally passes anterior and lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle.
The complications of using an aerotor at 30,000 rpm for impacted molar
extraction are:
1) Necrosis of bone
2) Tissue laceration
3) Tissue necrosis
4) Emphysema
The use of an aerotor at high speeds can lead to the development of
emphysema, which is a serious complication that occurs when air is forced into
the soft tissues. This can happen during the removal of bone or drying of the
root canal with an air syringe. The risk of emphysema is a significant concern,
making the use of aerotors contraindicated in certain situations, particularly
in the extraction of impacted molars.
In myasthenia gravis, which medication is generally contraindicated?
1) Penicillin
2) Erythromycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Amoxicillin
Erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, is often avoided in patients with myasthenia gravis because it can exacerbate muscle weakness by interfering with neuromuscular transmission. Macrolides, including erythromycin, can cause neuromuscular blocking side effects that mimic or worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. This is due to their ability to bind to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, similar to the action of the autoantibodies in the disease.
What is the primary purpose of documenting suspected abuse or neglect in a dental practice?
1) To confront the abuser
2) To provide evidence for legal proceedings
3) To avoid liability
4) To inform other dental professionals
Documentation serves as a crucial record of observations and actions taken, which can be important in legal contexts.
Which of the following is considered a red flag in a special needs patient's medical history?
1) Non-compliance with appointments
2) Family history of cavities
3) Previous dental trauma
4) Rarely visits the dentist
A history of non-compliance with dental appointments may indicate anxiety or other behavioral issues that need to be addressed for successful treatment.
What protein has I, T, and C subcomponents in muscle fibers?
1) Myosin
2) Actin
3) Troponin
4) Tropomyosin
Troponin is a regulatory protein complex in muscle fibers that includes I (inhibitory), T (tropomyosin-binding), and C (calcium-binding) subcomponents.
The patient whom you are about to treat states that he has Von Willebrand’s disease. Which one of the following preoperative hematological analyses may reflect this disease?
1) Bleeding time and factor VIII level
2) Bleeding time and factor IX level
3) Bleeding time and factor X level
4) Platelet count
ADC Test Answer: 1
Von Willebrand's disease is characterized by prolonged bleeding time and low levels of factor VIII, which is essential for normal clotting.
How can a cusp fracture immediate to a Class II inlay be detected?
1) History.
2) Visually.
3) Radiograph.
4) Percussion.
E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp.
ADC Test Answer: 3
A cusp fracture may not always be visible on a radiograph due to its location and extent, but it is often the best method to detect such a fracture in a clinical setting.
Which of the following best describes ergonomic hazards in dentistry?
1) Exposure to infectious diseases
2) Improper use of dental materials
3) Repetitive motions and awkward postures
4) Chemical exposure from disinfectants
Ergonomic hazards involve physical strain from repetitive motions and awkward postures that can lead to musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals.
What is a common mechanism for condylar fractures of the mandible? 1) Direct blow to the angle of the mandible 2) Fall onto the chin 3) Gunshot wounds 4) Road traffic accidents
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 2Condylar fractures often result from a fall onto the chin, which drives the condyles into their fossae. This mechanism of injury is common in falls and other similar accidents.
Which of the following methods of instrument sterilization uses the lowest
temperature?
1) Steam autoclave.
2) Dry heat oven.
3) Ethylene oxide method
4) Glass bead sterilizer.
The ethylene oxide method of sterilization operates at lower temperatures compared to steam autoclaves and dry heat ovens. It is particularly useful for heat-sensitive instruments, as it can effectively sterilize at temperatures around 30-60°C, making it suitable for materials that cannot withstand higher temperatures.
What is the primary goal of behavioral management techniques in treating anxious patients in dentistry?
1) To eliminate all signs of anxiety
2) To reduce the patient's anxiety to a level where dental treatment can be performed comfortably
3) To induce sleep during the procedure
4) To replace the patient's fear with positive emotions
The main objective of behavioral management is to create a relaxed and cooperative atmosphere, making it possible to conduct the necessary dental procedures without causing undue distress.
The epithelium which covers a healed ulcer is derived from 1. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells of the ulcer 2. intact epithelium at the ulcer margin 3. transformation of fibroblasts to epithelial cells 4. endothelial cells via the blood stream
Oral Pathology Answer: 2The epithelium which covers a healed ulcer is derived from intact epithelium at the ulcer margin
The main stimulation for production of A.D.H. is 1. Increase in plasma potassium. 2. Decrease in blood volume 3. Increase in extracellular fluid 4. Decrease inextracellularosmotic pressure
Physiology Answer: 2The main stimulation for production of A.D.H. is Decrease in blood volume - A.D.H. secretion increases during osmotic diuresis
What substance is primarily responsible for the re-mineralization process in teeth?
1) Fluoride
2) Calcium
3) Phosphate
4) All of the above
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together to enhance the re-mineralization process in enamel, helping to repair demineralized areas.
What type of information is typically included in a patient's medical history in a dental record?
- Financial history
- Detailed dental insurance coverage
- List of systemic diseases, medications, allergies, and lifestyle habits
- Work history and education
A comprehensive medical history in a dental record should include relevant medical information that may affect the patient's oral health or treatment.
What antibiotic is used to manage a superinfected herpetic lip lesion?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Metronidazole
3) Cefuroxime
4) Doxycycline
Cefuroxime is effective against a range of bacteria that may superinfect herpetic lesions, making it a suitable choice for treatment.
Maximum decrease in cardiac output is caused by:
1) Enflurane
2) Halothane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Methoxyflurane
Enflurane causes the maximum decrease in cardiac output, followed by halothane.
Which of the following is an example of implied consent?
1) A patient signing
a consent form for surgery
2) A patient verbally agreeing to a dental cleaning
3) A patient nodding in agreement when asked if they understand the procedure
4) A patient refusing to undergo a procedure
Implied consent occurs when a patient’s actions suggest agreement without formal documentation.
The drug of choice for the treatment of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy is?
1 Carbimazole
2 Iodine therapy
3 Propylthiouracil
4 Metimazole
Thyroid inhibitors b) Inhibit iodine trapping (ionic inhibitors): Thiocyanates, Perchlorates, Nitrates. c) Inhibit hormone release: Iodine, NaI, Kl
a) Inhibit hormone synthesis (anti thyroid drugs): Propylthiouracil, Methimazole, Carbimazole
d) Destroy thyroid tissue: Radioactive iodine
Which of the following psychological approaches can help manage a patient’s anxiety before their dental visit?
1) Flooding
2) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
3) Avoidance Therapy
4) Hypnosis
CBT can help patients reframe their thoughts about dental experiences, reducing anxiety.
Where is bone lost most in periodontal disease?
1) Buccal surface
2) Lingual surface
3) Interdental (approximal) areas
4) Palatal surface
Bone loss in periodontal disease is most pronounced in the interdental areas, where plaque accumulation and inflammation are often greatest.
What is the primary use of nitrous oxide in dentistry?
1) To strengthen teeth
2) To relieve anxiety and create mild sedation
3) To enhance local anesthesia
4) To improve the taste of dental materials
Nitrous oxide is commonly used for its anxiolytic properties and ability to induce a relaxed state without deep sedation.
What factor can enhance the bicarbonate-mediated acid-neutralizing effect of saliva?
1) High-fat diet
2) Decreased salivary flow
3) Increased salivary flow
4) Sleep
Increased salivary flow naturally raises bicarbonate levels in the saliva, which helps to neutralize acids in plaque more effectively, protecting against enamel demineralization and promoting oral health.
What is the primary concern with a mesinangular impaction?
1) It is highly susceptible to infection
2) It is the most difficult to remove
3) It has the highest risk of damaging the adjacent teeth
4) It is associated with the lowest incidence of pericoronitis
Mesinangular impaction is the most common and least difficult type of impaction but is often associated with pericoronitis due to its position and difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene.
A 30 year old pregnant woman developes tuberculosis. Which of the following antitubercular drugs should not be used:
1) INH
2) Rifampicin
3) Streptomycin
4) Ethambutol
Streptomycin is contraindicated in pregnant women because of fetal ototoxicity.
Which of the following is NOT a protective component of saliva against dental
caries?
1) Urea
2) Lactoferrin
3) Statherin
4) Sodium lauryl sulfate
Saliva contains urea, lactoferrin, glycoproteins, lysozyme, lactoperoxidase, sIgA, and calcium/phosphate ions that help protect against caries. Sodium lauryl sulfate is a detergent and not a natural component of saliva with known caries-fighting properties.
The function of 2% potassium sulphate in a gypsum product is
1) to regulate the setting expansion.
2) to regulate the setting time.
3) to act as a retarder.
4) none of the above.
Sodium chloride is an accelerator up to about 2% of the hemihydrates, but at a higher concentration, it acts as a retarder. Sodium sulphate has its maximum acceleration effect at approximately 3.4%; at greater concentrations, it becomes a retarder.
The most commonly used accelerator is potassium sulphate.
particles act as nuclei of crystallization.
Citrates. acetates and borates generally retard the reaction.
Immediately following the closure of the A-V valves is the period of 1. Isotonic contraction 2. Isometric contraction 3. Isometric relaxation 4. Isotonic relaxation
Anatomy Answer: 3Immediately following the closure of the A-V valves is the period of Isometric relaxation
Which of the following is a characteristic of affected dentin?
1) Bacteria-loaded and mushy
2) Requires complete removal
3) Completely cavitated
4) Dry and leathery
Affected dentin is dry and leathery, not invaded by bacteria, and does not need to be removed during restoration.
What is the GDC's requirement for the storage of patient records?
- They must be kept in a secure, locked cabinet
- They must be kept in a fireproof safe
- They must be kept in a format that is easily accessible and understandable
- They must be kept in a location that is accessible only to the dentist
The GDC requires that patient records be kept in a format that is easily accessible and understandable to ensure that dental professionals can provide effective care based on accurate and up-to-date information.
In a maxillofacial fracture, if intracranial pressure increases:
1) It is normal
2) Typically associated with tachycardia
3) Associated with blood pressure
4) Usually subsides spontaneously
ADC Test Answer: 3
Increased intracranial pressure can lead to alterations in cerebral blood flow and may cause changes in blood pressure.
The primary agent used in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia is 1. diazepam 2. phenytoin 3. phenobarbital 4. carbamazepine
Pharmacology Answer: 4carbamazepine is the primary agent used in ment of trigeminal neuralgia
Which of the following enzymes is active in adipocytes following a heavy meal?
1) Glycogen phosphorylase
2) Glycerol kinase
3) Hormone-sensitive triacylglyceride lipase
4) Phosphatidate phosphatase
The enzyme phosphatidate phosphatase converts phosphatidic acid to diacylglycerol during synthesis of triacylglycerides. The function of adipose tissue is the storage of fatty acids as triacylglycerols in times of plenty and the release of fatty acids during times of fasting or starvation. Fatty acids taken in by adipocytes are stored by esterification to glycerol-3-phosphate.
Glycerol kinase is not present to any great extent in adipocytes, so that glycerol freed during lipolysis is not used to reesterify the fatty acids being released.
The enzyme triacylglyceride lipase is turned on by phosphorylation by a cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase following epinephrine stimulation.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using computerized dental records?
- Enhanced data security
- Reduced need for physical storage space
- Increased likelihood of errors and illegibility
- Improved efficiency in retrieving patient information
Computerized records generally reduce errors and improve legibility compared to handwritten notes.
The artery chiefly responsible for blood supply to the mandible is inferior alveolar artery
Which of the following anaesthetic has beta blocker action:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Halothane produces beta-blocker-like action, causing direct depression of the myocardium and bradycardia.
When is the MMR vaccine typically administered?
1) At birth and 6 months
2) At 1 year and again at 4 years
3) At 2 years and 5 years
4) At 6 months and 1 year
The MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine is usually given at 1 year of age and again at 4 years of age to ensure adequate immunity.
Which soft palate muscle is not affected by a laceration of the mucosa
1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar?
1) Tensor veli palatini
2) Palatoglossus
3) Palatopharyngeus
4) Levator veli palatini
A laceration of the mucosa 1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar is unlikely to damage the levator veli palatini as it is located above the palatoglossal fold.
Disto buccal root of upper first molar is supplied by:
1) Buccal nerve
2) Middle superior alveolar nerve
3) Posterior superior alveolar nerve
4) Infra orbital nerve
The disto buccal root of the upper first molar is supplied by the posterior superior alveolar nerve.
Administration of which among the following anaesthetic agent results in a state of dissociative anaesthesia?
1) Ether
2) Propofol
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopentone sodium
Dissociative Anaesthesia refers to a characteristic state which results after an induction dose of Ketamine.
Which of the following areas cannot be determined by survey analysis of a partially edentulous cast?
1) Areas to be blocked out for framework
2) Areas shaped for clasp retention
3) Areas used for guideline planes
4) Depth of rest seats
ADC Test Answer: 4
Survey analysis assists in determining areas suitable for clasp retention, framework design, and guiding planes, but it cannot measure the depth of rest seats directly.
What fluoride treatment is recommended for a child with a high caries rate?
1) 2,800 ppm toothpaste
2) 5,000 ppm toothpaste
3) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 2 times yearly
4) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 3-4 times yearly
For children with a high caries rate, more frequent applications of fluoride varnish like Duraphat are recommended to provide additional protection.
What is the purpose of using a biosafety cabinet during dental procedures?
1) To protect the patient from infection
2) To protect the dental staff from infection
3) To protect the environment from infection
4) To protect the instruments from contamination
A biosafety cabinet is used in the dental setting to protect the dental staff from infection by minimizing exposure to aerosols and splatter generated during procedures. It does not directly protect the patient or the environment but is part of a larger infection control strategy.
A patient experiences pain after an extraction. Which analgesic should be used?
1) Acetaminophen
2) NSAID
3) Opioid
4) Aspirin
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are effective for managing pain and inflammation following dental extractions.
The position of the cusps of the maxillary first premolar is:
1) Distally positioned
2) Mesially positioned
3) Centrally positioned
4) Lingually positioned
ADC Test Answer: 2
In occlusion, the cusp tips of the maxillary first premolar are slightly mesially positioned, which affects alignment and functional performance.
What must a dentist disclose to a patient regarding the risks of a proposed
treatment?
1) Only the most common risks
2) Only the most severe risks
3) All significant risks, including common and less common but serious risks
4) Only the risks that the dentist personally considers significant
A dentist must disclose all significant risks associated with a treatment, not just the most common or severe ones. This allows the patient to have a complete understanding of the potential outcomes and make an informed decision about their care.
Which type of caries is characterized by a brown or black appearance and is
resistant to caries?
1) Acute caries
2) Chronic caries
3) Arrested caries
4) Incipient caries
Arrested caries are brown or black and become caries-resistant, especially when exposed to fluoride.
What is the difference between fluorapatite and carbonate substituted
hydroxyapatite?
1) Fluorapatite is less soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
2) Fluorapatite is more soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
3) They have the same solubility
4) Fluorapatite does not occur in tooth structure
Fluorapatite is a form of hydroxyapatite that has incorporated fluoride ions, which makes it more resistant to acid attacks and thus less soluble compared to carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite.
What is the recommended technique for measuring blood pressure? 1) Patient should cross legs while seated 2) Patient should be seated for at least 5 minutes 3) Inflate the cuff quickly to 100 mmHg 4) Use a stethoscope on the neck artery
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2For accurate blood pressure measurement, the patient should be seated comfortably for at least 5 minutes without crossing their legs.
What is the effect on local anesthetic when used with sodium bicarbonate?
1) Increases speed and quality of anaesthesia
2) Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
3) Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
4) Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
The speed of onset of Anaesthesia is raised by Sodium bicarbonate and further enhances its quality by elevating the intensity and duration of block.
Which condition is characterized by the presence of intraoral fibromas?
1) Lichen planus
2) Fibromatosis
3) Pemphigus vulgaris
4) Epulis
An epulis is a benign tumor characterized by fibrous tissue growth in the gingiva that can present as intraoral fibromas.
Which of the following is NOT a function of rests?
1) To maintain occlusal contact
2) To provide aesthetics
3) To prevent displacement of abutment teeth
4) To provide indirect retention
Rests primarily focus on functional roles, like support and stability, rather than aesthetic enhancement.
Which of the following is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent?
- Cyclopropane
- Barbiturates
- Propofol
- Etomidate
Cyclopropane is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent.
In mixed dentition, which of the following may be considered as a self correcting problem with age?
1) Unilateral loss of primary canine
2) Lack of interdental spaces
3) A distal step
4) Open bite
SOLUTION The possibility that a distal step would become class II is very real, and this not self correcting problem.
Normal child will go through a transitory stage of mandibular incisor crowding at age 8 to 9 even if there will eventually be enough room to accommodate all the permanent teeth in good alignment. In other words, a period when the mandibular incisors are slightly crowded is a normal developmental stage.
Continued development of the arches improves the spacing situation, and by the time the canine teeth erupt, space is once again adequate.
What is the most benign tumor among the following options?
1) Kaposi sarcoma
2) Burkitt's lymphoma
3) Adenolymphoma
4) Acinic cell carcinoma
Adenolymphoma, also known as Warthin’s tumor, is a benign glandular tumor typically found in the parotid gland, characterized by two layers of eosinophilic epithelial cells.
Which organ has fenestrated capillaries?
1) Liver
2) Kidney
3) Pancreas
4) Lung
Fenestrated capillaries are characteristic of the pancreas, particularly in the islets of Langerhans, which facilitate the exchange of hormones into the bloodstream.
Which of the following is a physical sign that a dental patient may be a victim
of abuse?
1) A history of poor oral hygiene
2) Multiple missing teeth
3) Evidence of previous dental restorations
4) Inconsistent explanations of dental injuries
Explanation: While poor oral hygiene and missing teeth can be indicators of
neglect, they are not exclusively signs of abuse. However, if a patient provides
inconsistent explanations for their injuries, it may raise suspicion of abuse. Dentists should be attentive to the patient's history and any inconsistencies
that could suggest intentional harm.
When adjusting the occlusal plane of natural teeth opposed by a complete or partial denture, it should be completed:
1) After the teeth have been set on the trial denture.
2) Immediately after making the final casts.
3) Upon delivery of the denture.
4) After the diagnosis and treatment plan has been established.
FPD and RPD Answer: 4Adjusting the occlusal plane is a foundational step that impacts all subsequent processes in prosthetic rehabilitation. This adjustment should be based on a comprehensive diagnosis and treatment plan to ensure compatibility with the patient’s anatomy and function.
What is the critical pH for demineralization of carbonate-substituted
hydroxyapatite (CHA)?
1) 4.5
2) 5.5
3) 6.2
4) 7.0
The critical pH for CHA is 5.5, below which demineralization begins.
Not true about Na+ K+ 2Cl- Co-transporter:
1) It is a glycoprotein
2) 12 membrane spanning domains
3) There are distinct isoforms for secretory and absorptive function
4) The secretory form is found exclusively in thick segment of ascending limb of loop of Henle
Pharmacology Answer: 4
What is the correct order for removing personal protective equipment (PPE)
at the end of a procedure?
1) Face shield, gown, mask, gloves
2) Gloves, mask, gown, face shield
3) Gown, face shield, mask, gloves
4) Mask, gloves, gown, face shield
The correct order for removing PPE is to first remove the gloves, then the mask, followed by the gown, and finally the face shiel4) This order helps to prevent contamination of the skin and mucous membranes during the removal process.
What is the definition of syncope?
1) A prolonged seizure
2) Transient loss of consciousness due to cerebral anoxia
3) A chronic condition resulting from a brain tumor
4) A mental health disorder
Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a lack of oxygen to the brain. It is characterized by pallor, dilated pupils, coldness of skin, and unconsciousness.
The primary action of aspirin is to:
1) Increase blood flow
2) Decrease blood pressure
3) Inhibit thrombin
4) Inhibit platelet aggregation via thromboxane A2
Aspirin exerts its anti-inflammatory and anti-platelet effects by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, particularly COX-1. This inhibition leads to decreased synthesis of thromboxane A2, a potent mediator of platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. By blocking thromboxane A2, aspirin helps prevent the formation of blood clots, thus reducing the risk of thrombotic events such as heart attacks and strokes.
What is the primary purpose of taking dental impressions?
1) To diagnose dental conditions
2) To create a mold for restorations or orthodontic appliances
3) To monitor teeth movement over time
4) To educate patients about oral hygiene
Dental impressions are taken to create a precise mold of a patient's teeth and surrounding structures. These molds are then used by dental laboratories to fabricate restorations like crowns, bridges, dentures, and orthodontic appliances that fit accurately in the patient's mouth. While impressions can indirectly help in diagnosis, their primary purpose is for the creation of these appliances.
Which of the following is not recommended in the technique for curing light cured composites?
1) Holding the light tip 1 cm from the tooth
2) Wearing speacial glasses with orange filters
3) Using an exposure duration of 40 to 60 seconds
4) Placing the composite in increments of 1 to 2 mm
The distance between the tip of the curing light and the tooth is important, as the intensity of the light source is important.
The intensity of light is inverselyproportional to the distance from the source. As a general rule each increment should be at most 1.5 to 2 mm thick. This will ensure complete penetration of the light and maximum curing of thecomposite at the bottom most portion of the cavity preparation.
A picture of the gingiva of a black person with melanin pigmentation and a white line across the central incisors. What is the cause of the white line?
1) Amelogenesis imperfecta
2) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
3) Hypo-mineralization
4) Fluorosis
The white line is likely due to hypo-mineralization, which can occur due to various factors, including nutritional deficiencies or environmental influences.
Which of the following is NOT a type of dental charting?
1) Periapical charting
2) Periodontal charting
3) Full mouth series charting
4) Panoramic charting
Panoramic radiographs are not a type of charting. They are a type of radiograph that provides a two-dimensional view of the entire mouth on a single film. The other options Periapical charting, Periodontal charting, Full mouth series charting, and Bitewing charting refer to different types of charting that are used to document specific dental conditions, such as the presence of cavities or periodontal disease.
What must a healthcare provider ensure about a patient before obtaining
informed consent?
1) The patient is of legal age
2) The patient has a high level of education
3) The patient is capable of understanding the information provided
4) The patient has a family member present
It is crucial that the patient has the capacity to understand the information related to their treatment to give valid consent.
Which type of rest is seated on the incisal edge?
1) Cingulum rest
2) Incisal rest
3) Occlusal rest
4) Auxiliary rest
An incisal rest is specifically designed to be seated on the incisal edge of a tooth, typically of the mandibular canine.
Which of the following is the best practice for communicating with an anxious patient?
1) Speak in technical jargon
2) Use a calm, reassuring tone and simple language
3) Avoid eye contact to reduce pressure
4) Give a detailed explanation of all possible complications
Clear, simple language delivered in a calming tone can help reduce anxiety and build the patient's trust.
What does the presence of Rushton bodies indicate in histological examinations?
1) Bacterial infection
2) Non-odontogenic cyst
3) Odontogenic origin of a cyst
4) Immune response
The identification of Rushton bodies, which are often found in radicular cysts, signifies that the cyst has an odontogenic origin.
Which of the following statements about muscle fibers is correct?
1) The A band is made of Myosin
2) Troponin combines with calcium
3) Troponin has I, T, and C subcomponents
4) All of the above
All the statements are correct.
What defines the action of zinc oxide eugenol in promoting healing?
1) Analgesic properties
2) Antibacterial activity
3) Tissue regeneration
4) Promotes rapid bone growth
Zinc oxide eugenol dressings are known for their properties that facilitate healing and promote rapid bone growth in post-extraction sites.
Clinical use(s) of EMLA applications:?
1) Myringotomy
2) Arterial cannulation
3) Venipuncture
4) Lumbar puncture
EMLA applications are used in clinical settings for various procedures.
Glycine is a Glycogenic amino acid, only
What is the significance of the Stephan Curve in dentistry?
1) It illustrates changes in oral pH after sugar exposure.
2) It describes the process of remineralization.
3) It indicates the types of bacteria present in the mouth.
4) It shows the composition of saliva.
The Stephan Curve describes how the pH of the oral cavity changes in response to sugar and acid exposure over time.
A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you consider?
1) Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socket
2) Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa
3) Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal.
4) Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment.
ADC Test Answer: 4
The best approach is to create a mucoperiosteal flap, remove the cyst through an opening in the alveolar bone, and then perform endodontic treatment.
What is the best approach to ensure the cooperation of a patient with autism spectrum disorder during dental treatment?
1) Sticking strictly to a predefined treatment schedule
2) Providing a structured and predictable environment
3) Using bright, flashing lights in the operatory
4) Asking the patient to hold their mouth open without support
Patients with autism may benefit from a structured environment with minimal sensory stimulation.
In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards?
1) Facial / buccal
2) Lingual
3) Mesial
4) Distal
ADC Test Answer: 1
The palatal root of the maxillary first molar typically curves towards the buccal, creating challenges in accessing and treating its canals.
Which of the following are anti-fungal drugs?
1) Cloxacillin
2) Aciclovir
3) Chlorhexidine
4) Nystatin
Miconazole is an imidazole anti-fungal drug, Nystatin is a polyene anti-fungal drug and itraconazole is a triazole anti-fungal.
Aciclovir is an anti-viral drug and chlorhexidine is an antiseptic.cloxacillin is penicillin derivative.
Following the injection of 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, a
nervous 22 year old male with well
controlled insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels dizzy and weak. Beads
of sweat have accumulated on
his forehead and upper lip. He is quite pale. The initial management of this
patient is to
1) administer glucagon 1.0mg.
2) administer epinephrine 0.5mg.
3) administer diphenhydramine 50mg.
4) elevate the patient's legs and administer 100% oxygen.
These symptoms suggest vasovagal syncope or hypoglycemia; elevating legs improves circulation, and oxygen supports recovery.
The afferent limb to the upper epiglottis is via which nerve?
1) Superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
2) Inferior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
3) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
4) Lingual nerve (CN 5)
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9) is a mixed cranial nerve that carries both
sensory and motor fibers.
The superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10) innervates the mucous
membranes of the larynx below the level of the epiglottis, while the inferior
laryngeal branch innervates the muscles of the larynx, not the epiglottis. The
lingual nerve (CN 5) is primarily involved in the sensation of the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue and the mucosa of the floor of the mouth, not the
epiglottis.
What is the significance of 'dentin involvement' in determining
operative treatment for dental caries?
1) It is a precise indicator for the need for operative treatment.
2) It is a vague term and cannot be relied upon for decision-making.
3) It is always indicative of severe caries progression.
4) It is directly correlated with the presence of cavities.
The term 'dentin involvement' is not specific enough to accurately
describe the various changes occurring in the pulpo-dentinal organ during caries
progression. This limits its use as a reliable indicator for determining the
need for operative treatment.
Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by
1) metal ions
2) hydroxyl bond
3) carboxyl bond
4) ionic bond
one ot the main adanhtges of GIC as a restoratie material was its ability to form chemical bonds with the tooth structure. Bonding in GIC primarily invokes chelation of carboxyl groups of the polyacids sith the calcium in the apatite of enamel and dentin.
A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotics for oral infection; this is an example of:
1) Type I allergic reaction
2) Nervous disorder
3) Side effect of the drug
4) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
ADC Test Answer: 3
Gastrointestinal upset is a common side effect of antibiotics, occurring due to their impact on gut flora and digestive processes.
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation for suspected mandibular fractures? 1) MRI 2) Orthopantomogram 3) CT scan 4) Lateral cephalogram
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 2The orthopantomogram (OPG) is the first-line radiographic investigation for suspected mandibular fractures. It provides a panoramic view of the mandible, making it ideal for fracture assessment.
What is the difference between a dental chart and a dental record?
1) A dental chart is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental record includes all patient information.
2) A dental chart includes only the patient's medical history, while a dental record has the full treatment history.
3) A dental record is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental chart has the full treatment history.
4) Both are the same.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions.
Which blood pressure reading is considered “prehypertension” according to recent classifications? 1) <120/80 mmHg 2) 120-139/80-89 mmHg 3) 140-159/90-99 mmHg 4) ?180/110 mmHg
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Prehypertension is defined as a blood pressure between 120-139 systolic and 80-89 diastolic.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides:
1) Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
2) Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
3) Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may cause Kernicterus
4) Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to Norcardia species
Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT Sulfasalazine is poorly absorbed (10-20%) from the GIT .
What is the primary feature of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.
Which site is the most frequent for oral cancer?
1) Hard palate
2) Tongue
3) Lower lip
4) Floor of the mouth
The lower lip is the most common site for oral cancer overall, while the tongue is frequently affected within the oral cavity.
In temporomandibular joint least vascularity is seen in which of the following:
1) Articular cartilage
2) Anterior part of articular cartilage
3) Posterior part of articular cartilage
4) Central part of articular disc
In root resection (apicoectomy) it is appropriate to
1) remove as little of the root as possible.
2) curette the soft tissue lesion in its entirety.
3) be certain the apex is sealed
4) All of the above.
An apicoectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the apex (tip) of a tooth root along with any associated infected tissue. The goals of the procedure include:
- Remove as little of the root as possible: Preserving as much of the root structure as possible is crucial for maintaining tooth stability and function. Excessive removal can compromise the tooth's integrity.
- Curette the soft tissue lesion in its entirety: It is essential to remove all infected or necrotic tissue to promote healing and prevent recurrence of infection. This ensures that the area is clean and free of any pathological tissue.
- Be certain the apex is sealed: After the apex is resected, it is important to seal the end of the root to prevent bacteria from re-entering the root canal system. This is typically done using a biocompatible material.
Nitinol has the disadvantage of which of the following?
1) It cannot be formed into desired shapes
2) It lacks elastic properties
3) Its strength is not suited for orthodontic purposes
4) It lacks stiffness
Nitinol is a metal alloy – or mixture – of nickel and titanium.
Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue manifests itself in the oral cavity as:
1) Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of the tongue
2) Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from a central groove in the center of the tongue
3) Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas
4) Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hypertrophic fungiform
ADC Test Answer: 3
Geographic tongue is characterized by the loss of filiform papillae, leading to irregular, smooth, red patches on the tongue.
A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased postoperative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:
1) Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation
2) Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation
3) Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets
4) Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network
ADC Test Answer: 1
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis, which is crucial for platelet aggregation, leading to increased bleeding risk.
Which of the following is a psychologically acceptable method for bone removal during an extraction?
1) High-speed handpiece and bur technique
2) Chisel and mallet technique
3) Laser surgery
4) All of the above
The high-speed handpiece and bur technique is generally more accepted by patients due to its precision and controlled removal of bone.
What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.
The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes.
Which of the following anaesthetic agent can be given by both intravenous and intramuscular routes:
1) Thiopentone
2) Propanidid
3) Ketamine
4) Fentanyl-droperidol
Ketamine can be administered via intravenous, intramuscular, oral, and intrathecal routes. It is the second method of choice for induction in children, with the first being inhalational.
The best way to clean a cavity before the placement of GIC is:
1) H2O2
2) Phosphoric Acid
3) Polyacrylic acid
4) Saline
ADC Test Answer: 3
Polyacrylic acid is recommended for cleaning a cavity before using GIC as it helps create an effective bond while preserving the integrity of dentin moisture.
Choose correct statements about flowable composite:
1) Low modulus of elasticity.
2) Lower filler content.
3) Higher polymerization shrinkage.
4) All of the above.
ADC Test Answer: 4
Flowable composites generally exhibit a low modulus of elasticity, lower filler content, and increased polymerization shrinkage compared to traditional composites, making them suitable for specific applications but requiring careful consideration regarding their use.
Rejecting, negative inquiry, and fogging, are all responses for which type of
criticism.
1) Postive criticism.
2) Destructive criticism.
3) False criticism.
4) Constructive criticism.
Rejecting, negative inquiry, and fogging are all responses that are typically
associated with destructive criticism. Destructive criticism refers to feedback
or comments that are unhelpful, hurtful, or aimed at tearing down the person or
their work rather than providing constructive suggestions for improvement. These
responses mentioned in the question indicate a dismissive attitude, a negative
questioning approach, and an attempt to obscure or evade the issue, all of which
are characteristic of destructive criticism.
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that functions as a:
1) Vasodilator
2) ACE inhibitor
3) Beta-blocker
4) Calcium channel blocker
Hydralazine is a direct vasodilator that helps reduce blood pressure by relaxing vascular smooth muscle.
In what area of the root are periodontal ligament fibers thinner?
1) Apical third
2) Middle third
3) Cervical third
4) Entire root
Periodontal ligament fibers are generally thinner in the middle third of the root compared to the apical and cervical thirds, where they are typically thicker for better support.
The nerve damaged if injured at the stylomastoid foramen is:
1) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
2) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN 8)
3) Facial nerve (CN 7)
4) Accessory nerve (CN 11)
The facial nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and is therefore at risk of damage at this location.
What is the age of majority for giving informed consent?
1) 16 years
2) 18 years
3) 21 years
4) Varies by country
In most jurisdictions, the age of majority is 18 years, which means
individuals below this age are considered minors and typically require parental
or guardian consent for medical or dental treatment, except in cases of
emergency.
The DMF index is commonly used to measure:
1) Oral hygiene
2) Dental radiograph efficacy
3) Prevalence and severity of dental caries
4) Tooth mobility
The Decayed, Missing, and Filled teeth (DMF) index is a standard epidemiological tool to assess the burden of dental caries in populations.
What is the most common location for oral squamous cell carcinoma?
1) Tongue
2) Buccal mucosa
3) Hard palate
4) Floor of the mouth
The lateral borders of the tongue are the most common sites for oral squamous cell carcinoma, often due to the exposure to carcinogenic agents and irritation.
Ability of an orthodontic wire to spring back to Its original shape is evaluated by
1) Brittleness
2) Resilience
3) Tensile strength
4) Toughness
Resilience is the amount of energy absorbed by a structure when it is stressed to proportional Limit.
The elastic area of the stress-strain graph gives resilience; entire area up to breaking point is a measure of toughness.
The slope of straight Line gives Young’s modulus.
Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given
1) After meals
2) Shortly before meals
3) Along with H2 blockers
4) During prolonged fasting periods
Bio-availability of all proton pump inhibitors is reduced by food; they should be taken in empty stomach, followed 1 hour later by a meal to activate H+K+ ATPase and make it more susceptible to the proton pump inhibitor.
Which blood vessels have softer walls?
1) Arteries
2) Veins
3) Arterioles
4) Capillaries
Veins have thinner walls and are more compliant than arteries, allowing them to accommodate varying volumes of blood.
Heavy cigarette smoking significantly increases the incidence of
1) aphthous stomatitis.
2) geographic tongue.
3) lichen planus.
4) mucosal pigmentation.
Cigarette smoking is associated with oral mucosal changes,
including the deposition of melanin pigment in the basal layer of the
epithelium, leading to mucosal pigmentation. This is a common oral manifestation
of chronic smoking and can occur in various areas of the oral cavity.
X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of:
1) Silver nitrate crystal
2) Metallic silver in gelatine
3) Silver bromide in gelatine
4) Silver nitrate in gelatine
ADC Test Answer: 3
The emulsion on x-ray films is primarily composed of silver bromide crystals suspended in gelatin, which is sensitive to radiation.
The growth of the alveolar process has a major effect on
1) Anteroposterior jaw relationship
2) Vertical jaw relationship
3) Both
4) None of the above
What is the kind of bur used for refinement and polishing of composites?
1) Fine carbide.
2) Diamond.
3) Both A and B.
4) Disc.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Both fine carbide burs and diamond burs are effective for the refinement and polishing of composite materials.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in therapeutic doses?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Clindamycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Tetracycline
Clindamycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal cramps, even at therapeutic doses.
What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing pre-capillary sphincters?
1) Acetylcholine
2) Serotonin
3) Nor-adrenaline
4) Substance P
Nor-adrenaline is responsible for vasoconstriction and can close pre-capillary sphincters, regulating blood flow.
How do rests help in force transmission?
1) By redirecting forces perpendicularly
2) By directing forces parallel to the long axis of the abutment tooth
3) By absorbing all the forces
4) By separating the teeth
Rests are designed to direct forces of mastication parallel to the long axis of the abutment to enhance support.
What is the percentage of edentulous patients in England and Scotland?
1) 10%
2) 25%
3) 50%
4) 64%
Approximately 64% of adults over 65 years are edentulous in the UK, reflecting the impact of dental health over time.
What is the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient?
- To establish a baseline for future comparisons
- To screen for cavities
- To assess the patient's overall oral health
- To plan for a specific treatment
Although radiographs are used for various purposes, including detecting cavities and planning treatment, the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient is to assess the patient's overall oral health and identify any underlying conditions that may require attention.
For a cast gold restoration, a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder
because a bevel
1. Protects the enamel.
2. increases retention.
3. Improves marginal adaptation.
4. Increases the thickness of gold
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
A gingival bevel is preferred in cast gold restorations because it protects the enamel (1) by reducing the risk of enamel fracture and improves marginal adaptation (3) by allowing for a more favorable angle for the gold to fit against the tooth structure. This results in a better seal and less chance of microleakage, enhancing the longevity of the restoration.
What type of crown is placed after a Nayyar core technique?
1) Porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
2) Amalgam crown
3) All-ceramic crown
4) Gold crown
The Nayyar core technique is often followed by placing an amalgam crown due to its strength and durability.
Which nerve is affected if a patient is unable to gaze laterally to the left?
1) Right abducent
2) Right trochlear
3) Left abducent
4) Left trochlear
The left abducent nerve (cranial nerve VI) innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for lateral eye movement.
A periapical radiograph can be used to locate the buccal bone level.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by:
1) Radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs.
2) Disclosing solution.
3) Probing with a fine instrument.
4) Visual inspection.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Probing with a fine instrument allows for the direct evaluation of the periodontal pockets and can provide information about the presence and extent of subgingival calculus.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the attachment of the mylohyoid muscle?
1) It attaches superiorly at the lateral border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid.
2) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the lesser horn of the hyoid
3) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the greater horn of the hyoid
4) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid
It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid
What defines the etiology of localized alveolar osteitis?
1) Bacterial infection
2) Oestrogen effects from medications
3) Excessive local fibrinolytic activity
4) Poor oral hygiene
Localized alveolar osteitis is often attributed to excessive fibrinolytic activity following trauma to the alveolar bone, rather than solely due to bacterial infections.
What is the relationship between fluoride concentration and dental caries
resistance?
1) Low fluoride levels lead to greater resistance.
2) High fluoride levels lead to greater resistance.
3) There is no relationship between fluoride and caries resistance.
4) Fluoride levels do not affect caries resistance.
Higher fluoride levels can lead to the formation of fluorapatite, which is more resistant to acid attack than hydroxyapatite, thereby reducing the risk of dental caries.
Instrument which has a 4 digit formulae;
1) angle former
2) hoe
3) hatchet
4) spoon excavator
Since the cutting edge of the angle former is not at a right angle to the blade axis[its usually 80-85deg for angle former
Which anesthetic method is generally avoided in patients with certain neurological conditions?
1) Topical anesthetic
2) Inhalation sedation
3) Intravenous sedation
4) Local anesthetic
Intravenous sedation can present risks for patients with neurological conditions due to the potential for respiratory depression and impaired airway reflexes.
Zinc phosphate cement powder contains zinc oxide, magnesium oxide, bismuth oxide
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious?
1) Hypotension
2) Hepatotoxicity
3) Uterine neoplasia
4) Thromboembolism disorder
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thromboembolism is a significant risk associated with oral contraceptives, particularly in women with additional risk factors.
Which filing system is commonly used for organizing paper dental records?
1) Vertical filing cabinets
2) Lateral filing cabinets
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None of the above
Both vertical and lateral filing cabinets can be used to organize paper dental records for easy retrieval.
Which of the following is/are associated with the presence of microorganisms in
the bloodstream?
1) Anachoresis.
2) Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
3) Bacteremia
4) All of the above.
All the options listed (Anachoresis, Cavernous sinus thrombosis, and Bacteremia) are associated with the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream. Anachoresis refers to the process by which bacteria can localize in tissues, cavernous sinus thrombosis can occur due to the spread of infection from the oral cavity, and bacteremia is the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream itself.
What is the typical microorganism found in localized aggressive periodontitis?
1) Porphyromonas gingivalis.
2) Fusobacterium nucleatum.
3) Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans.
4) Prevotella intermedia.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans is frequently associated with localized aggressive periodontitis, contributing to the rapid destruction of periodontal tissues.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for dental records according to the GDC?
1) Records must be clear and concise
2) Records must include financial information
3) Records must be contemporaneous
The GDC does not require financial information to be included in dental records; the focus is on clinical and patient care information.
The most common malignant lesion found in the oral cavity is:
1) Ameloblastoma
2) Squamous cell carcinoma
3) Osteosarcoma
4) Adenocarcinoma
ADC Test Answer: 2
Squamous cell carcinoma constitutes approximately 90% of oral malignancies and is often seen as ulcers or lumps in the oral tissues.
Drug class causing free water clearance:
a) Diuretic
b) Saluretic
c) Uricosuric
d) Aquaretic
Vasopressin antagonists like tolvaptan are aquaretics
The ingredient of dental waxes that is extremely hard, has a high melting temperature, is added to decrease flow at oral temperatures and contributes to glossiness of the waxes is 1. paraffin 2. gum dammar 3. gutta percha 4. carnauba
Dental Material Answer: 4Carnauba is added to decrease flow at oral temperatures and contributes to glossiness, is extremely hard, has a high melting temperature
Which of the following is NOT an infrahyoid muscle?
1) Digastric
2) Mylohyoid
3) Geniohyoid
4) Omohyoid
The infrahyoid muscles are the mylohyoid, hyoglossus, stylohyoid,
thyrohyoid, and omohyoid muscles. The infrahyoid muscles are a group of muscles found in the neck that are
situated below the hyoid bone.
2) Mylohyoid: This muscle runs obliquely from the body and greater horn of the
hyoid bone to the inner surface of the mandible. It is involved in elevating the
hyoid bone, which occurs during swallowing and tongue movement.
3) Geniohyoid: The geniohyoid muscle originates from the lower mental spine and
genial tubercle of the mandible and inserts into the body and greater horn of
the hyoid bone. It plays a role in depressing the hyoid bone, which occurs
during swallowing and tongue protrusion.
4) Omohyoid: The omohyoid muscle originates from the scapula and passes upward
and medially to insert into the lower part of the hyoid bone. It also helps in
depressing the hyoid bone and can assist in raising the larynx during
swallowing.
The Digastric muscle is not an infrahyoid muscle. The digastric muscle is
actually a suprahyoid muscle, which means it is located above the hyoid bone. It
has two bellies: the anterior belly originates from the digastric fossa of the
mandible and inserts into the hyoid bone, while the posterior belly originates
from the mastoid process of the temporal bone and inserts into the hyoid bone. The digastric muscle functions in opening the jaw and raising the hyoid bone
during swallowing.
Which of the following is NOT a key aspect of record keeping according to the GDC guidance?
1) Complete and accurate patient records
2) Documenting discussions with patients
3) Keeping financial information in the dental record
4) Recording consent for treatment
Financial information should not be included in the clinical dental record; it is separate from patient care documentation.
Of the following, the most difficult impaction to extract is:
1) Mesioangular
2) Vertical
3) Distoangular
4) Horizontal
Distoangular impactions of mandibular molars are often considered the most challenging to extract due to their position and the amount of bone that must be removed to access the tooth. The angulation of the tooth can complicate the extraction process, requiring more extensive surgical intervention. Additionally, the removal of bone in this area can weaken the ramus of the mandible, increasing the risk of fracture during extraction.
What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet in a dental laboratory?
1) To provide a sterile work environment
2) To protect the technician from inhaling dust
3) To prevent cross-contamination
4) To store sterile materials
A biosafety cabinet provides a controlled environment with laminar
airflow to protect the technician and the materials from cross-contamination
during procedures involving infectious materials.
What is the first step in the standard precautions for infection control in
dental settings?
1) Hand hygiene
2) Use of personal protective equipment
3) Sterilization of instruments
4) Environmental cleaning and disinfection
Hand hygiene is the most important and basic step in infection
control. It involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based
hand sanitizer before and after patient contact to reduce the risk of
transmitting infections.
Agents not recommended for Bier block:
1) Chloroprocaine (Nesacaine), mepivacaine (Carbocaine), and bupivacaine (Marcaine)
2) Chloroprocaine (Nesacaine)
3) Mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
4) Bupivacaine (Marcaine)
Chloroprocaine (Nesacaine), mepivacaine (Carbocaine), and bupivacaine (Marcaine) are not recommended for Bier block.
What causes amalgam expansion?
1) Excess mercury
2) Sufficient ventilation
3) Moisture contamination
4) Inadequate mixing
Moisture during the mixing and placement of amalgam can result in expansion, particularly with zinc-containing alloys.