Dentist Abroad
Which is a commonly used medication for managing dental anxiety?
1) Antibiotics
2) Benzodiazepines
3) Analgesics
4) Antidepressants
Benzodiazepines are often prescribed for their anxiolytic effects, helping to alleviate anxiety in dental patients.
Penicillins:
1) Are the antibiotic of choice for anaerobic infections
2) Are bacteriostatic
3) Are protagonistic to tetracycline
4) Interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis
The penicillins all act by interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis, by inhibiting cross-linking of the mucopeptides in the cell wall and as such are bacteriocidal.
Thymol is preservative used for:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Desflurane
4) Enflurane
Halothane is stored in amber-colored bottles and contains thymol 0.01% as a preservative to prevent decomposition by light.
What does the term "material risks" refer to in the context of informed
consent?
1) The cost of the treatment
2) The most common risks associated with the procedure
3) The most serious risks associated with the procedure
4) The risks that the patient is most concerned about
Material risks are significant risks that the patient should be
informed about, as they are most relevant to the decision-making process.
Norepinephrine is stored at the Postganglionic parasympathetic nerve endings
Can a patient withdraw their informed consent at any time?
1) No, once given, consent cannot be withdrawn
2) Yes, but only if the treatment has not yet started
3) Yes, at any point during the treatment
4) Only if the patient has not signed a consent form
A patient has the right to withdraw informed consent at any time
during the treatment process, regardless of whether they have signed a consent
form or not.
Which of the following is NOT a common consequence of untreated dental caries in
older adults?
1) Pain
2) Tooth loss
3) Cancer
4) Infection
Although untreated dental caries can lead to severe complications
like pain and infection, it does not directly cause cancer.
What is the correct order of donning personal protective equipment (PPE) in the dental setting?
1) Gown, mask, gloves, face shield
2) Gloves, mask, gown, face shield
3) Mask, gown, gloves, face shield
4) Face shield, gown, mask, gloves
The correct order of donning PPE in the dental setting is to first put on a mask to protect the mouth and nose, then a gown to cover the clothes, followed by gloves to protect the hands, and finally a face shield to protect the eyes, nose, and face from splashes and sprays.
Relapse of orthodontic tooth rotation is due to periodontal traction. This is mainly caused by action of which periodontal fibers
1) Supracrestal fibres and oblique fibres
2) Supracrestal fibres and horizontal fibres
3) Supracrestal fibres and transeptal fibres
4) Transeptal fibres and oblique fibres
PDL traction is mainly due to supracrestal fibres, transeptal fibres of gingival fibers.
It needs at least 232 days for readaptation, e.g. rotations.
To avoid relapse either circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy is done OR a prolonged retention is given.
What is the best way to ensure that dental records are legible and permanent?
- Use pencil to write notes
- Use erasable ink for charting
- Use a computer with password-protected access
- Write notes on sticky pads and attach them to the patient's file
Electronic records are typically more legible and permanent than handwritten notes, especially when access is controlled and regular backups are performed.
Which of the following is NOT a component that reduces cariogenicity?
1) Sucrose
2) Galactose
3) Lactose
4) Fermented carbohydrates
Fermented carbohydrates are not listed as reducing cariogenicity.
Sterilization of carious dentin without pulp injury is assured by the
application of
1) phenol.
2) 70% ethyl alcohol.
3) chlorhexidine.
4) None of the above.
Sterilizing carious dentin while preserving pulp vitality is a delicate balance:
- Phenol: While it has antibacterial properties, it can be toxic to pulp tissue and is not recommended for use in vital pulp therapy.
- 70% ethyl alcohol: This concentration is effective for disinfection but can also cause dehydration and damage to pulp tissue.
- Chlor hexidine: Although it is an effective antimicrobial agent, it may not be suitable for direct application on carious dentin close to the pulp due to potential cytotoxic effects.
- Absolute alcohol: This can cause desiccation and damage to the pulp tissue, making it unsuitable for use in this context.
What is the difference between fluorapatite and carbonate substituted
hydroxyapatite?
1) Fluorapatite is less soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
2) Fluorapatite is more soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
3) They have the same solubility
4) Fluorapatite does not occur in tooth structure
Fluorapatite is a form of hydroxyapatite that has incorporated fluoride ions, which makes it more resistant to acid attacks and thus less soluble compared to carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite.
What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists ?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss
Musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it. This is consistent with findings from other studies that highlight the prevalence of musculoskeletal disorders in the dental profession due to prolonged sitting postures, repetitive movements, and manual dexterity required in dental practice.
Which of the following practices can help reduce the risk of cross-contamination in a dental office? 1) Using the same gloves for multiple patients 2) Disinfecting surfaces and instruments between patients 3) Not wearing masks during procedures 4) Ignoring hand hygiene protocols
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Regular disinfection of surfaces and instruments is essential for preventing cross-contamination and protecting both patients and dental staff.
Which of the following is an indicator of potential physical abuse in a patient?
1) A patient with good oral hygiene
2) Frequent dental visits
3) Unexplained injuries or bruises in various stages of healing
4) A patient who is shy and quiet
Unexplained injuries, particularly in various stages of healing, can be a strong indicator of physical abuse.
What should a dentist do if a patient presents with a dental emergency that appears to be the result of abuse or neglect?
1) Treat the emergency and report the incident to the authorities
2) Refuse treatment until the patient provides a satisfactory explanation for the injury
3) Treat the emergency without reporting the incident
4) Report the incident to the authorities and delay treatment until they arrive
In the case of a dental emergency, the dentist should provide immediate care and report the suspicion of abuse or neglect to the authorities.
What is the primary risk associated with the use of nitrous oxide in patients with cerebral palsy?
1) Increased risk of aspiration
2) Decreased muscle tone leading to airway obstruction
3) Enhanced sensitivity to the anesthetic effects
4) Increased risk of dental caries
Patients with cerebral palsy may have difficulty controlling their airway and swallowing reflexes, which can increase the risk of aspirating during the administration of nitrous oxide.
What is the purpose of a consent form?
1) To serve as legal evidence of informed consent
2) To inform the patient of the risks and benefits of treatment
3) To protect the dentist from legal liability
4) To replace verbal communication between the dentist and patient
While consent forms do provide a written record of the consent
discussion, their primary purpose is to serve as evidence that the patient has
been informed and has voluntarily agreed to the proposed treatment. Verbal
communication remains essential for the informed consent process.
What does Stephan's curve primarily represent?
1) Change in pH of saliva over time
2) Change in pH of plaque over time
3) Change in pH of saliva with sugar intake
4) Change in pH of blood with exercise
Stephan's curve illustrates how the pH of dental plaque changes over time following sugar intake.
Which of the following is not one of the consequences of using Herbst appliance in treatment of Class II malocclusion?
1) Increase in mandibular growth
2) Over corrected Class I molar relation
3) Increase in SNB angle
4) Increase in overjet
Solution The following are the effects when Herbst appliance used for treatment of Class II malocclusion:
1.
2. Increased mandibular growth
3. Distal driving of maxillary molars which helps to achieve molar relation.
4. Reduction of overjet by increasing mandibular length and proclination of mandibular incisors.
5. Inhibitory effect on sagittal maxillary growth
6. Weislander suggested double contour of glenoid fossa which indicates anterior transformation of glenoid fossa
7. Increased SNB angle and decreased SNA angle.
What is the definition of syncope?
1) A prolonged seizure
2) Transient loss of consciousness due to cerebral anoxia
3) A chronic condition resulting from a brain tumor
4) A mental health disorder
Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a lack of oxygen to the brain. It is characterized by pallor, dilated pupils, coldness of skin, and unconsciousness.
What is the role of a dental therapist in the care of a patient with special needs?
1) To provide all aspects of dental treatment under the supervision of a dentist
2) To perform only simple procedures like cleanings and fillings
3) To manage the patient's medical conditions
4) To provide oral health education and preventive care
A dental therapist is a mid-level dental provider who can perform various procedures under the supervision of a dentist.
For a 15-year-old boy with a missing lateral incisor, what is the recommended treatment?
1) Dental implant
2) Resin bonded bridge
3) Removable partial denture
4) Orthodontic treatment
In younger patients, a resin-bonded bridge is often preferred due to the ongoing growth and development of the jaw.
What is the primary risk factor for the development of musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals?
1) Prolonged periods of sitting
2) Repetitive motions
3) Working with vibrating instruments
4) Exposure to radiation
Repetitive motions, such as those involved in holding and using small hand instruments for long periods, are the primary risk factor for the development of musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals.
A lingual approach for a conservative Class III preparation for a composite
resin requires
1) a retentive internal form.
2) parallelism of the incisal and gingival walls.
3) maintenance of the incisal contact are1)
4) All of the above.
When preparing a Class III cavity using a lingual approach, several factors must be considered to ensure the success of the restoration:
- A retentive internal form: The preparation must have features that provide retention for the composite material, preventing it from dislodging over time.
- Parallelism of the incisal and gingival walls: Maintaining parallel walls helps in achieving a proper fit for the composite material and ensures that the restoration is stable and aesthetically pleasing.
- Maintenance of the incisal contact area: Preserving the incisal contact is crucial for maintaining the functional and aesthetic aspects of the tooth, as it helps in proper occlusion and prevents shifting of adjacent teeth.
Which fracture is most likely to lead to meningitis?
1) Le Fort 1
2) Le Fort 2
3) Le Fort 3
4) Zygomatic
Le Fort 3 fractures involve the craniofacial skeleton extensively and can disrupt the dura mater, increasing the risk of infection and potentially leading to meningitis.
Drug class causing free water clearance:
a) Diuretic
b) Saluretic
c) Uricosuric
d) Aquaretic
Vasopressin antagonists like tolvaptan are aquaretics
What is the primary function of the tensor tympani muscle?
1) To assist in swallowing
2) To dampen loud sounds
3) To facilitate hearing
4) To stabilize the jaw
The tensor tympani muscle helps protect the inner ear from loud sounds by tensing the tympanic membrane, reducing sound transmission.
The most common malignant lesion found in the oral cavity is:
1) Ameloblastoma
2) Squamous cell carcinoma
3) Osteosarcoma
4) Adenocarcinoma
ADC Test Answer: 2
Squamous cell carcinoma constitutes approximately 90% of oral malignancies and is often seen as ulcers or lumps in the oral tissues.
Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping?
1) Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure
2) Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
3) When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
4) Deep caries without symptoms
ADC Test Answer: 1
Indirect pulp capping is indicated when some softened dentin remains over the pulp but further excavation could risk exposing it, thus preserving pulp vitality.
Repair of denture bases should be carried out with 1. cold-cure resins in order to avoid distortion of the denture base 2. heat-cure resins in order to-secure a strong bond between the repair ma terial and the original denture 3. heat-cure resins in order to prevent porosity--at the repaired site 4. cold-cure resnis in order to reduce the amount of residual monomer in the repaired denture
Dental Material Answer: 1Repair of denture bases should be carried out with cold-cure resins in order to avoid distortion of the denture base
What is the primary concern when using templates for dental records?
- Lack of flexibility
- High cost of implementation
- Limited accessibility for patients
- Requires advanced IT skills
While templates can help organize information, the primary concern is that they may not capture all individual aspects of a patient's case or allow for the nuances of personalized care.
What is the minimum requirement for the retention of dental records according to the GDC?
- 5 years for adults, 8 years for children
- 8 years for adults, 10 years for children
- 10 years for adults, indefinitely for children
- Different retention periods for each type of treatment
The GDC advises that dental records should be retained for at least 8 years after the last treatment for adults and 10 years for children until the patient reaches 25 years of age or 8 years after the last treatment, whichever is longer.
The afferent limb to the upper epiglottis is via which nerve?
1) Superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
2) Inferior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
3) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
4) Lingual nerve (CN 5)
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9) is a mixed cranial nerve that carries both
sensory and motor fibers.
The superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10) innervates the mucous
membranes of the larynx below the level of the epiglottis, while the inferior
laryngeal branch innervates the muscles of the larynx, not the epiglottis. The
lingual nerve (CN 5) is primarily involved in the sensation of the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue and the mucosa of the floor of the mouth, not the
epiglottis.
The principal role of Vitamin E in the prevention of oxidative damage is to potentiate the action of superoxide dismutase
What is the first line of treatment for a patient with a lower lateral tooth extracted while the alveolus heals to cover the gap?
1) Conventional cantilever
2) Partial denture
3) Both
4) None
A partial denture is often the preferred option to replace missing teeth during the healing process, providing functional and aesthetic support.
Which antihypertensive agent is an ACE inhibitor?
1) Amlodipine
2) Losartan
3) Ramipril
4) Atenolol
Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor, while Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, Losartan is an ARB, and Atenolol is a beta-blocker.
What is the advantage of digital dental records over traditional paper records? 1) They are more environmentally friendly 2) They are easier to store and retrieve 3) They can be easily shared with other healthcare providers 4) They reduce the risk of loss or damage
Dental Records Answer: 2Digital dental records are stored electronically, which makes them easier to store, retrieve, and organize compared to paper records. This can save time for both dental staff and patients. Additionally, digital records can be more secure and are less likely to be lost or damaged than paper records.
What is the primary function of a wedge in oral surgery?
1) To remove teeth
2) To split teeth
3) To expand the tooth socket
4) To elevate the tooth
A wedge is used to create space in the tooth socket, facilitating tooth elevation and reducing the risk of fracture during extraction.
To minimize fractures of amalgam restorations in primary teeth, cavity
preparations should have
1) concave pulpal floors.
2) rounded axiopulpal line angles.
3) bevelled cavosurface margins.
4) lateral walls parallel to the external surface of the tooth.
Rounded line angles reduce stress concentrations in the amalgam, enhancing its
strength and resistance to fractures.
Which of the following is NOT an example of dental malpractice?
1) Failure to diagnose oral cancer
2) Intentionally causing harm to a patient
3) Unintentionally causing harm to a patient due to negligence
4) Providing treatment that does not meet the standard of care
Dental malpractice typically involves unintentional acts of
negligence or omission that result in harm to the patient. Intentionally causing
harm is a criminal act and not considered malpractice, although it can lead to
both civil and criminal consequences.
What is the best treatment for peg-shaped laterals?
1) Composite filling
2) Hybrid composite or laminate veneer
3) Dental crown
4) Orthodontic treatment
A laminate veneer or hybrid composite is often the best aesthetic solution for peg-shaped laterals, improving their appearance.
An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of which type of muscle? 1. Cardiac only 2. Cardiac and smooth 3. Skeletal and smooth 4. Skeletal and cardiac
Physiology Answer: 2An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of Cardiac and smooth muscles
Which one of the following is the initial treatment for internal resorption?
1) Pulpectomy.
2) Pulpotomy.
3) Pulp capping.
4) Apicoectomy.
The initial treatment for internal resorption is typically a pulpectomy, which involves the complete removal of the pulp tissue. This procedure is necessary to halt the resorptive process and to allow for the potential healing of the tooth. A pulpotomy may be considered in some cases, but a pulpectomy is more definitive for internal resorption.
For a pigmented fissure, what is the best way to diagnose caries?
1) Visual examination
2) Radiographic examination
3) Investigate the area with a round bur
4) Transillumination
Investigating the area with a round bur allows for direct assessment of the fissure and any underlying carious lesions.
All are non-verbal characteristics of aggressive behavior except:
1) Staring the person out.
2) Leaning forward or over.
3) Scowling when angry.
4) Sexual or racist remarks.
The given answer, "Sexual or racist remarks," is the only option that does not pertain to non-verbal characteristics of aggressive behavior. Staring the person out, leaning forward or over, and scowling when angry are all non-verbal cues that can indicate aggression. However, making sexual or racist remarks involves verbal communication rather than non-verbal cues.
What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dyskeratosis
Acantholysis is the key histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of vesicles and ulcers in the oral mucosa.
Losartan is commonly preferred over ACE inhibitors in patients who experience:
1) Dry mouth
2) Cough
3) Hyperkalemia
4) Bradycardia
Patients who develop a cough with ACE inhibitors may be switched to an ARB like Losartan, which does not cause this side effect.
Technique of anesthesia in which local anesthetic solution is injected into the vein is?
1) Epidural anesthesia
2) Intra venous regional anesthesia
3) Nerve block
4) Infiltration anesthesia
Intra venous regional anesthesia is the technique of anesthesia in which a local anesthetic solution is injected into the vein.
Glucose can be synthesised from Glyerol, Acetoacetate, Lactic acid
Which of the following is a characteristic of affected dentin?
1) Bacteria-loaded and mushy
2) Requires complete removal
3) Completely cavitated
4) Dry and leathery
Affected dentin is dry and leathery, not invaded by bacteria, and does not need to be removed during restoration.
False statement regarding phenytoin is?
1) It is a teratogenic drug
2) Highly protein bound
3) Induces insulin secretion
4) Follows saturation kinetics
Phenytoin inhibits insulin secretion and causes hyperglycemia.
All of following are effects of being unassertive, except:
1) Having low self-esteem.
2) Becoming aggressive.
3) Having a lack of purpose.
4) Developing social anxiety.
Being unassertive can lead to various negative effects, such as having low self-esteem, developing social anxiety, and having a lack of purpose. However, becoming aggressive is not typically associated with being unassertive. In fact, individuals who are unassertive may tend to avoid confrontation and conflict, which is the opposite of aggression.
In classifying molar relation in patient with premature loss of primary molar, additional relation to be noted is
1) Incisor relation
2) Canine relation
3) Midline relation
4) Premolar relation
Orthodontics Answer: 2
SOLUTION
The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of a parotid mass may be accompanying:
1) Lymphadenopathy
2) Nodular consistency
3) Facial paralysis
4) Slow progressive enlargement
ADC Test Answer: 3
Facial paralysis can indicate a serious underlying condition, such as a tumor affecting the facial nerve, making it a significant finding in parotid mass evaluation.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is considered a cardio-stable anaesthetic.
What artery provides nourishment to the TMJ?
1) Superficial temporal artery
2) Maxillary artery
3) Facial artery
4) Inferior alveolar artery
The superficial temporal artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, provides blood supply to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
What does the principle of non-maleficence require dentists to do?
1) Provide only beneficial treatment
2) Do no harm to the patient
3) Ensure the patient's financial well-being
4) Advocate for social justice in healthcare
Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that obliges dentists to refrain from causing harm to patients, both intentionally and unintentionally. This includes avoiding actions that could lead to unnecessary pain, injury, or suffering.
The mucosa of the hard palate is?
1) Non-keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
2) Non-keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posteromedially
3) Keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
4) Keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally
The correct answer is "keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally." The hard palate is the bony structure that forms the roof of the mouth.
The basic principle of Orthodontic spot welder lies on the concept of :-
1 Heat technique
2) Quenching
3) Diodelasers
4) Electrode Technique
SOLUTION The type of welding used to join Orthodontic components is called Spot welding.
1. Transmit current to the metals to be joined so as to cause a rapid increase in temperature.
2. The electrodes help in conducting the heat produced away from the area so as to preserve the properties of stainless steel around the weld spot.
3. The electrode also help in holding together the two metals to be joined.
4. The electrodes are designed to apply pressure on the metals being joined. As soon as the temperature increases, the pressure exerted by the electrodes helps in squeezing metal into each other.
After crown placement, when should a follow-up radiograph be taken?
1) Within 1 month
2) After 6 months
3) Annually
4) Every 2 years
Annual follow-up radiographs are necessary to monitor the health of the crown and surrounding structures.
In which stages of tooth development does the enamel organ form?
1) Bud stage
2) Cap stage
3) Bell stage
4) All of the above
The enamel organ develops through different stages of tooth development, including the bud, cap, and bell stages, contributing to tooth enamel formation.
The auriculotemporal nerve carries some fibers which are . 1. motor to masseter muscle 2. secretory to parotid gland 3. afferent from the carotid body 4. sensory to lining of tympanic cavity
Anatomy Answer: 4The auriculotemporal nerve carries some fibers which are sensory to lining of tympanic cavity
What is the typical duration of pH recovery in the oral cavity after
exposure to sugars or acids?
1) 10 minutes
2) 30 minutes
3) 1 hour
4) 24 hours
Saliva's natural buffering capacity typically allows for pH recovery in the oral cavity within 30 minutes after exposure to acids or sugars. However, this can vary based on individual factors and the presence of protective agents like fluoride.
Which of the following is NOT a component of personal protective equipment
(PPE) for dental healthcare workers?
1) Masks
2) Gloves
3) Gowns
4) Eye protection
PPE includes masks,
gloves, and gowns, which are essential to protect against the transmission of
infections. However, eye protection such as goggles or face shields is also a
critical component to prevent the spread of pathogens through splashes or
aerosols.
Following a simple extraction of tooth 47, hemostasis was achieved Forty eight hours later, there is renewed
bleeding from the extraction site. Firm pressure fails to achieve hemostasis.
The most appropriate management is to
1) give local anesthetic, pack and suture.
2) apply firm pressure and ice for 10 minutes.
3) obtain an international normalized ratio (INR) and a complete blood count
4) give local anesthetic and electrocauterize the socket.
Postoperative bleeding may indicate a coagulopathy or systemic issue requiring investigation.
During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment material will undergo an additional expansion if it occurs:
1) Under water.
2) Under vacuum.
3) In a cold environment.
4) In a dry environment.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment
material will undergo an additional expansion if
it occurs:
What is least important for the success of a post?
1) Diameter
2) Material
3) Luting agent
4) Length
While the luting agent is important, the diameter, material, and length of the post are more critical factors influencing the success of the post in retaining the restoration.
Remineralized enamel appears:
1) Smooth and shiny
2) Dark, hard, and opaque
3) Soft and chalky
4) Rough and porous
When enamel is remineralized, it can take on a darker, more opaque appearance due to the incorporation of minerals such as calcium and phosphate. While the newly formed mineral deposits can restore some of the tooth's strength and resistance to decay, they do not replicate the original enamel's structure, resulting in a visual change. The appearance of the enamel can vary depending on the extent of the remineralization process and may not always be as smooth and shiny as unaltered enamel.
Guiding planes on abutment teeth for a removable partial denture should be
prepared before the occlusal rests are prepared in order to
1) avoid post-insertion adjustment.
2) facilitate surveying of the cast.
3) improve the retention of the direct retainer assembly.
4) finalize the location of the occlusal rest.
Guiding planes are critical for establishing the path of insertion for a
removable partial denture (RPD).
If guiding planes are not prepared first, occlusal rests may be positioned
inappropriately, leading to misalignment.
Preparing guiding planes first ensures that all components of the RPD fit
properly and function as intended
What is the primary purpose of maintaining accurate and complete dental records?
1) To comply with legal requirements
2) To facilitate effective communication among dental professionals
3) To ensure proper patient care and treatment planning
4) All of the above
Accurate and complete dental records serve multiple purposes, including legal documentation, communication among dental professionals, patient care and treatment planning, and insurance reimbursement. They are essential for continuity of care, patient safety, and practice management.
Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except:
1) Head injury
2) Asthma
3) Hypothyroidism
4) Diabetes
Morphine is contraindicated in head injury for the following reasons: Causes carbondioxide retention – this in turn increases intracranial tension
Therapeutic doses can cause respiratory depression in head injury patients Vomiting, miosis and altered mentation caused by morphine can interfere with assessment of neurological status
Morphine should be avoided in those with bronchial asthma as it can precipitate an attack of asthma.
What happens to the pH of the mouth after exposure to cariogenic foods?
1) It increases
2) It decreases
3) It remains the same
4) It fluctuates
Cariogenic bacteria ferment sugar, producing lactic acid that lowers the pH of the mouth, leading to demineralization of tooth structure.
Iodine is a characteristic component of 1. Cysteine 2. Tyrosine 3. Thyroxine 4. Thiamin
Biochemistry Answer: 3odine is a characteristic component of Thyroxine
Which of the following should NOT be included in a dental record?
1) Patient's medical history
2) Treatment plan
3) Financial information
4) Clinical examination notes
Financial information, such as insurance claims and payment vouchers, should not be included in the clinical dental record.
What is the typical presentation of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.
Non-selective beta-blockers can lead to excessive blood pressure changes when used with adrenalin.
Which of the following is the best practice for communicating with an anxious patient?
1) Speak in technical jargon
2) Use a calm, reassuring tone and simple language
3) Avoid eye contact to reduce pressure
4) Give a detailed explanation of all possible complications
Clear, simple language delivered in a calming tone can help reduce anxiety and build the patient's trust.
How is acetylcholine released?
1) Diffusion
2) Exocytosis
3) Active transport
4) Osmosis
Acetylcholine is released from nerve terminals into the synaptic cleft via exocytosis, a process where vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
Fusion Temperature of Impression Compound should occur: 1. Before mouth temperature 2.. At skin temperature 3. Ahove mouth temperature 4. At room temperature
Dental Material Answer: 3Fusion Temperature of Impression Compound should occur above mouth temperature
What type of protective eyewear is recommended for dental personnel to reduce the risk of eye exposure to splashes of blood and body fluids?
1) Prescription safety glasses
2) Full-face shields
3) Goggles with side shields
4) Regular eyeglasses
Goggles with side shields provide the best protection against splashes and sprays of blood and body fluids, as they cover the eyes, nose, and cheeks completely.
What is the primary factor contributing to the increased prevalence of
edentulism in older adults?
1) Decreased salivary flow
4) Reduced bone density
3) Systemic diseases and their treatment
4) Dental anxiety
Systemic diseases such as diabetes and cardiovascular diseases,
along with their treatments, can impact oral health and increase the risk of
tooth loss.
What do pulp tester readings signify?
1) Exaggerated response indicates irreversible pulpitis
2) No response indicates reversible pulpitis
3) Exaggerated response indicates reversible pulpitis
4) No response indicates healthy pulp
An exaggerated response to pulp testing typically indicates reversible pulpitis, while no response suggests irreversible pulpitis.
When cavitated carious lesions are present there is
1) exposure of the dentin protein matrix.
2) demineralization by matrix metalloproteinases.
3) bacterial protease inhibition.
4) a denatured inorganic phase.
Matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) are enzymes activated in acidic environments,
which degrade dentin matrix proteins, exacerbating carious lesions.
Inhibition of these enzymes can reduce the progression of dental caries.
What is more likely to happen to an interproximal composite filling rather than amalgam?
1) Fracture
2) Polymerization shrinkage
3) Marginal leakage
4) Discoloration
Composite materials are more prone to polymerization shrinkage, which can lead to gaps and sensitivity compared to amalgam.
What is the role of lactoferrin in the prevention of dental caries?
1) It produces fluoride
2) It binds to iron, inhibiting bacterial enzymes
3) It forms a protective layer on the tooth surface
4) It produces bicarbonate
Lactoferrin is a protein in saliva that binds to iron, making it unavailable for bacterial enzymes that require iron to function, thus inhibiting their growth and acid production.
Jugular venous pressure is best described as:
1) Pulse pressure
2) 10 mmHg more than ventricular pressure
3) 10 mmHg less than ventricular pressure
4) 20 mmHg more than ventricular pressure
Jugular venous pressure reflects the pressure within the right atrium and is generally about 10 mmHg less than the pressure in the ventricles.
What are fibrin degradation products (FDPs) indicative of in the context of DIC?
1) Normal coagulation
2) Active fibrinolysis
3) Increased platelets
4) Stable hemostasis
Elevated levels of fibrin degradation products suggest that fibrinolysis is happening in response to excessive clotting activity typical of DIC.
Why is it important to conduct a medication review for geriatric patients
before dental treatment?
1) To identify affordable treatment options
2) To assess for drug interactions
3) To increase the number of visits
4) To speed up the treatment process
A medication review is essential to identify potential drug
interactions that could affect treatment outcomes and management strategies.
While combining NaOCH and H2O2 as irrigants
1) H2O2 should be used last
2) NaOCH should be used last
3) First irrigation should be done by normal saline
4) NaOCH and H2O2 should never be used simultaneously
Because residual H2O2 might react with debris and produce gas that can cause continuous pain.
What is the significance of erosive lichen planus?
1) High malignant potential
2) Some malignant potential
3) No malignant potential
4) Always requires surgical intervention
ADC Test Answer: 2
Erosive lichen planus can carry an increased risk for malignant transformation, but this potential varies among individuals.
Bitewing radiography is the main special test used to help in the diagnosis of proximal caries. What is a reasonable summary of the diagnostic accuracy of bitewing radiography for proximal caries diagnosis?
1) Moderate sensitivity and low specificity
2) Moderate sensitivity and moderate specificity
3) High sensitivity and high specificity
4) High sensitivity and moderate specificity
Bitewing radiography is known for its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting proximal caries, making it a valuable diagnostic tool.
The most appropriate gingival contour of a fixed partial denture connector is
1) concave.
2) convex.
3) flat.
4) none
A convex contour ensures proper hygiene by reducing plaque accumulation and
facilitates better gingival health.
Concave contours can trap debris and promote inflammation.
Lignocaine with adrenaline is contra-indicated for ring block of:
1) Penis
2) Toes
3) Pinna
4) All of the above
Xylocaine with adrenaline is contraindicated in ring block of finger, toes, penis, pinna (because these structures have end arteries) and Beta block (intravenous regional anaesthesia).
Which of the following medications is known to potentially cause a lichenoid reaction?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Beta blockers
3) Paracetamol
4) Antibiotics
Beta blockers and certain other medications, including NSAIDs and antimalarials, can cause lichenoid drug reactions, characterized by oral lesions resembling lichen planus.
What is the role of sIgA in the protection against dental caries?
1) It directly neutralizes bacterial acids.
2) It promotes the growth of beneficial bacteria in the oral cavity.
3) It binds to bacteria and prevents them from adhering to tooth surfaces.
4) It provides structural support to tooth enamel.
Secretory immunoglobulin A (sIg1) is a salivary antibody that can bind to cariogenic bacteria, limiting their ability to colonize and produce acids on the tooth surface.
What is the purpose of using a rubber dam during dental procedures?
1) To reduce the spread of infection
2) To improve patient comfort
3) To increase the visibility of the operative site
4) To reduce the risk of aspiration and ingestion of materials
While a rubber dam can also improve patient comfort and increase visibility of the operative site, its primary purpose is to isolate the operative site from the patient's oral fluids, thereby reducing the spread of infection between the patient and the dental team and protecting the patient's airway from aspiration.
What are effective strategies to decrease polymerization shrinkage of a composite?
1. Incremental placing of composite using techniques like herringbone and lateral filling methods.
Utilizing incremental builds reduces the stress of polymerization shrinkage by minimizing wall-to-wall effects.
Instrument which has a 4 digit formulae;
1) angle former
2) hoe
3) hatchet
4) spoon excavator
Since the cutting edge of the angle former is not at a right angle to the blade axis[its usually 80-85deg for angle former
What is the most effective way to manage dental anxiety in patients?
1) Sedation dentistry
2) Distraction techniques
3) Open communication
4) All of the above
Managing dental anxiety can be effectively achieved through a combination of sedation dentistry, distraction techniques, and open communication between the dentist and the patient to address concerns and fears.
Thiamine is useful in:
1) Collagen synthesis
2) Clotting factor production
3) Epithelial integrity
4) Cellular energy production
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) is a vital coenzyme in the metabolism of carbohydrates, playing a crucial role in the production of energy.
What is the role of dental records in forensic dentistry?
- To establish the identity of a deceased person
- To determine the cause of death
- To evaluate the dental health of the general population
- To monitor dental insurance fraud
Antemortem records can be used by forensic odontologists to help identify individuals in the event of death.
For which of the following is a written consent form NOT typically required?
1) Routine dental fillings
2) Dental radiographs
3) Surgical extraction of a tooth
4) Dental photography for educational purposes
Although the use of radiographs involves some risk, they are
considered part of the diagnostic process and do not typically require written
consent unless the patient specifically refuses them.
What is the main goal of "tell-tale" signs in behavior management?
1) To distract the patient from the procedure
2) To inform the patient of the upcoming sensation
3) To communicate with the patient non-verbally
4) To give the patient a sense of control over the situation
Tell-tale signs are used to prepare the patient for the sensations they will feel during the procedure, which can help reduce anxiety.
Diagnosis of Congenitally Missing Mandibular Second Premolar
What is the earliest age to confirm the diagnosis of a congenitally missing mandibular second premolar?
1) 1 year.
2) 3 years.
3) 5 years.
4) 7 years.
Pediatric Dentistry Answer: 4At around 7 years of age, most permanent teeth in the mandible begin to erupt. Radiographic evaluation at this stage confirms the absence of a tooth germ for the second premolar.
At the end of a balanced anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which of the below given is the most probable relaxant the patient received?
1) Pancuronium
2) Gallamine
3) Atracurium
4) Vecuronium
The patient must have received Atracurium, which is consistent with the description that he received a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant and recovered spontaneously from its effect without any reversal. Atracurium refers to a short-acting muscle relaxant. Non-enzymatic degradation (Hofmann elimination) inactivates it spontaneously in addition to that by cholinesterase. Therefore, reversal is usually not required when it is used.
Nitinol has the disadvantage of which of the following?
1) It cannot be formed into desired shapes
2) It lacks elastic properties
3) Its strength is not suited for orthodontic purposes
4) It lacks stiffness
Nitinol is a metal alloy – or mixture – of nickel and titanium.
Bone assessment of abutment teeth:
1) Horizontal bone loss is more important.
2) Vertical bone loss is more important.
3) Equally important.
4) Not important.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Both horizontal and vertical bone loss are important factors in assessing the health of abutment teeth, as they can influence the stability and longevity of prosthetic restorations.
What is the primary purpose of a dental unit waterline treatment? 1) To improve the taste of the water 2) To prevent biofilm formation and contamination 3) To enhance the aesthetic appearance of the dental unit 4) To reduce the need for sterilization
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Regular treatment of dental unit waterlines is essential to prevent the growth of biofilms and ensure that the water used in procedures is safe and free from pathogens.
What substance is primarily responsible for the re-mineralization process in teeth?
1) Fluoride
2) Calcium
3) Phosphate
4) All of the above
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together to enhance the re-mineralization process in enamel, helping to repair demineralized areas.
Which of the following is a common oral manifestation of diabetes
mellitus?
1) Oral lichen planus
4) Gingival overgrowth
3) Geographic tongue
4) Oral candidiasis
Diabetes can lead to a compromised immune system and increased
susceptibility to infections, making oral candidiasis a common manifestation.
Which of the following are anti-fungal drugs?
1) Cloxacillin
2) Aciclovir
3) Chlorhexidine
4) Nystatin
Miconazole is an imidazole anti-fungal drug, Nystatin is a polyene anti-fungal drug and itraconazole is a triazole anti-fungal.
Aciclovir is an anti-viral drug and chlorhexidine is an antiseptic.cloxacillin is penicillin derivative.
Which of the following is a non-preferable characteristic for an abutment
tooth root shape?
1) Broad and divergent roots
2) Round and fused roots
3) Single and conical roots
4) All of the above
While not explicitly mentioned as non-preferable, round and fused roots are not listed among the preferred characteristics for abutment teeth. Broad and divergent roots are considered desirable.
Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon an adequate dietary supply of 1 Vitamin A 2 Vitamin E 3 Vitamin K 4 None of the above
Biochemistry Answer: 3Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon Vitamin K intake
Which bacteria is primarily associated with enamel caries?
1) Lactobacillus
2) Actinomyces
3) Streptococcus mutans
4) Porphyromonas gingivalis
S. mutans is a major contributor to enamel caries due to its acidogenic and aciduric properties.
Which of the following is a common sign of periodontal disease?
1) Tooth mobility
2) Bleeding gums
3) Bad breath
4) All of the above
Signs of periodontal disease include tooth mobility, bleeding gums, and bad breath, indicating inflammation and infection.
The pain after the application of force after activation during fixed mechanotherapy is likely to disappear within how much time ?
1) 24 hours
2) 2 to 4 days
3) 4 to 8 days
4) 10 days
SOLUTION If heavy pressure is applied to a tooth, pain develops almost immediately as the PDL is literally crushed. If appropriate orthodontic force is applied, the patient feels little or nothing immediately.
There is no excuse for using force levels for orthodontic tooth movement that produce immediate pain of this type.
The pain typically lasts for 2 to 4 days, and then disappears until the orthodontic appliance is reactivated. At that point, a similar cycle may recur, but for almost all patients, the pain associated with the initial activation of the appliance is the most severe.
Boy with sickle cell trait. what mode of anaesthesia will you avoid in him?
1) IVRA (intravenous regional anesthesia)
2) supraclavicular brachial plexus block
3) brachial plexus block infraclavicular approach
4) brachial plexus block axillary approach (humeral) approach.
Local Anesthesia Answer: 1
Which of the following is a key step in preparing a tooth for a stainless steel crown?
1) Reducing the occlusal surface.
2) Placing a rubber dam.
3) Applying a sealant.
4) Using a diamond bur to prepare the crown.
Before placing a stainless steel crown, the occlusal surface needs to be reduced to ensure proper fit and prevent interference with opposing teeth.
Which one of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility?
1) Glycopyrrolate.
2) Atropine.
3) Neostigmine.
4) Fentanyl.
Synthetic opioids, sharing properties of opium and morphine, include meperidine, propoxyphene, diphenoxylate, fentanyl, buprenorphine, methadone, and pentazocine.
Fentanyl (80 to 100 times more powerful than morphine) is especially dangerous.
Atropine blocks the muscarinic receptors. Atropine decreases gastrointestinal tract motility and secretion and causes constipation.
Although various derivatives and congeners of atropine (such as propantheline, isopropamide, and glycopyrrolate) have been advocated in patients with peptic ulcer or with diarrheal syndromes
Neostigmine is Cholinesterase inhibitors that enhance the effects of parasympathetic stimulation and leads to reversal of intoxication by agents with a anticholinergic action
What is the primary function of a dental core?
1) Aesthetic enhancement
2) Support for a crown
3) Tooth whitening
4) Root canal treatment
A dental core provides support for a crown, especially when there is significant tooth structure loss.
At which angle should the external surface of proximal cavity walls in a Class II preparation for amalgam be finished?
1) An acute angle
2) An obtuse angle
3) A right angle
4) An angle of 45°
An obtuse angle is preferred for amalgam preparations to enhance the retention and resistance form of the restoration.
What does "informed refusal" refer to in the context of medical and dental
care?
1) When a patient refuses to sign an informed consent form
2) When a patient refuses to proceed with a recommended treatment after being
informed of its benefits and risks
3) When a patient refuses to provide personal health information
4) When a patient refuses to pay for the treatment
When a patient refuses to proceed with a recommended
treatment after being informed of its benefits and risks
Explanation: Informed refusal occurs when a patient has the capacity to make a
decision and has been provided with all necessary information but chooses not to
undergo the treatment.
What is the general guideline for discussing risks with patients?
1) Only discuss risks that are common and severe
2) Discuss all possible risks, no matter how rare
3) Only discuss risks that patients inquire about
4) It is not necessary to discuss risks if the treatment is routine
Healthcare providers should inform patients about common and severe
risks that have a reasonable chance of occurring, allowing them to make an
informed decision.
A non-synovial joint with dense connective tissue between two bony surfaces is called?
1) Synchondrosis
2) Syndesmosis
3) Symphysis
4) Suture
Sutures are fibrous joints in the skull that are immovable and connected by dense connective tissue, whereas syndesmoses can allow slight movement.
What is the average number of 15-year-olds who have lost 6-7 teeth?
1) 1.1
2) 3.1
3) 4.7
4) 5.5
Current statistics indicate that approximately 3.1% of 15-year-olds have lost 6-7 teeth due to caries or other dental issues.
What are dental records primarily used for?
1) For diagnosing dental problems
2) For treatment planning and patient management
3) For identification in forensic cases
4) All of the above
Dental records serve multiple purposes in dentistry. They are used for diagnosing dental problems based on past treatments and conditions. They are also essential for treatment planning, as they document a patient's dental and medical history, which helps dentists determine the best course of action for their care. Additionally, dental records can be used to identify individuals in forensic cases, particularly when other methods of identification are not possible.
What is the primary feature of the double-blind method in clinical trials?
1) Both the patient and the researcher know the treatment being administered.
2) Only the patient knows the treatment being administered.
3) Neither the patient nor the researcher knows the treatment being administered.
4) The researcher knows the treatment, but the patient does not.
The double-blind method is designed to eliminate bias by ensuring that neither the participants nor the researchers know which treatment is being given, thus maintaining the integrity of the study.
To impart a hardening heat treatment to a dental gold alloy, the best method is to Reheat to 450°C and cool uniformly to 250°C over a period of 15 to 30 minutes
Local anaesthetic agent which has antimuscarinic action on heart muscle receptors is:
1) Procaine
2) Cocaine
3) Chloroprocaine
4) None of the above
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic (and thus antimuscarinic) local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
What is the most common type of dental crown used in posterior teeth?
1) All-ceramic crown
2) Porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
3) Resin crown
4) Gold crown
Porcelain-fused-to-metal crowns are commonly used for posterior teeth due to their strength and aesthetic appearance.
Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of:
1) Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.
2) Serotonergic receptors.
3) Dopaminergic receptors.
4) GABA receptors.
Anticholinergic side effect of antidepressant leads to dry mouth in the patients on these drugs. Dry mouth is due to the Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonism of these drugs.
Which immunoglobulin exists as both a monomer and a dimer?
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgE
4) IgA
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is unique because it can exist both in a monomeric form found in serum and as a dimer (secretory IgA) predominant in mucosal areas.
What is the primary component of saliva that helps in remineralization?
1) Lactoferrin
2) Calcium and phosphate ions
3) Urea
4) Glycoproteins
Saliva contains calcium and phosphate ions, which are essential for the remineralization of teeth.
Following drug interact with cefotaxime?
1) Digoxin
2) Paracetamol
3) Loop diuretics
4) Nifedipine
Nephrotoxicity of cephalosporins is accentuated by concurrent administration of loop diuretics.
In cases of suspected abuse or neglect, dental professionals should:
1) Keep detailed records of injuries and treatment
2) Ask leading questions to determine the cause of injuries
3) Diagnose the patient with abuse or neglect
4) Treat the injuries and ignore the potential causes
Dental professionals should maintain thorough records of the patient's injuries and treatment, which may be valuable in legal proceedings.
What are the cells in cementum that line its boundary with the periodontal ligament (PDL) with cytoplasmic processes directed towards cementum?
1) Cementoblasts
2) Osteoblasts
3) Fibroblasts
4) Odontoblasts
Cementoblasts are responsible for forming cementum and have processes that extend towards the PDL.
What is the predominant microorganism in deep dentinal caries?
1) Streptococcus mutans.
2) Lactobacillus species.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lactobacilli are typically the predominant bacteria found in deep dentinal caries due to their ability to produce high levels of acid in the absence of oxygen.
What is required to increase efficiency and reduce fatigue of universal curettes?
1) Increased handle diameter
2) Ergonomic design
3) Sharpness of the blade
4) Length of the blade
The efficiency and comfort in use of universal curettes can be greatly enhanced with an ergonomic design that minimizes strain on the hand and wrist during procedures.
What treatment is indicated for severe cases of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) Increased platelet count
2) Supportive care and treating underlying causes
3) Administration of antibiotics
4) Hormonal therapy
Management of severe cases of DIC involves supportive care and addressing the underlying condition that has triggered the coagulopathy.
What should be included in a patient's medical history in dental records?
1) Patient's favorite food
2) List of systemic diseases and medications
3) Patient's hobbies
4) Financial status
A thorough medical history should include relevant health information that can impact dental treatment.
You are interested in finding out what the risk indicators are for a rare form of oral cancer. What type of study would be the most appropriate for addressing this issue?
1) Cohort
2) Prevalence study
3) Clinical trial
4) Case-control study
A case-control study is ideal for investigating risk factors for rare diseases, as it compares individuals with the disease to those without.
Consent is needed from a patient to share information. Which of the following requires explicit consent?
1) To share information with an insurance company
2) To share information with other doctors in the practice
3) To share information with the therapist treating the patient
4) To share information with the patient's General Medical Practitioner (GMP)
Sharing patient information with an insurance company typically requires explicit consent due to the sensitive nature of the information and privacy regulations.
Contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy is all except:
1) Tumour involving pyriform sinus
2) Vocal cord fixidity
3) Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread
4) Post cricoid area expansion
Pre-epiglottic involvement is not a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy.
Which of the following is considered a red flag in a special needs patient's medical history?
1) Non-compliance with appointments
2) Family history of cavities
3) Previous dental trauma
4) Rarely visits the dentist
A history of non-compliance with dental appointments may indicate anxiety or other behavioral issues that need to be addressed for successful treatment.
What is the most suitable X-ray technique to diagnose interproximal caries in primary molars of a three-year-old child?
1) Bitewing
2) Periapical
3) Occlusal
4) Ceiling view
Bitewing X-rays are effective for detecting interproximal caries, especially in primary molars, due to their ability to capture the contact areas between teeth.
Can informed consent be obtained from a patient who is under the influence of
sedation?
1) Yes, as long as the patient can still communicate their wishes
2) No, sedation impairs the patient's ability to understand and make decisions
3) Yes, because the patient's consent was obtained before administration of
sedation
4) It depends on the type and level of sedation
Informed consent must be obtained when the patient is fully conscious and has the mental capacity to comprehend the information provide4) If sedation affects the patient's ability to make informed decisions, consent should be obtained before administration.
Which vitamin deficiency can lead to scurvy, affecting gingival tissues?
1) Vitamin A
2) Vitamin B12
3) Vitamin C
4) Vitamin D
Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakened collagen synthesis and can result in bleeding gums and other oral health issues.
What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics?
1) Decalcification of dentine
2) Cleaning debris from root canal
3) Achieving hemostasis
4) Enhancing bonding strength
ADC Test Answer: 1
EDTA is primarily used for its ability to decalcify dentin and facilitate the removal of the smear layer during root canal treatment.
What is the difference between a dental implant and a dental bridge?
1) A dental implant is a fixed restoration that replaces the root and crown of a tooth, while a bridge is a fixed restoration that uses adjacent teeth as supports.
2) A dental implant is a removable restoration, while a bridge is fixed.
3) A dental bridge is a single piece that replaces the root and crown, whereas an implant requires multiple components.
4) Both implants and bridges are used to replace single missing teeth only.
ADC Test Answer: 1
A dental implant is a titanium post that is surgically placed in the jawbone to mimic a tooth root and support a prosthetic crown.
Which of the following drugs have a narrow therapeutic index?
1) Lithium
2) Diazepam
3) Penicillin
4) Desipramine
Other drugs with narrow therapeutic index:
Digoxin Gentamicin Amphotericin B Levothyroxine Prazosin Theophylline Quinidine Warfarin Valproic acid
What is the role of the auditory tube?
1) To equalize pressure in the middle ear
2) To drain fluid from the inner ear
3) To transmit sound waves
4) To protect the ear from infection
The auditory tube (Eustachian tube) connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization and drainage of secretions.
In patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which laboratory finding is typically present?
1) Hypofibrinogenemia
2) High platelet count
3) Decreased D-dimer levels
4) Prolonged PT/APTT
In DIC, both prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) are usually prolonged due to extensive clotting factor consumption.
Highest analgesic effect is a feature of:
1) Ketamine
2) Thiopentone
3) Propofol
4) Etomidate
Ketamine is a very potent analgesic, providing maximum analgesia among all IV anaesthetics.
The main excitatory neuro transmitter in CNS is
1) Glycine
2) Acetyl choline
3) Aspartate
4) Glutamate
The chemical compound acetylcholine (ACh) is a neurotransmitter in both the peripheral nervous system (PNS)and central nervous system (CNS) in many organisms including humans.
Least alteration of cardiovascular status is seen with:
1) Enflurane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Halothane
Isoflurane has a greater margin of cardiovascular safety compared to other inhalational agents.
What is the typical microorganism found in localized aggressive periodontitis?
1) Porphyromonas gingivalis.
2) Fusobacterium nucleatum.
3) Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans.
4) Prevotella intermedia.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans is frequently associated with localized aggressive periodontitis, contributing to the rapid destruction of periodontal tissues.
What is the treatment for trismus secondary to infection?
1) Warm compresses and antibiotics
2) Surgical drainage and antibiotics
3) Corticosteroid injections and muscle relaxants
4) Physical therapy and pain medication
Infectious causes of trismus often require surgical intervention to drain the infection site, followed by antibiotic therapy.
Which antihypertensive agent is a direct renin inhibitor?
1) Aliskiren
2) Ramipril
3) Valsartan
4) Verapamil
Aliskiren directly inhibits renin, reducing the production of angiotensin I and lowering blood pressure.
Not a physical property of propofol:
1) Water based preparation
2) Colour of the solution is white
3) It contains egg lecithin
4) Used as 2% strength
Propofol is oil based preparation containing soybean oil, egg lecithin and glycerol. The colour is milky white and available as 1% and 2% strength.
A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotics for oral infection; this is an example of:
1) Type I allergic reaction
2) Nervous disorder
3) Side effect of the drug
4) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
ADC Test Answer: 3
Gastrointestinal upset is a common side effect of antibiotics, occurring due to their impact on gut flora and digestive processes.
What is the primary aim of infection control in dentistry?
1) To ensure patient comfort
2) To prevent the spread of infections
3) To maintain a clean and organized workplace
4) To reduce treatment costs
Infection control is a set of precautions taken to prevent the
spread of diseases during dental treatment. It is essential to ensure patient
safety and maintain a healthy environment for both patients and dental staff.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but
that it is still intact. Your instructions should be to
1) put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day.
2) place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately. .
3) put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately.
4) place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately.
Placing an avulsed tooth in milk is recommended because it helps preserve the vitality of the periodontal ligament cells. Milk has a similar osmolality to that of human cells, which can help keep the cells alive until the patient can receive professional dental care. Immediate treatment is crucial for the best chance of successful re-implantation.
What is the purpose of using a rubber dam during a stainless steel crown procedure?
1) To isolate the tooth.
2) To remove caries.
3) To reduce occlusal surface.
4) To mix cement.
A rubber dam is used to isolate the tooth during a stainless steel crown procedure.
Contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy is all except:
1) Tumour involving pyriform sinus
2) Vocal cord fixidity
3) Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread
4) Post cricoid area expansion
Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread is not a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy.
The working time for a polysulfide impression material can be safely and effectively increased by 1. greatly altering the base/accelerator ratio 2. doubling the mixing time 3. adding three drops of water to the base 4. cooling the mixing slab to a temperature above the dew point
Dental Material Answer: 4The working time for a polysulfide impression material can be safely and effectively increased by cooling the mixing slab to a temperature above the dew point
A medication that reduces the rate of aqueous humor formation in acute glaucoma
1) phenothiazines
2) amphotericin B
3) Isoniazid
4) carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Carbonic anhydrase is found in erythrocytes, kidney, gut, ciliary body, choroid plexus, and glial cells.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used primarily as probes for studying renal transport mechanisms and in the treatment of glaucoma
When used to treat glaucoma, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors diminish the transport of HCO3 - and Na+ by the ciliary process, which limits intraocular pressure.
This reduces the formation of aqueous humor by up to 50%, thereby reducing the intraocular pressure.
What is the primary concern during the third trimester of pregnancy?
1) Organogenesis of the fetus
2) The risk of preterm labor
3) Fetal movement
4) The development of the baby's teeth
The third trimester is marked by the secretion of large quantities of steroids into the blood, which can stimulate premature uterine contractions.
Which of the following is a sign of acute pulpitis?
1) Spontaneous pain
2) No pain when biting
3) Pain only on thermal stimulus
4) Continuous dull ache
Spontaneous pain is a characteristic sign of acute pulpitis, indicating that the pulp is inflamed and reacting to stimuli even in the absence of external triggers.
Agent of choice for day care surgery:
1) Propofol
2) Etomidate
3) Ketamine
4) Midazolam
Propofol is the agent of choice for day care surgery due to its early and smooth recovery, with an elimination half-life of 2-4 hours.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
Of the following, the most difficult impaction to extract is:
1) Mesioangular
2) Vertical
3) Distoangular
4) Horizontal
Distoangular impactions of mandibular molars are often considered the most challenging to extract due to their position and the amount of bone that must be removed to access the tooth. The angulation of the tooth can complicate the extraction process, requiring more extensive surgical intervention. Additionally, the removal of bone in this area can weaken the ramus of the mandible, increasing the risk of fracture during extraction.
For stage 2 hypertensive patients, periodic monitoring during dental procedures helps manage blood pressure fluctuations.
What is the term for the risks that must be discussed with a patient before
treatment?
1) Minor risks
2) Unlikely risks
3) Insignificant risks
4) Material risks
Material risks are those that are most relevant to the patient and should be disclosed prior to treatment.
The essential ingredient of dental inlay investment are :
1) Quartz, cristobalite
2) β hemihydrate
3) α hemihydrate
4) Ammonium phosphate
The essential ingredients of the dental inlay investment employed with the conventional gold casting alloys are a-hemihydrate of gypsum, quartz, or cristobalite, which are allotropic forms of silica.
Three types of expansion that are possible in an investment are 1. thermal expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and setting expansion 2. thermal expansion, casting expansion, and metal expansion 3. casting expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and thermal expansion 4. thermal expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and metal expansion
Dental Material Answer: 1Types of expansion that are possible in an investment are thermal expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and setting expansion
What is the name of the surgical instrument used for luxating a tooth during extraction?
1) Elevator
2) Forceps
3) Excavator
4) Chisel
Forceps are the primary instruments used for luxating (rocking) and removing teeth during extraction procedures.
What is the purpose of the amber line in Winter's classification?
1) It shows the depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest
2) It indicates the amount of bone covering the tooth
3) It shows the path of eruption
4) It identifies the position of the tooth in the jaw
The amber line is drawn from the crest of interdental bone between the 1st and 2nd molars and extends posteriorly, showing how much bone covers the impacted tooth.
What enzyme does Streptococcus mutans produce that plays a key role in
converting dietary sugars into extracellular polysaccharides, which contribute
to bacterial adherence and biofilm formation?
1) Amylase
2) Glucosyltransferase (GTF)
3) Fructosyltransferase
4) Sucrase
S. mutans produces glucosyltransferase, which converts dietary sugars, particularly sucrose, into extracellular polysaccharides like glucans and fructans that facilitate bacterial adherence to tooth structures and promote biofilm formation.
What is the critical pH for fluorapatite?
1) 5.5
2) 6.2
3) 4.5
4) 7.0
Fluorapatite has a critical pH of 4.5, below which demineralization occurs. Fluorapatite has a higher resistance to acid damage compared to hydroxyapatite, with a critical pH of 4.5 for demineralization.
What is the primary cause of syncope during dental procedures?
1) Anxiety and fear
2) Dehydration
3) Blood loss
4) Low blood sugar
The sight of blood and fear can cause a vasovagal response, leading to decreased peripheral resistance and blood pressure, resulting in cerebral anoxia and syncope.
When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification of dentin matrix then
1 Interglobular dentin is formed
2 Dead tracts are found in formed dentin
3 Irregular dentin results
4 None
Sometimes, mineralization of dentin begins in small globular areas that fail to coalesce into a homogenous mass.
These zones are known as globular dentin or interglobular spaces. Thus, demonstrating defect of mineralization and not of matrix formation, the dentinal tubules pass uninterruptedly through interglobular dentin.
What is the minimum platelet level at which dental extractions can be safely performed?
1) 50 x 109/L
2) 75 x 109/L
3) 100 x 109/L
4) 150 x 109/L
Surgical procedures can be performed if platelet levels are above 50 x 109/L.
What is the purpose of using a handpiece with a 330 bur during a pulpotomy procedure?
1) To remove caries.
2) To reduce occlusal surface.
3) To remove the roof of the pulp chamber.
4) To mix IRM.
A handpiece with a 330 bur is used to remove the roof of the pulp chamber during a pulpotomy procedure.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of meningococcal meningitis in patients allergic to penicillin?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Teicoplanin
3) Meropenem
4) Chloramphenicol
Pharmacology Answer: 4
Treatment of meningococcal meningitis: In case of penicillin resistance, third generation cephalosporins should be used ( Ceftriaxone / CefotaximeIn case of penicillin / cephalosporin allergy, Chloramphenicol is used
Drug of choice – Penicillin G
During the extraction of a lower impacted right molar, bone is removed:
1) To expose maximum dimension of the tooth
2) Up to CE junction
3) Up to furcation area
4) Up to half of roots
The primary goal of bone removal during the extraction of an impacted molar is to expose the maximum dimensions of the tooth, allowing for easier access and removal. Adequate bone removal is essential to visualize the tooth and its roots fully, facilitating a successful extraction. Techniques such as high-speed handpiece and bur or chisel and mallet may be employed, with continuous irrigation to minimize bone necrosis.
Glycolysis occurs in: 1. Cytoplasm 2. Mitochondrion 3. Both In cytoplasm and mitochondria 4. Only in presence of O2
Biochemistry Answer: 1Glycolysis occurs in Cytoplasm
Which immunoglobulin is present in periodontitis?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgE
IgG, especially IgG2, is commonly found in the gingival tissues of patients with periodontitis, indicating an immune response to bacterial infection. IgG plays a key role in protecting periodontal tissue by neutralizing toxins and aiding the elimination of pathogens through mechanisms like phagocytosis. Higher levels of immunoglobulins, particularly IgG, are associated with an increased immune response in inflamed gingival tissues. Secretory IgA (sIgA) is the main immunoglobulin in secretions and acts as the first line of defense, preventing microbial adherence to the oral mucosa. IgM can also be detected, particularly in inflamed states.
What should be done with consent forms in dental records?
1) They should be discarded after treatment
2) They should be signed and stored securely
3) They should be kept in a separate financial record
4) They do not need to be documented
Consent forms must be properly signed and retained as part of the patient's clinical record to ensure legal compliance.
Which organ has fenestrated capillaries?
1) Liver
2) Kidney
3) Pancreas
4) Lung
Fenestrated capillaries are characteristic of the pancreas, particularly in the islets of Langerhans, which facilitate the exchange of hormones into the bloodstream.
What is the role of SmartConsent technology in informed consent?
1) To
replace the need for consent
2) To standardize and communicate information effectively to patients
3) To eliminate the need for written consent
4) To provide legal protection for healthcare providers
SmartConsent aims to improve how information about risks and benefits is communicated to patients.
What is the maximum safe dose of lidocaine for a 70 kg patient?
1) 308 mg
2) 220 mg
3) 440 mg
4) 154 mg
The maximum dose of lidocaine is 4.4 mg/kg.
What is the recommended position for a pregnant patient during oral surgery to avoid pressure on the inferior vena cava?
1) Supine position
2) Semi-reclined position
3) Sitting position
4) Left lateral position
The patient should be placed in the left lateral position to reduce pressure on the inferior vena cava and ensure adequate venous return, preventing hypotension.
Which of the following is the most important factor in disease progression in smokers?
1) Smokers have drier mouths than non-smokers
2) Smokers have poorer oral hygiene than non-smokers
3) Nicotine will impair the chemotactic and phagocytic properties of PMNs
4) The gingival blood flow is reduced in smokers
Reduced gingival blood flow in smokers contributes significantly to the progression of periodontal disease and other oral health issues.
What protein has I, T, and C subcomponents in muscle fibers?
1) Myosin
2) Actin
3) Troponin
4) Tropomyosin
Troponin is a regulatory protein complex in muscle fibers that includes I (inhibitory), T (tropomyosin-binding), and C (calcium-binding) subcomponents.
Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?
1) Heavy and continuous
2) Heavy and intermittent
3) Light and continuous
4) Light and intermittent
SOLUTION Light and continuous
Use of continuous light force is recommended to be applied for adult group of patient rather than intermittent force as applied by removable appliance.
with normal biologic functioning. In adult due to heavy force teeth may devitalize because the opening into the tooth (apical foramen) is smaller and blood vessels can be easily disrupted.
What is the primary concern when integrating gerodontology into general
dental practice?
1) Lack of specialized training
2) Inadequate chairside manner
3) Difficulty with insurance reimbursements
4) Patient compliance with treatment
Hardness number which does not depend on the ductility of metal
1) KHN
2) VHN
3) RHN
4) BHN
Knoop hardness test - Diamond of rhombic shape (The long axis of indentotion is measured) The Knoop hardness test is used to obtain the values for both exceedingly hard and soft materials.
Vickers (Diamond pyramid test) - Diamond of square base shape (The diagonal length of the indentation is measured)
Rockwell - Diamond of conical shape (The penetration depth is measured)
Brinells - Steel ball (The diameter of indentation is measured)
hardness value is independent of the ductility of the material.
Ipratropium bromide is useful in bronchial asthma because of
1) Anticholinergic effect
2) Vasodilator properties
3) Antiallergic action
4) Stabilization of mast cells
Ipratropium (as ipratropium bromide, trade name Atrovent) is an anticholinergic drug administered by inhalation for the treatment of obstructive lung diseases. It acts by blocking muscarinic receptors in the lung, inhibiting bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion. It is a non-selective muscarinic antagonist, and does not diffuse into the blood, which prevents systemic side effects.
Ipratropium is a derivative of atropine[1] but is a quaternary amine and therefore does not cross the blood-brain barrier