Dentist Abroad
A dental professional is unsure whether a
situation constitutes abuse or neglect. What is the best course of action?
1) Wait for more evidence before taking action
2) Consult with a supervisor or legal counsel
3) Discuss the situation with the patient’s family
4) Document the situation and do nothing
Explanation: When in doubt, it is important to seek
guidance from a supervisor or legal counsel to ensure that the appropriate
steps are taken in accordance with the law.
Which factor is considered the most potent vasoconstrictor?
A. Adrenaline
B. Noradrenaline
C. Serotonin
D. Histamine
Adrenaline (epinephrine) is the most potent vasoconstrictor and is frequently used in medical emergencies for its ability to rapidly constrict blood vessels and enhance blood pressure.
Lidocaine (Xylocaine) effect on ventilation response to hypoxia?
1) Enhanced response
2) Depressed response
3) No effect
4) Enhanced response and no effect
Lidocaine, also known as Xylocaine, has been found to have a depressant effect on the ventilation response to hypoxia.
What is the GDC's guideline regarding the use of abbreviations in dental records?
- Abbreviations should be avoided altogether
- Only standardized dental abbreviations should be used
- Abbreviations are acceptable as long as they are legible
- It is up to the dentist's discretion
The GDC advises that abbreviations should be kept to a minimum and only standardized abbreviations should be used to avoid misunderstandings or misinterpretations of the recorded information.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
What should be included in a patient's medical history in dental records?
1) Patient's favorite food
2) List of systemic diseases and medications
3) Patient's hobbies
4) Financial status
A thorough medical history should include relevant health information that can impact dental treatment.
What antibiotic is used to manage a superinfected herpetic lip lesion?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Metronidazole
3) Cefuroxime
4) Amoxicillin
Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria and is often used for superinfected lesions, including herpetic lesions.
Only pure hinge movementsof the mandible occur at
1) centric occlusion
2) centric relation
3) lateral exursion
4) terminal hinge position
The functional movements of the mandible are combinations of hinge and glide movements. Within vertical limits, the mandible may make a pure hinge movement without a simultaneous glide. The one relation of the condyle to the fossae in which this pure hinge movement is possible is called terminal hinge position
What is the role of SmartConsent technology in informed consent?
1) To
replace the need for consent
2) To standardize and communicate information effectively to patients
3) To eliminate the need for written consent
4) To provide legal protection for healthcare providers
SmartConsent aims to improve how information about risks and benefits is communicated to patients.
A patient expresses extreme anxiety about getting needles. What is the most appropriate response?
1) Tell them not to worry
2) Avoid discussing needles altogether
3) Explain the procedure and show the needle in a non-threatening way
4) Schedule their appointment without discussing their fears
Providing clear information and familiarizing the patient with the process can help reduce anxiety associated with needles.
Hyperemia of the pulp is
1) an acute inflammation with intermittent paroxysms of pain which may become
continuous.
2) an increased volume of blood within dilated vessels and increased blood flow.
3) a chronic situation whereby minute arterioles of pulpal tissue are engorged
for long periods creating temporary
episodes of pain.
4) a transient invasion of bacterial elements into the outer lying stroma of the
pulpal tissue.
Hyperemia refers to an increase in blood flow to the pulp, often due to inflammation or irritation. This condition can lead to symptoms such as pain and sensitivity.
Not true about Na+ K+ 2Cl- Co-transporter:
1) It is a glycoprotein
2) 12 membrane spanning domains
3) There are distinct isoforms for secretory and absorptive function
4) The secretory form is found exclusively in thick segment of ascending limb of loop of Henle
Pharmacology Answer: 4
What is the recommended action if a dental record contains an error?
1) Erase the error
2) Cross out the error with a single line and write the correction
3) Ignore the error
4) Rewrite the entire record
Errors should be corrected transparently to maintain the integrity of the record.
What happens when rests are not properly designed?
1) They could be aesthetically displeasing
2) They may not transfer occlusal stresses effectively
3) They could enhance retention
4) They become more comfortable
Poorly designed rests may fail to effectively transfer occlusal stresses, potentially compromising the stability of the RPD.
What is the primary purpose of informed consent in dentistry?
1) To protect the dentist from legal liability
2) To ensure the patient understands and voluntarily agrees to the proposed
treatment
3) To provide the patient with financial information about the treatment
4) To obtain the patient's signature for insurance purposes
Informed consent is a process where the dentist communicates with the patient about the diagnosis, the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment, alternative treatment options, and the patient's right to refuse or withdraw consent. The primary goal is to empower the patient to make an informed decision regarding their dental care.
A dentist is using a Sof-Lex disc on an upper molar and lacks finger support. What is most likely to occur?
1) Gingival trauma
2) Mucosal burn
3) Mucosal trauma
4) Trauma to adjacent tooth
5) Gingival laceration
Lack of finger support while using a Sof-Lex disc can lead to improper control, resulting in potential trauma to the gingiva.
Regarding hand washing, which of the following is true?
1) Alcohol is the only effective agent
2) Chlorhexidine gel is used for surgical hand washing
3) Povidone iodine is not effective
4) Hand washing is not necessary before procedures
Chlorhexidine gel is an effective antiseptic used in surgical hand washing, along with alcohol and povidone iodine.
What is more likely to happen to an interproximal composite filling rather than amalgam?
1) Fracture
2) Polymerization shrinkage
3) Marginal leakage
4) Discoloration
Composite materials are more prone to polymerization shrinkage, which can lead to gaps and sensitivity compared to amalgam.
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are useful in the management of ?
1) Acute myeloid leukemia
2) Small cell carcinoma of lung
3) Gastrointestinal stromal tumors
4) Neurofibromatosis
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in the treatment of: Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia ( philadelphia chromosome positive cases )
Head and neck malignancies
Non small cell carcinoma lung
Gastrointestinal stromal tumours
Hepatocellular cancer
Renal cell carcinoma
Pancreatic cancer
Colorectal cancer
Which of the following is NOT a consideration for endodontic treatment in
the elderly?
1) Diminished pulp vitality
2) Reduced healing capacity
3) Systemic health conditions
4) All of the above are considerations.
While systemic health conditions are a consideration, endodontic
treatment can still be successful in the elderly with careful management and
patient selection.
What is a key benefit of using electronic dental records (EDR) over traditional paper records?
1) Increased storage space
2) Improved access and easy retrieval
3) More paperwork
4) Higher costs
EDR systems enhance the ability to access and retrieve patient information quickly and efficiently compared to paper records.
For a patient with bulimia, what is the best treatment option?
1) Dental restoration
2) Dietary counseling
3) Referral to a psychologist
4) Material restoration
A multidisciplinary approach to bulimia involves addressing psychological factors; referral for psychiatric evaluation is crucial for effective management of this eating disorder.
What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet in a dental laboratory?
1) To provide a sterile work environment
2) To protect the technician from inhaling dust
3) To prevent cross-contamination
4) To store sterile materials
A biosafety cabinet provides a controlled environment with laminar
airflow to protect the technician and the materials from cross-contamination
during procedures involving infectious materials.
Which of the following is contraindicated in hypertensive patients for gingival retraction?
1) Plain retraction cord
2) Adrenalin-impregnated cord
3) Saline solution
4) None of the above
Adrenalin-impregnated cords can cause significant blood pressure spikes, which are risky in hypertensive patients.
All are non-verbal characteristics of aggressive behavior except:
1) Staring the person out.
2) Leaning forward or over.
3) Scowling when angry.
4) Sexual or racist remarks.
The given answer, "Sexual or racist remarks," is the only option that does not pertain to non-verbal characteristics of aggressive behavior. Staring the person out, leaning forward or over, and scowling when angry are all non-verbal cues that can indicate aggression. However, making sexual or racist remarks involves verbal communication rather than non-verbal cues.
What is the depth of topical anesthesia?
1) 1 mm
2) 2 mm
3) 3 mm
4) 4 mm
Topical anesthesia typically penetrates to a depth of about 2 mm, providing localized pain relief for procedures involving the mucosa.
Local anesthesia depends on:
1) Strength bond between drug and nerve.
2) Strength bond between drug and its intensity.
3) Bond between drug and time of removal from the body.
4) All of the above.
ADC Test Answer: 1
The effectiveness of local anesthesia is primarily determined by how well the anesthetic agent binds to nerve tissues.
What is the standard of care in dental records?
- The highest level of care possible
- The average care provided by dentists in the community
- The care mandated by the patient's insurance policy
- The care required by dental board regulations
The standard of care is based on what a reasonably prudent dentist would do under the same or similar circumstances, which is often reflected in the community average.
What is the first step in the standard precautions for infection control in
dental settings?
1) Hand hygiene
2) Use of personal protective equipment
3) Sterilization of instruments
4) Environmental cleaning and disinfection
Hand hygiene is the most important and basic step in infection
control. It involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based
hand sanitizer before and after patient contact to reduce the risk of
transmitting infections.
What is the primary function of the tensor tympani muscle?
1) To assist in swallowing
2) To dampen loud sounds
3) To facilitate hearing
4) To stabilize the jaw
The tensor tympani muscle helps protect the inner ear from loud sounds by tensing the tympanic membrane, reducing sound transmission.
The primary reason to replace missing anterior teeth with a bridge is:
1) Aesthetic considerations
2) Functional occlusion
3) Overbite correction
4) Tooth stability
ADC Test Answer: 1
Aesthetics play a crucial role in the choice to replace missing anterior teeth, as they impact patient confidence and facial appearance.
Which of the following is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent?
- Cyclopropane
- Barbiturates
- Propofol
- Etomidate
Cyclopropane is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent.
In orthodontic treatment, the forces applied should not exceed the ________________ in order to avoid injuries to the tissues.
1) Arterial blood pressure
2) Muscular forces of facial muscles
3) Masticatory retrusion
4) Capillary blood pressure
SOLUTION Optimum orthodontic force is one, which moves teeth most rapidly in the desired direction, with the least possible damage to tissue and with minimum patient discomfort. Oppenheim and Schwarz following extensive studies stated that the optimum force is equivalent to the capillary pulse pressure, which is 20-26 gm/sq.
From a clinical point of view, optimum orthodontic force has the following characteristics:
1) Products rapid tooth movement
2) Minimal patient discomfort
3) The lag phase of tooth movement is minimal
4) No marked mobility of the teeth being moved
From a histologic point of view the use of optimum orthodontic force has the following characteristics:
1) The vitality of the tooth and supporting periodontal ligament is maintained
2) Initiates maximum cellular response
3) Produces direct or frontal resorption
The proposed mechanism by which a calcium hydroxide preparation initiates
secondary dentin formation in direct
pulp cappings is by
1) releasing calcium ions.
2) stimulating differentiated ameloblasts to lay down dentin.
3) stimulating fibroblasts to elaborate nuclei of the first order.
4) stimulating undifferentiated cells of the tissue to differentiate into
odontoblasts.
Calcium hydroxide is commonly used in pulp capping procedures due to its ability to promote healing and dentin formation:
- Stimulating undifferentiated cells of the tissue to differentiate into odontoblasts: Calcium hydroxide encourages the differentiation of pulp cells into odontoblast-like cells, which then produce secondary dentin. This is a critical mechanism for pulp healing and dentin regeneration.
- Releasing calcium ions: While calcium ions are released, the primary action is the stimulation of cell differentiation.
- Stimulating ameloblasts: Ameloblasts are involved in enamel formation, not dentin, so this option is incorrect.
- Stimulating fibroblasts: This is not the primary mechanism for secondary dentin formation.
What is the recommended method for documenting entries in a dental record?
1) Pencil
2) Handwritten in ink or computer printed
3) Typed on a typewriter
4) Verbal communication only
Entries should be clear and permanent, which is best achieved through ink or printed documentation.
What is the primary purpose of taking dental impressions?
1) To diagnose dental conditions
2) To create a mold for restorations or orthodontic appliances
3) To monitor teeth movement over time
4) To educate patients about oral hygiene
Dental impressions are taken to create a precise mold of a patient's teeth and surrounding structures. These molds are then used by dental laboratories to fabricate restorations like crowns, bridges, dentures, and orthodontic appliances that fit accurately in the patient's mouth. While impressions can indirectly help in diagnosis, their primary purpose is for the creation of these appliances.
The characteristic translucency of the incisal portion of natural teeth, is achieved in porcelain restorations by the addition of 1.body porcelain 2: enamel porcelain 3. aluminous porcelain 4. opaque porcelain
Dental Material Answer: 2The characteristic translucency of the incisal portion of natural teeth, is achieved in porcelain restorations by the addition of enamel porcelain
Metronidazole is a treatment of choice for :
1) Salmonellosis
2) Ulcerative colitis
3) hookworm parasitic infection
4) Pseudomembranous colitis
metronidazole 250 mg po qid for 7 to 10 days is the treatment of choice. Oral vancomycin 125 mg qid is reserved for the most severe or resistant cases
The antimicrobials most widely regarded as optimal for the treatment of salmonellosis in adults is the group of fluoroquinolones.
A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is 1. Thiamine 2 Folic acid 3 Pyridoxine 4 Riboflavin
Biochemistry Answer: 3A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is Pyridoxine
What cement do you use to bond an alumina core ceramic crown?
1) Panavia
2) Resin modified glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate
4) Glass ionomer cement
Panavia is a resin cement specifically designed for bonding ceramic restorations, providing strong adhesion to alumina cores.
Informed consent is primarily based on which ethical principle?
1) Justice
2) Autonomy
3) Beneficence
4) Veracity
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Autonomy refers to the right of patients to make informed decisions about their own healthcare. Informed consent ensures that patients have the necessary information to exercise this right.
What is the role of color coding in dental records management?
1) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of records
2) To simplify the organization and retrieval of files
3) To indicate the financial status of patients
4) To differentiate between various dental procedures
Color coding can help in quickly identifying and organizing patient files, making retrieval more efficient.
What is the legal status of informed consent in an emergency situation?
1) It is not required
2) It is always required
3) It is required unless the patient is unconscious
4) It is required unless the treatment is lifesaving
In an emergency where immediate treatment is necessary to save a patient's life or prevent serious harm, informed consent is not required due to the urgent nature of the situation.
Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by
1) metal ions
2) hydroxyl bond
3) carboxyl bond
4) ionic bond
one ot the main adanhtges of GIC as a restoratie material was its ability to form chemical bonds with the tooth structure. Bonding in GIC primarily invokes chelation of carboxyl groups of the polyacids sith the calcium in the apatite of enamel and dentin.
What’s the percentage of individuals over 25 years old with periodontitis in the UK?
1) 30%
2) 50%
3) 64%
4) 75%
Approximately 64% of individuals over 25 years old in the UK are affected by periodontitis, highlighting the prevalence of periodontal disease.
Which soft palate muscle is not affected by a laceration of the mucosa
1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar?
1) Tensor veli palatini
2) Palatoglossus
3) Palatopharyngeus
4) Levator veli palatini
A laceration of the mucosa 1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar is unlikely to damage the levator veli palatini as it is located above the palatoglossal fold.
Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except?
1) Isoniazid
2) Cyclosporine
3) Levodopa
4) Hydralazine
Pyridoxine – drug interactions : INH – induces a pyridoxine deficiency state
Levodopa – pyridoxine promotes peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine – thus it decreases therapeutic action of levodopa in the brain
Oral contraceptive pills – decrease pyridoxine levels in some females
Hydralazine – impairment of pyridoxine utilisation
4-deoxy pyridoxine – pyridoxine antagonist
What does the term "material risks" refer to in the context of informed
consent?
1) The cost of the treatment
2) The most common risks associated with the procedure
3) The most serious risks associated with the procedure
4) The risks that the patient is most concerned about
Material risks are significant risks that the patient should be
informed about, as they are most relevant to the decision-making process.
What condition is likely if a patient's hands feel warm and moist?
1) Hyperthyroidism
2) Anxiety
3) Congestive heart failure
4) Hypothermia
Warm and moist hands can be indicative of hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolism and sweat production, distinguishing it from other conditions.
Informed consent for children typically requires consent from:
1) The child
only
2) The healthcare provider
3) The child's guardian or parent
4) The child's teacher
The child's guardian or parent
Explanation: Parents or guardians are responsible for providing
consent for medical treatment for minors.
What is Sunday bite related to?
1) Angle’s class I with anterior open bite
2) Angle’s class I with anterior deep bite and posterior cross bite (unilateral)
3) Angle’s class II
4) Angle’s class III
SOLUTION Children and adults with a skeletal Class II relationship and an underlying skeletal Class II jaw relationship position the mandible forward in a “Sunday bite,” making the occlusion look better than it really is.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the size of the face at birth?
1) The face forms 2/3rd the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd of the bulk.
2) The face forms the bulk of the head through life
3) The face forms 1/3rd the bulk of the head, whereas in the adult it forms 1/8th of the bulk
4) The face forms only 1/8th of the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd to of the bulk.
Due to the advanced state of the growth of brain this size at birth of the head of the infant is relatively large .
What is the most common type of dental crown used in posterior teeth?
1) All-ceramic crown
2) Porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
3) Resin crown
4) Gold crown
Porcelain-fused-to-metal crowns are commonly used for posterior teeth due to their strength and aesthetic appearance.
Koplik's spots are seen in the oral cavity of patients with
1) chickenpox.
2) mumps.
3) measles.
4) scarlet fever.
E. smallpox.
Koplik's spots are small, white spots found on the mucous
membranes of the cheeks in the early stages of measles. These spots are
pathognomonic for the disease and typically appear before the rash. They are not
associated with the other conditions listed: chickenpox, mumps, or scarlet
fever.
Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are:
1) Elevated temperature and nausea
2) Palpitations and malaise
3) Ankle edema and dyspnea
4) Erythema and pain
ADC Test Answer: 3
Symptoms of congestive heart failure often include edema in the lower extremities and difficulty breathing, which should be monitored in patients prior to surgery.
Which of the following antihypertensive agents is classified as a beta-blocker?
1) Amlodipine
2) Losartan
3) Captopril
4) Atenolol
Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker, whereas Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), and Captopril is an ACE inhibitor.
How do rests help in force transmission?
1) By redirecting forces perpendicularly
2) By directing forces parallel to the long axis of the abutment tooth
3) By absorbing all the forces
4) By separating the teeth
Rests are designed to direct forces of mastication parallel to the long axis of the abutment to enhance support.
Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a patient to refuse
informed consent?
1) Fear of pain
2) Lack of financial resources
3) Religious beliefs
4) Desire for a second opinion
While financial concerns may influence a patient's decision, they are not a valid reason for refusing informed consent. The other options (fear, religious beliefs, and desire for a second opinion) are all valid reasons for a patient to refuse or seek further information before consenting to treatment.
What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.
The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes.
The biologic standard used to test the efficiency of sterilization involves the use of spores of a harmless bacillus
Example Test for type IV hypersensitivity:
1) Coagulase test
2) Mantoux test
3) Schick test
4) Elek’s test
A classic example of delayed type IV hypersensitivity is the Mantoux tuberculin test in which skin induration indicates exposure to tuberculosis. This reaction is called "delayed hypersensitivity" because it is mediated by sensitized CD4+ T lymphocytes which process antigens in association with class II HLA molecules and release lymphokines. Hypersensitivity reactions with this mode of action include: Granulomatous diseases (mycobacteria, fungi) Tuberculin skin reactions Transplant rejection Contact dermatitis Cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) mediated responses: CD8+ T cells are generated and lyse specific cells.
The lymphokines promote a reaction (especially mediated through macrophages) beginning in hours but reaching a peak in 2 to 3 days.
-
Neoplastic cell lysis
-
Transplant rejection
-
Virus-infected cell lysis
What is the purpose of using a rubber dam during dental procedures?
1) To reduce the spread of infection
2) To improve patient comfort
3) To increase the visibility of the operative site
4) To reduce the risk of aspiration and ingestion of materials
While a rubber dam can also improve patient comfort and increase visibility of the operative site, its primary purpose is to isolate the operative site from the patient's oral fluids, thereby reducing the spread of infection between the patient and the dental team and protecting the patient's airway from aspiration.
What is the most common failure of a Maryland bridge?
1) Fracture of the pontic
2) Retention failure
3) Caries at the abutment teeth
4) Periodontal disease
Retention failure is the most common problem associated with Maryland bridges, often due to inadequate bonding to the enamel.
Which of the following calcium channel blockers is commonly used to treat hypertension?
1) Losartan
2) Nifedipine
3) Furosemide
4) Clonidine
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used in hypertension, while Losartan is an ARB, Furosemide is a diuretic, and Clonidine is a central alpha2-agonist.
What is the most effective way to manage a patient with dental anxiety?
1) Sedation
2) General anesthesia
3) Cognitive behavioral therapy
4) All of the above
Managing dental anxiety can involve sedation, general anesthesia, and psychological approaches like cognitive behavioral therapy, depending on the severity of the anxiety.
Secondary infections in HIV-infected patient are classified under
1) Class I
2) Class II
3) Class III
4) Class IV
General Medicine Answer: 4
Common opportunistic infections associated with HIV include: cryptococcal meningitis. toxoplasmosis.
When a dentist suspects elder abuse, what is the first step they should take?
1) Confront the caregiver about the suspicion
2) Report the suspicion to the patient's family
3) Report the suspicion to the local Adult Protective Services (APS) agency
4) Treat the patient's dental issues without further action
The first step in suspected elder abuse is to report the concern to Adult Protective Services.
Which of the following is NOT a function of rests?
1) To maintain occlusal contact
2) To provide aesthetics
3) To prevent displacement of abutment teeth
4) To provide indirect retention
Rests primarily focus on functional roles, like support and stability, rather than aesthetic enhancement.
Which class of antihypertensive agents is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal harm?
1) Diuretics
2) Calcium channel blockers
3) ACE inhibitors
4) Alpha-blockers
ACE inhibitors are contraindicated during pregnancy because they can harm fetal development.
What is the typical presentation of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.
The most common cause of failure in root canal treatment is:
1) Over-filling the canal
2) Under-filling the canal
3) Instrument breakage
4) Infection during treatment
ADC Test Answer: 2
Inadequate filling of the root canal system allows for persistent infection, making it the leading cause of failure in root canal procedures.
What’s the percentage of tooth erosion in 6-year-olds and 15-year-olds in the UK?
1) 5-10% and 15-20%
2) 5-52% and 15-27%
3) 10-30% and 20-40%
4) 15-25% and 25-35%
Studies indicate that tooth erosion affects a significant percentage of children, with varying rates between different age groups.
Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue manifests itself in the oral cavity as:
1) Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of the tongue
2) Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from a central groove in the center of the tongue
3) Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas
4) Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hypertrophic fungiform
ADC Test Answer: 3
Geographic tongue is characterized by the loss of filiform papillae, leading to irregular, smooth, red patches on the tongue.
What is the approach for the Gillies method in zygomatic fractures?
1) A vertical incision is made in the temporal hairline, and the elevator is then tunneled underneath the temporalis fascia.
2) The incision is made between the temporal fascia and temporalis muscle.
3) A 3-cm incision is placed 4 cm superior to the zygomatic arch and posterior to the temporal hairline.
4) A horizontal incision is made along the zygomatic arch.
The Gillies approach involves a specific incision that allows for direct access to the zygomatic arch, facilitating accurate fracture reduction through a bimanual technique.
Which of the following is not true about casting gypsum-bonded investment material?
1) Its used for cast metal alloys
2) 50—65% of gypsum changes to form α-hemihydrate
3) The investment material is not heated above 700°C temperature
4) Heating above 700°C causes formation of sulphur dioxide from copper sulphate
Gypsum-bonded investments are used for gold alloys.
Ist investments flow contain the α-hemihydrate of gypsum. because greater strength is obtained. This gypsum
product serves as a binder to hold other ingredients together and provide rigidity. The strength of the investment is dependent on the amount of binder present.
A slight expansion takes place between 400°C and approximately 700°C (1292°F). and then a large contraction occurs. This later shrinkage is most likely caused by decomposition and release of sulphur gases, such as sulphur dioxide.
This decomposition not only causes shrinkage but also contaminates the casting with the sulphides of the nonnohlc alloying elements, such as silver and copper. Thus, it is imperative that gypsum investments should not be heated above 700°C (1292°F). however, for gypsum products containing carbon, the maximum temperature should be 650°C (1202°F). In this way, proper ut and uncontaminated alloys are obtained.
Which type of periodontitis is most likely to require antibiotic
treatment?
1) Chronic periodontitis
2) Aggressive periodontitis
3) Localized aggressive periodontitis (LAP)
4) Necrotizing periodontitis
Localized aggressive periodontitis (LAP) is characterized by rapid destruction of periodontal tissues, particularly in adolescents and young adults. It is associated with specific bacterial pathogens, particularly Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, and often requires systemic antibiotic therapy in addition to scaling and root planing to control the infection effectively. Chronic periodontitis and necrotizing periodontitis may also benefit from antibiotics, but LAP is most likely to necessitate their use due to its aggressive nature and bacterial etiology.
Can a patient withdraw their informed consent at any time?
1) No, once given, consent cannot be withdrawn
2) Yes, but only if the treatment has not yet started
3) Yes, at any point during the treatment
4) Only if the patient has not signed a consent form
A patient has the right to withdraw informed consent at any time
during the treatment process, regardless of whether they have signed a consent
form or not.
Which ion acts as a second messenger?
1) Sodium
2) Potassium
3) Calcium
4) Magnesium
Calcium ions serve as important second messengers in various cellular signaling pathways, facilitating communication within and between cells.
What is the primary treatment for pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Topical steroids
2) Systemic corticosteroids
3) Antihistamines
4) Antibiotics
Systemic corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for pemphigus vulgaris to control the autoimmune response and reduce blister formation.
Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
1) Propofol
2) Ketamine
3) Atracurium
4) Fentanyl
Ketamine is known to increase cerebral oxygen consumption.
After performing an apicoectomy, which of the following should be placed in the
bony defect prior to suturing the flap?
1) Corticosteroids.
2) Nothing.
3) Oxidized cellulose.
4) Bone wax.
In most cases, after an apicoectomy, it is standard practice to leave the bony defect empty (nothing placed) to allow for natural healing and bone regeneration. The area is typically sutured closed without the addition of materials, as this can promote better healing and reduce the risk of complications.
What is the primary cause of suppuration in periodontal disease?
1) Presence of lymphocytes
2) Collection of neutrophils
3) Necrosis
4) Accumulation of tissue fluid
Suppuration is primarily due to the accumulation of neutrophils at the site of infection, which leads to the formation of pus.
Which type of bridge is not ideal for posterior cantilever due to heavy
occlusal forces?
1) Single retainer cantilever
2) Multiple-splinted abutment
3) Cantilever with two abutment teeth
4) Fixed-fixed bridge
a single retainer cantilever is not ideal for posterior cantilever due to heavy occlusal forces, which can cause increased stress on the abutment tooth.
The largest resting membrane potential is observed in 1. skeletal muscle 2. smooth muscle 3. equal in both 4. -120 mv in resting smooth muscle
Anatomy Answer: 1The largest resting membrane potential is observed in skeletal muscles
Which of the following is an example of a legal requirement for dental records?
1) Using a specific color of ink to write in the chart
2) Storing patient records for at least 7 years after the patient's last appointment
3) Having a signed treatment consent form for every procedure
4) Using only digital records, no paper charts allowed
The legal requirements for dental records may vary by state or country, but a common requirement is the retention of records for a certain period, typically 7 to 10 years or until the patient reaches the age of majority plus a certain number of years. This ensures that the information is available for any future reference or legal needs. The specific color of ink, use of digital or paper charts, and placement of identifiers are often practice standards rather than legal requirements.
What is the advantage of using electronic patient records over paper records?
- They take up less physical space
- They are more easily accessible and less prone to loss
- They are more difficult to alter
- They are less expensive
Electronic records can be accessed and retrieved more quickly and are less likely to be misplaced or damaged than paper records.
With Silicon Rubber Impression Materials 1. Three stone dies can be constructed 2. It is not possible to construct successive stone dies or casts 3. Four stone dies can be constructed 4. It is possible to construct successive stone dies or casts
Dental Material Answer: 2It is not possible to construct successive stone dies or casts with Silicon Rubber Impression Materials
Coronoid fractures are rare, accounting for only about 1% of mandibular fractures. The coronoid process is well-protected laterally by the zygomatic arch, making fractures in this area uncommon.
About lidocaine all are true, except:
1) Dose need to altered in renal failure
2) Loading dose before infusion
3) It is little effected by heat & pH
4) Prolongs refractory period
Local anesthetics are poorly water soluble and this limits their renal excretion (of unchanged drug) to less than 5%.
Ipratropium bromide is useful in bronchial asthma because of
1) Anticholinergic effect
2) Vasodilator properties
3) Antiallergic action
4) Stabilization of mast cells
Ipratropium (as ipratropium bromide, trade name Atrovent) is an anticholinergic drug administered by inhalation for the treatment of obstructive lung diseases. It acts by blocking muscarinic receptors in the lung, inhibiting bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion. It is a non-selective muscarinic antagonist, and does not diffuse into the blood, which prevents systemic side effects.
Ipratropium is a derivative of atropine[1] but is a quaternary amine and therefore does not cross the blood-brain barrier
A dental assistant notices that a patient flinches when the dentist approaches with instruments. This behavior may suggest:
1) Fear of dental procedures
2) Previous traumatic experiences
3) Lack of understanding of the procedure
4) None of the above
Flinching may indicate that the patient has experienced trauma, which could be related to abuse.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions. A full dental record, on the other hand, includes the patient's medical and dental history, treatment plans, x-rays, notes from appointments, consent forms, and other relevant information about the patient's oral health.
Repair of denture bases should be carried out with 1. cold-cure resins in order to avoid distortion of the denture base 2. heat-cure resins in order to-secure a strong bond between the repair ma terial and the original denture 3. heat-cure resins in order to prevent porosity--at the repaired site 4. cold-cure resnis in order to reduce the amount of residual monomer in the repaired denture
Dental Material Answer: 1Repair of denture bases should be carried out with cold-cure resins in order to avoid distortion of the denture base
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for informed consent in dental treatment?
1) The patient must be competent to make decisions
2) The treatment options must be fully explained to the patient
3) The patient must be informed of the risks and benefits of each option
4) The patient must sign the consent form in triplicate
Informed consent requires that the patient is competent to make decisions, the treatment options are fully explained, the risks and benefits are communicated, and the patient understands the nature and purpose of the proposed treatment. While a signed consent form is typically required, there is no standard requirement for the number of copies.
A man who smokes 2 packets of cigarettes a day and drinks would have an increased risk of developing oral cancer of:
1) 11 times
2) 13 times
3) 47 times
4) 25 times
Smoking and alcohol consumption significantly increase the risk of oral cancer, with studies showing a risk increase of up to 47 times for heavy users.
What is the mean, mode, and median?
1) Mean is the most frequent value, mode is the average, median is the middle value
2) Mean is the average, median is the middle value, mode is the most frequent value
3) Mean is the middle value, mode is the average, median is the most frequent value
4) All are the same
The mean is calculated by averaging all values, the median is the middle value when arranged in order, and the mode is the value that appears most frequently in a dataset.
Is Myasthenia Gravis and Grave's disease type 2 or type 5 hypersensitivity reactions?
1) Type 2
2) Type 5
3) Both
4) Neither
Both Myasthenia Gravis and Grave's disease are classified as type 2 hypersensitivity reactions, mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies.
A periapical radiograph can be used to locate the buccal bone level.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
Which of the following is NOT a component of a comprehensive dental record?
- Patient medical and dental history
- Clinical examination findings
- Treatment plans and consent forms
- Social security number of the patient's next of kin
While it's essential to have emergency contact information, including the next of kin, a social security number is not typically considered a necessary part of a comprehensive dental recor4) The primary components of a comprehensive dental record include the patient's personal and medical/dental history, clinical examination findings, diagnoses, treatment plans, consent forms, and radiographs/images.
What is the main disadvantage of using nitrous oxide for anxious patients with respiratory issues?
1) It can cause respiratory depression
2) It can increase the risk of infection
3) It is less effective in controlling pain
4) It requires additional monitoring equipment
Nitrous oxide can cause respiratory depression in patients with compromised lung function, making it a less suitable option for those with respiratory issues.
Thymol is preservative used for:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Desflurane
4) Enflurane
Halothane can be decomposed by light so stored in amber colour bottles and contains thymol 0.01 % as preservative.
What is the mechanical advantage of a cross bar or winter's elevator?
1) 4.6
2) 2.5
3) 13
4) 75%
The mechanical advantage of a cross bar or winter's elevator is 75%, which is higher than a straight elevator (2.5) and an apex elevator (4.6).
What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dysplasia
Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the loss of intercellular adherence of suprabasal spinous cells, leading to acantholysis and the formation of vesicles.
The active immunity offered by tetanus toxoid is effectively in nearly:
1. 25 % of the patients.
2. 50 % of the patients.
3. 75 % of the patients.
4. 100 % of the patients.
80 - 100 % so nearly 100 -- 75 % also equally correct
What type of crown is placed after a Nayyar core technique?
1) Porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
2) Amalgam crown
3) All-ceramic crown
4) Gold crown
The Nayyar core technique is often followed by placing an amalgam crown due to its strength and durability.
Following trauma to the tooth, if there is no response to pulp tests the next day you should:
1) Review again later
2) Start endodontic treatment
3) Extraction of tooth
4) Perform additional sensibility tests
ADC Test Answer: 1
Initial negative responses may not indicate pulp necrosis, as the pulp could still be viable, so follow-up is essential to confirm the diagnosis.
The nerve to masseter passes 1. deep to the medial pterygoid muscle 2. posterior to temporomandibular joint 3. superior to zygomatic arch to enter the muscle on its medial surface 4. through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
Anatomy Answer: 4The nerve to masseter passes through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
What is the most common reason for the failure of an approximal amalgam filling?
1) Marginal leakage
2) Secondary caries
3) Isthmus fracture
4) Overhang
Isthmus fractures are a common reason for the failure of approximal amalgam fillings, often due to stress and occlusal forces.
Facial profile of a typical mouth breather is
1) Long and wide
2) Short and wide
3) Long and narrow
4) Short and narrow
SOLUTION Altered respiratory pattern, such as breathing through the mouth rather than the nose, could change the posture of the
head, jaw, and tongue.
In order to breathe through the mouth, it is necessary to lower the mandible and tongue, and extend (tip back) the head.
If these postural changes were maintained, face height would increase, and posterior teeth would super-erupt;
unless there was unusual vertical growth of the ramus, the mandible would rotate down and back, opening the bite
anteriorly and increasing overjet; and increased pressure from the stretched cheeks might cause a narrower maxillary dental arch.
Which of the following best describes the concept of "informed refusal"?
1) A patient agreeing to treatment without understanding the risks
2) A patient declining treatment after being fully informed of the risks and benefits
3) A dentist refusing to treat a patient
4) A patient who is unable to make decisions about their care
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Informed refusal occurs when a patient, after being provided with all necessary information regarding a treatment option, chooses not to proceed with it. This respects the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare.
Which of the following is common to all forms of hemorrhagic shock?
1) Sepsis.
2) Hypovolemia
3) Impaired tissue perfusion.
4) Vasoconstriction.
Hemorrhagic shock results in inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues due to reduced blood volume.
What is the main purpose of using chlorhexidine mouth rinse in dentistry?
1) To promote tooth whitening
2) To reduce plaque and gingivitis
3) To provide pain relief
4) To replace fluoride treatments
Chlorhexidine mouth rinses are primarily used in dentistry for their efficacy in reducing plaque accumulation and gingivitis.
What is the legal obligation of a dentist when they suspect a patient is a victim of abuse or neglect?
1) To report the suspicion to the authorities immediately
2) To advise the patient to report the abuse themselves
3) To maintain confidentiality and not take any action
4) To conduct a thorough investigation before reporting
Dentists are mandated reporters and must report any suspicion of abuse or neglect to the appropriate authorities immediately.
What is the most effective way to minimize the risk of sharps injuries in a dental practice? 1) Use of retractors during procedures 2) Proper disposal of needles and sharp instruments 3) Frequent handwashing 4) Wearing gloves at all times
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Proper disposal in designated sharps containers is crucial in minimizing the risk of sharps injuries, which can lead to infections.
Which of the following actions is NOT a responsibility of a dental professional when they suspect abuse or neglect?
1) Reporting the suspicion to the appropriate authorities
2) Investigating the situation personally
3) Documenting observations in the patient’s record
4) Providing support to the patient
Dental professionals should report their suspicions rather than investigate, as this is outside their scope of practice.
The sounds "S," "Z," and "che" are produced when:
1) The teeth are widely apart
2) The teeth barely touch
3) The lips are tightly closed
4) The tongue is elevated
The sounds "S," "Z," and "che" are sibilant sounds, which are produced by forcing air through a narrow space between the tongue and the teeth. The teeth do not completely occlude (touch) during the articulation of these sounds. Instead, they are positioned in a way that allows a thin stream of air to flow, creating the characteristic hissing sound. This requires precise coordination between the tongue and the teeth, particularly the tongue and the alveolar ridge (the bony ridge behind the upper incisors).
IN HEALTH EDUCATION PROGRAMME a group of 10 ppl r planning to speak on a topic of common interest. Which is the best ed. Approach
1.panel discussion
2.symposium
3.group discussion
4.workshop
Group discussion because participants get chances to express thier views Idea panel discussion : 4-8 people talk abt a topic in front of large group. symposium:series of speeches on a selected subject, no discussion. group discussion :considered a very effective method of health edu if the group consists of not less than 6 and not more than 20 persons. workshop:usually lasts for few days wher people get together and work in different groups and discuss problem of concern it can be called a problem solving method.
What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists ?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss
Musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it. This is consistent with findings from other studies that highlight the prevalence of musculoskeletal disorders in the dental profession due to prolonged sitting postures, repetitive movements, and manual dexterity required in dental practice.
What is the best treatment for peg-shaped laterals?
1) Composite filling
2) Hybrid composite or laminate veneer
3) Dental crown
4) Orthodontic treatment
A laminate veneer or hybrid composite is often the best aesthetic solution for peg-shaped laterals, improving their appearance.
Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of < 50mg/min?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Trovafloxacin
3) Lomefloxacin
4) Sparfloxacin
Fluoroquinolones that are excreted mainly by non renal mechanisms: Pefloxacin Trovafloxacin Grepofloxacin Nalidixic acid
A patient with osteitis and pus after a third molar extraction. Which antibiotic should be prescribed?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Metronidazole
3) Clindamycin
4) Cephalexin
Metronidazole is commonly used to treat infections associated with dental procedures, particularly those involving anaerobic bacteria, such as in cases of osteitis.
The first heart sound relates to 1. Closure of the A-V valves 2. Opening of the A-V valves 3. Excitation of the auricles 4. Closure of the aortic valve
Physiology Answer: 2The first heart sound relates to Opening of the A-V valves
Which of the following is an example of a violation of patient confidentiality?
1) Discussing a patient's treatment plan in a private setting
2) Sharing patient information with unauthorized individuals
3) Documenting patient records in a secure location
4) Using initials instead of full names in clinical notes
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Sharing patient information without consent or with unauthorized individuals constitutes a breach of confidentiality and violates ethical and legal standards.
Which of the following statements about informed consent is true?
1) It is
only necessary for surgical procedures.
2) It must always be documented in writing.
3) It is a one-time process that does not require updates.
4) It should be tailored to the individual patient's needs and understanding.
;Informed consent should be personalized to ensure that the patient fully understands the information relevant to their treatment.
The diagnosis for a patient having a sinus tract associated with a nonvital pulp
who presents with no symptoms is
1) acute apical abscess (acute periradicular abscess).
2) asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
3) periodontal abscess.
4) chronic apical abcess (chronic periradicular abscess).
Chronic apical abscesses typically present with sinus tracts and minimal symptoms
What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.
The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes.
What is the characteristic radiographic feature of distoangular impaction?
1) The tooth is horizontally positioned
2) The tooth is tilted towards the ramus
3) The tooth is tilted towards the tongue
4) The tooth is completely embedded in the bone
Distoangular impaction occurs when the tooth is tilted towards the ascending ramus of the mandible, making it challenging to remove due to the need for significant bone removal.
What is TRUE in regards to osteogenesis imperfecta?
1) Manifests with blue sclera
2) May be associated with deafness
3) Sex-linked disorder of bones that develop in cartilage
4) All of the above
ADC Test Answer: 1
Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by fragile bones, blue sclera due to thin collagen in the eye, and may also have associations with hearing loss.
Which vaccination does NOT include deactivated microorganisms?
1) Live-attenuated vaccines
2) Inactivated vaccines
3) Subunit vaccines
4) Toxoid vaccines
Live-attenuated vaccines contain live, weakened forms of the pathogen.
What is the most appropriate treatment for an elderly patient with a loose
denture?
1) Relining the denture
2) Implant placement
3) Adhesive use
4) Removal of the denture
Relining the denture can help improve its fit and stability, making it more comfortable for the patient.
What is the normal resting flow rate for saliva?
1) 0.1-0.3 ml/min
2) 0.1-0.6 ml/min
3) 0.5-1.0 ml/min
4) 1.0-2.0 ml/min
The normal resting saliva flow rate ranges from 0.1 to 0.6 ml/min, while stimulated saliva can increase to 1-2 ml/min.
Which immunoglobulin is pentameric?
1) IgA
2) IgG
3) IgM
4) IgE
IgM is the largest immunoglobulin in terms of size and is structured as a pentamer, facilitating its role in early immune responses.
Which immunoglobulin is dimeric?
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgA
4) IgE
Secretory IgA is a dimeric form of immunoglobulin that plays a key role in mucosal immunity.
Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by:
1) Bell’s palsy
2) Traumatic bone cyst
3) Trigeminal neuralgia
4) Fracture in the mandible first molar region
ADC Test Answer: 4
A fracture in this region can damage the inferior alveolar nerve, leading to loss of sensation in the lower lip and chin area.
During crown cementation, complete filling of crown with cement is not advisable due to :
1) Increased risk of bubble entrapment
2) Increased seating time
3) Increased pressure required for seating crown
4) All of the above
It is not advisable to fill the crown completely with cement due to following 4 reasons: 1.
2. the risk for bubble entrapment increases
3. increased pressure may be needed
4. the time for seating increases
What is the difference between a dental chart and a dental record?
1) A dental chart is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental record includes all patient information.
2) A dental chart includes only the patient's medical history, while a dental record has the full treatment history.
3) A dental record is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental chart has the full treatment history.
4) Both are the same.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions.
Following the injection of 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, a
nervous 22 year old male with well
controlled insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels dizzy and weak. Beads
of sweat have accumulated on
his forehead and upper lip. He is quite pale. The initial management of this
patient is to
1) administer glucagon 1.0mg.
2) administer epinephrine 0.5mg.
3) administer diphenhydramine 50mg.
4) elevate the patient's legs and administer 100% oxygen.
These symptoms suggest vasovagal syncope or hypoglycemia; elevating legs improves circulation, and oxygen supports recovery.
What is the main requirement of the Data Protection Act 2018 concerning patient records?
- Records must be kept for at least 10 years
- Records must be encrypted at all times
- Records must be kept securely and confidentially
- Records must be backed up daily
The Data Protection Act 2018 requires dental practices to secure patient records and restrict access to authorized personnel only to safeguard patient confidentiality.
Which of the following is NOT a type of dental charting?
1) Periapical charting
2) Periodontal charting
3) Full mouth series charting
4) Panoramic charting
Panoramic radiographs are not a type of charting. They are a type of radiograph that provides a two-dimensional view of the entire mouth on a single film. The other options Periapical charting, Periodontal charting, Full mouth series charting, and Bitewing charting refer to different types of charting that are used to document specific dental conditions, such as the presence of cavities or periodontal disease.
In mixed dentition, which of the following may be considered as a self correcting problem with age?
1) Unilateral loss of primary canine
2) Lack of interdental spaces
3) A distal step
4) Open bite
SOLUTION The possibility that a distal step would become class II is very real, and this not self correcting problem.
Normal child will go through a transitory stage of mandibular incisor crowding at age 8 to 9 even if there will eventually be enough room to accommodate all the permanent teeth in good alignment. In other words, a period when the mandibular incisors are slightly crowded is a normal developmental stage.
Continued development of the arches improves the spacing situation, and by the time the canine teeth erupt, space is once again adequate.
The first thing to assess when a patient complains of pain under a denture is:
1) Occlusion
2) Soft tissue changes
3) Fit of the denture
4) Age of denture
ADC Test Answer: 1
Checking occlusion is critical, as occlusal discrepancies can be a primary cause of discomfort under dentures.
In a patient shot in the back of the head with the bullet passing through the forehead, which bones are least likely to be damaged? 1) Maxilla and temporal 2) Frontal and parietal 3) Occipital and sphenoid 4) Zygoma and ethmoid
Anatomy Answer: 1The trajectory of the bullet from the back of the head to the forehead is less likely to involve the maxilla and temporal bones compared to the others.
Technique of anesthesia in which local anesthetic solution is injected into the vein is?
1) Epidural anesthesia
2) Intra venous regional anesthesia
3) Nerve block
4) Infiltration anesthesia
Intra venous regional anesthesia is the technique of anesthesia in which a local anesthetic solution is injected into the vein.
Selective medium for streptococcus mutans?
1 mac conkey medium
2 mitis salivarius bacitracin agar
3 neutrient agar
4 tellurite medium
Colonies of E. coli serotype O157:H7 appear on Mac Conkey Sorbitol Agar as colourless colonies non-sorbitol fermenter. Others E. coli, sorbitol fermenters, give red colonies and gram-negative non-sorbitol fermenters appear translucent.
Ambroxol is a :
1) Mucolytic agent
2) Bronchial secretion enhancer
3) Antitussive
4) None of the above
Expectorants (Mucokinetics)
(a) Bronchial secretion enhancers : Sodium or Potassium citrate, Potassium iodide, Guaiphenesin (Glyceryl guaiacolate), balsum of Tolu, Vasaka, Ammonium chloride.
(b) Mucolytics: Bromhexine Ambroxol Acetyl cysteine Carbocisteine
Which type of caries is characterized by a brown or black appearance and is
resistant to caries?
1) Acute caries
2) Chronic caries
3) Arrested caries
4) Incipient caries
Arrested caries are brown or black and become caries-resistant, especially when exposed to fluoride.
What treatment is indicated for severe cases of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) Increased platelet count
2) Supportive care and treating underlying causes
3) Administration of antibiotics
4) Hormonal therapy
Management of severe cases of DIC involves supportive care and addressing the underlying condition that has triggered the coagulopathy.
Orthopedic correction of a mild skeletal Angle Class III malocclusion should be started:
1) Shortly after eruption of the upper first permanent molars.
2) Immediately following the pre-pubertal growth spurt.
3) Just prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt.
4) Shortly after eruption of the upper second permanent molars.
Orthodontics Answer: 3
Explanation: Early intervention during growth spurts
capitalizes on the skeletal adaptability, making corrections more effective.
What is the role of dental nurses in record keeping?
1) They are not involved in record keeping
2) They can assist in notetaking to ensure contemporaneous records
3) They are responsible for financial records
4) They only handle patient scheduling
Dental nurses play a vital role in documenting patient information during appointments, enhancing the accuracy of records.
What causes clasp breakage in removable partial dentures
(RPD)?
1) Excessive force
2) Work hardening
3) Poor design
4) Material fatigue
Clasp breakage in removable partial dentures (RPDs) is often attributed to work hardening of the metal used in the clasps. Work hardening occurs when the metal is subjected to repeated stress, causing it to become more brittle and less ductile. This increased brittleness can lead to fractures under normal functional loads, making proper design and material selection critical in RPD construction.
For which of the following is a written consent form NOT typically required?
1) Routine dental fillings
2) Dental radiographs
3) Surgical extraction of a tooth
4) Dental photography for educational purposes
Although the use of radiographs involves some risk, they are
considered part of the diagnostic process and do not typically require written
consent unless the patient specifically refuses them.
Which of the following is a common sign of periodontal disease?
1) Tooth mobility
2) Bleeding gums
3) Bad breath
4) All of the above
Signs of periodontal disease include tooth mobility, bleeding gums, and bad breath, indicating inflammation and infection.
What role does the dental assistant play in managing an anxious patient?
1) To perform all clinical procedures
2) To provide medication to patients
3) To offer emotional support and reassurance
4) To make treatment decisions
Dental assistants can play a crucial role in offering emotional support, helping to soothe anxious patients during visits.
What is the purpose of a consent form?
1) To serve as legal evidence of informed consent
2) To inform the patient of the risks and benefits of treatment
3) To protect the dentist from legal liability
4) To replace verbal communication between the dentist and patient
While consent forms do provide a written record of the consent
discussion, their primary purpose is to serve as evidence that the patient has
been informed and has voluntarily agreed to the proposed treatment. Verbal
communication remains essential for the informed consent process.
Which of the following antibiotics shows an incidence of approximately 8% cross-allergencity with penicillins?
1) Bacitracin
2) Erythromycin
3) Cephalexin
4) Vancomycin
Cephalosporins can cause allergic reactions in people with penicillin allergy.
it is generally recommended that those allergic to penicillin avoid cephalosporins all together.
What is the primary feature of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.
Hyperthermia can be seen with:
1) Lithium toxicity
2) Opium withdrawal
3) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
4) Eclampsia
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome, often caused by phenothiazine used for neuroleptanalgesia and premedication, can cause hyperthermia.
What does Stephan's curve primarily represent?
1) Change in pH of saliva over time
2) Change in pH of plaque over time
3) Change in pH of saliva with sugar intake
4) Change in pH of blood with exercise
Stephan's curve illustrates how the pH of dental plaque changes over time following sugar intake.
What is the most effective method for dietary advice for a child?
1) Tell the parents not to give sweets to the child
2) Dentist tells the child which are good and bad foods
3) Nurse talks to the child
4) Send the child to a dietician
Direct communication with the child about dietary choices can be more impactful than parental instructions alone.
What is the predominant microorganism in deep dentinal caries?
1) Streptococcus mutans.
2) Lactobacillus species.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lactobacilli are typically the predominant bacteria found in deep dentinal caries due to their ability to produce high levels of acid in the absence of oxygen.
The essential ingredient of dental inlay investment are :
1) Quartz, cristobalite
2) β hemihydrate
3) α hemihydrate
4) Ammonium phosphate
The essential ingredients of the dental inlay investment employed with the conventional gold casting alloys are a-hemihydrate of gypsum, quartz, or cristobalite, which are allotropic forms of silica.
What is the purpose of the American with Disabilities Act (ADA) as it relates to dental care?
1) To set minimum standards for accessibility in dental offices
2) To require dentists to provide free care to patients with disabilities
3) To mandate that all dental procedures must be performed under general anesthesia for patients with special needs
4) To establish a government-funded program for special needs dentistry
The ADA requires that dental offices provide equal access to care for individuals with disabilities.
During which phase does the formation of dentin primarily occur?
1) Bud stage
2) Cap stage
3) Bell stage
4) Maturation stage
The bell stage of tooth development is when the formation of dentin primarily occurs, along with enamel development.
There are some enzymes that cause protein to coagulate rather than to produce simpler compund These are known as 1. lab enzymes 2. coagulase 3. proteolytic enzymes 4. enmycin
Microbiology Answer: 1There are some enzymes that cause protein to coagulate rather than to produce simpler compund These are known as lab enzymes
The gas with greatest solubility in blood:
- Nitrous oxide
- Nitrogen
- Oxygen
- Hydrogen
Although the solubility of nitrous oxide in blood is less than other inhalational agents, its solubility is 35 times more than nitrogen and 15 times more than oxygen.
What is the primary role of osteoclastic cells in the body?
1) Bone formation
2) Bone resorption
3) Collagen synthesis
4) Mineralization
Osteoclasts are specialized cells responsible for bone resorption, breaking down bone tissue and playing a crucial role in bone remodeling.
Which condition is characterized by the presence of intraoral fibromas?
1) Lichen planus
2) Fibromatosis
3) Pemphigus vulgaris
4) Epulis
An epulis is a benign tumor characterized by fibrous tissue growth in the gingiva that can present as intraoral fibromas.
What is the typical sequence of events during the eruption of a permanent tooth?
1) Resorption of the overlying alveolar bone, followed by movement of the tooth through the gum tissue.
2) Resorption of the deciduous tooth root, followed by movement of the permanent tooth into the socket.
3) Inflammation of the gum tissue, followed by resorption of the deciduous tooth crown.
4) Movement of the tooth through the gum tissue, followed by resorption of the deciduous tooth root.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Eruption of a permanent tooth involves the resorption of the primary tooth root, allowing the permanent tooth to move into the correct position within the alveolar bone.
Which of the following is a common challenge in providing dental care to patients with Alzheimer's disease?
1) Difficulty in understanding and following instructions
2) Increased tolerance for pain and discomfort
3) Enhanced manual dexterity for oral hygiene
4) Decreased sensitivity to taste and smell
Alzheimer's disease is characterized by cognitive impairment, which can make it challenging for patients to follow complex instructions or remember to perform oral hygiene tasks.
Which of the following is NOT a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy used in managing dental anxiety?
1) Systematic desensitization
2) Guided imagery
3) Dental hypnosis
4) Exposure therapy
While hypnosis can be used in dentistry for pain management and relaxation, it is not typically classified as a form of cognitive-behavioral therapy. Exposure therapy, systematic desensitization, and guided imagery are examples of cognitive-behavioral techniques.
What is the term for the process of cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing
reusable dental handpieces?
1) Decontamination
2) Sterilization
3) Reprocessing
4) Disinfection
Reprocessing refers to the steps taken to prepare reusable dental
handpieces for safe use on another patient, including cleaning, disinfection,
and sterilization.
In permanent teeth, two pulp canals are most commonly found in the
1) distobuccal root of maxillary molars.
2) distal root of mandibular first molars.
3) palatal root of maxillary first premolars.
4) mesial root of mandibular first molars.
The mesial root of mandibular first molars is known to commonly contain two pulp canals. This anatomical feature is significant for endodontic treatment, as it requires careful exploration and cleaning to ensure all canals are adequately treated.
In patients under corticosteroid therapy, what precaution must be taken to prevent adrenal crisis during oral surgery?
1) Ensure doses are not missed to maintain adrenal reserve
2) Gradually taper off corticosteroids before surgery
3) Increase corticosteroid dosage immediately post-operatively
4) Administer corticosteroid injections during surgery
Corticosteroids suppress the adrenal glands, so missing doses can lead to an adrenal crisis.
What is the best way to handle a chemical spill in a dental office?
1) Clean it up with paper towels and dispose of them in regular trash
2) Follow the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) guidelines for the specific chemical
3) Ignore it if it seems minor
4) Wait for someone else to handle it
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Following the MSDS guidelines ensures that the spill is handled safely and effectively, minimizing risks to staff and patients.
For an amalgam restoration of a weakened cusp you should:
1) Reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance
2) Reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp
3) Reduce 2mm for retention form
4) Reduce cusp by 1mm only
ADC Test Answer: 1
Reducing the cusp by 2mm on a flat base enhances the resistance of the restoration, preventing future fracture and ensuring the longevity of the amalgam restoration.
Where is bone lost most in periodontal disease?
1) Buccal surface
2) Lingual surface
3) Interdental (approximal) areas
4) Palatal surface
Bone loss in periodontal disease is most pronounced in the interdental areas, where plaque accumulation and inflammation are often greatest.
When cavitated carious lesions are present there is
1) exposure of the dentin protein matrix.
2) demineralization by matrix metalloproteinases.
3) bacterial protease inhibition.
4) a denatured inorganic phase.
Matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) are enzymes activated in acidic environments,
which degrade dentin matrix proteins, exacerbating carious lesions.
Inhibition of these enzymes can reduce the progression of dental caries.
A medication that is associated with gingivitis
1) phenytoin
2) carbamazepine
3) propranolol
4) diazepam
Gingivitis is a form of periodontal disease.
Medications such as phenytoin and birth control pills, and ingestion of heavy metals such as lead and bismuth are also associated with gingivitis.
What is a potential complication of using midazolam in pregnant women?
1) Enhanced sedation effects
2) Withdrawal symptoms in the neonate
3) Rapid metabolism in the body
4) No contraindications noted
Midazolam can cause significant risks to the neonate if used during pregnancy, particularly during the third trimester, leading to withdrawal symptoms like hypotonia and respiratory issues after birth.
Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?
1) Heavy and continuous
2) Heavy and intermittent
3) Light and continuous
4) Light and intermittent
SOLUTION Light and continuous
Use of continuous light force is recommended to be applied for adult group of patient rather than intermittent force as applied by removable appliance.
with normal biologic functioning. In adult due to heavy force teeth may devitalize because the opening into the tooth (apical foramen) is smaller and blood vessels can be easily disrupted.
Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent in dentistry?
1) The patient's ability to make a decision
2) The dentist's disclosure of all treatment options
3) The patient's signature on a consent form
4) The presence of a witness during the consent process
While a witness may be necessary in certain situations (e.g., for patients with diminished capacity), it is not a universal component of informed consent. The core elements are the patient's capacity to make a decision, the dentist's thorough disclosure, the patient's comprehension, and voluntary agreement.
What is the distance of the maxillary sinus from the upper canine?
1) 3.8 mm
2) 6.9 mm
3) 1.9 mm
4) 2.8 mm
The distance from the maxillary sinus to the upper canine is 6.9 mm, which is the greatest distance compared to the premolars and molars.
What common oral health problem is characterized by an imbalance between the oral microbiome and oral health?
1) Dental caries
2) Periodontal disease
3) Halitosis
4) Oral thrush
Periodontal disease arises from an imbalance in the oral microbiome, leading to inflammation and destruction of periodontal tissues.
Modern dental noble metal casting alloys generally have equiaxed fine grain structures because of the incorporation of small amounts of
1) Chromium
2) Indium
3) Iridium
4) Palladium
The term equiaxed refers to the fact that three dimensions of each grain are similar.
crack propagation.
Addition of about 1 wt% of ruthenium, Iridium or rhenium as grain refiners makes modern dental noble metal casting alloys as equiaxed microstructures.
Which filing system is commonly used for organizing paper dental records?
1) Vertical filing cabinets
2) Lateral filing cabinets
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None of the above
Both vertical and lateral filing cabinets can be used to organize paper dental records for easy retrieval.
Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with
1) inadequate periodontal support.
2) pulp stones.
3) constricted root canals.
4) accessory canals.
Endodontic therapy is contraindicated in teeth with inadequate periodontal support because the success of the treatment relies on the health of the surrounding periodontal tissues. If the periodontal support is compromised, the tooth may not be able to withstand the forces of occlusion, leading to failure of the endodontic treatment.
Which of the following is a common dental consideration in patients with autism?
1) Hyperactivity
2) Sensitivity to sensory stimuli
3) Aggressive behavior
4) Poor nutritional habits
Patients with autism often experience heightened sensitivity to sensory input, which can affect their comfort during dental procedures.
In which condition is the prothrombin time typically prolonged?
1) Hemophilia
2) Vitamin K deficiency
3) Use of salicylates or anticoagulants
4) Platelet disorders
Both salicylates and anticoagulants can interfere with blood clotting mechanisms and prolong prothrombin time.
Orthodontic tooth movement is inhibited by which of the following drugs
1) NSAIDS, such as Brufen
2) OPIOIDS, such as CORTISONE
3) Antibiotics such as tetracycline
4) Vasoconstrictors such as adrenaline
SOLUTION NSAIDS, i.e.
• Nimesulide does not interfere with PG production and so can be safely given during tooth movements.
What is the primary purpose of a dental sealant?
1) To improve aesthetics
2) To prevent tooth decay
3) To strengthen enamel
4) To whiten teeth
Dental sealants are primarily used to prevent tooth decay by sealing the grooves and pits on the chewing surfaces of teeth, making them less susceptible to plaque accumulation.
Who checks if there is a written protocol for radiation protection in the clinic?
1) The dentist
2) The radiation protection supervisor
3) The clinic manager
4) The health and safety officer
The radiation protection supervisor is responsible for ensuring that protocols are in place and adhered to for the safety of both patients and staff.
False statement regarding phenytoin is?
1) It is a teratogenic drug
2) Highly protein bound
3) Induces insulin secretion
4) Follows saturation kinetics
Phenytoin inhibits insulin secretion and causes hyperglycemia.
Diabetic insipidus is due to the lack of 1 Insulin 2 Angiotensin. 3 Aldosterone. 4 A.D.H.
Physiology Answer: 4Diabetic insipidus is due to the lack of ADH
What is the importance of confidentiality in dental records management?
1) It allows for open communication between dentist and patient
2) It protects the dentist from legal issues
3) It ensures that financial information is secure
4) It is not important
Confidentiality fosters trust and encourages patients to share sensitive information, which is crucial for effective treatment.
The smear layer present on the root canal wall after cleaning and shaping is
best removed by using
1) EDTA
2) hydrogen peroxide.
3) chlorhexidine.
4) isopropyl alcohol.
EDTA effectively removes the smear layer, allowing for better canal cleaning and
sealer penetration.
What defines the action of zinc oxide eugenol in promoting healing?
1) Analgesic properties
2) Antibacterial activity
3) Tissue regeneration
4) Promotes rapid bone growth
Zinc oxide eugenol dressings are known for their properties that facilitate healing and promote rapid bone growth in post-extraction sites.
Which of the following is a characteristic of dentinogenesis imperfecta?
1) Abnormal enamel formation
2) Discolored teeth
3) Increased susceptibility to caries
4) All of the above
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is characterized by abnormal dentin formation, leading to discolored teeth and increased susceptibility to caries.
Activation of muscle contraction is promoted by : Opening of the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca channel. Ca2+ binding to troponin C. Opening of Na channels Ca2+ binding to the Ca2+-ATPase
Which of the following may be caused by a newly placed restoration that interferes with the occlusion?
1) Apical abscess
2) Pulpal necrosis
3) Apical periodontitis
4) Periodontal disease
An occlusal interference can lead to increased stress on the tooth, potentially resulting in apical periodontitis.
What is the role of a dental therapist in the care of a patient with special needs?
1) To provide all aspects of dental treatment under the supervision of a dentist
2) To perform only simple procedures like cleanings and fillings
3) To manage the patient's medical conditions
4) To provide oral health education and preventive care
A dental therapist is a mid-level dental provider who can perform various procedures under the supervision of a dentist.