Dentist Abroad
Apart from a dentigerous cyst, which other lesions are associated with the absence of teeth?
1) Adenomatous odontogenic tumor
2) Keratocyst
3) Ameloblastoma
4) All of the above
All these lesions can be associated with the absence of teeth, either due to their developmental nature or their impact on the surrounding structures.
The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make up at 0.5mm away from pulp is:
1) 20%
2) 50%
3) 70%
4) 80%
ADC Test Answer: 2
Studies have shown that approximately 50% of the total dentin surface at this distance from the pulp chamber is occupied by dentinal tubules, which play a crucial role in sensitivity and responsiveness.
Which of the following is a form of emotional abuse?
1) Hitting a partner
2) Constantly belittling a child
3) Withholding food
4) Ignoring a patient's medical needs
Emotional abuse involves harming a person's self-esteem or emotional well-being, such as through belittling or verbal insults.
What is the most appropriate treatment for an elderly patient with a loose
denture?
1) Relining the denture
2) Implant placement
3) Adhesive use
4) Removal of the denture
Relining the denture can help improve its fit and stability, making it more comfortable for the patient.
What is the main ethical principle behind informed consent?
1) Non-maleficence (do no harm)
2) Beneficence (act in the patient's best interest)
3) Autonomy (respect for the patient's right to make decisions)
4) Justice (fair treatment of all patients)
Informed consent is based on the ethical principle of autonomy, which emphasizes the patient's right to make decisions about their own health care. It is essential to respect and support the patient's decision-making process.
What is the first line of treatment for a patient with a lower lateral tooth extracted while the alveolus heals to cover the gap?
1) Conventional cantilever
2) Partial denture
A partial denture is often the preferred option to replace missing teeth during the healing process, providing functional and aesthetic support.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the size of the face at birth?
1) The face forms 2/3rd the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd of the bulk.
2) The face forms the bulk of the head through life
3) The face forms 1/3rd the bulk of the head, whereas in the adult it forms 1/8th of the bulk
4) The face forms only 1/8th of the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd to of the bulk.
Due to the advanced state of the growth of brain this size at birth of the head of the infant is relatively large .
Which immunoglobulin increases in gingival inflammation?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgE
IgG levels increase in response to gingival inflammation, indicating an immune response to periodontal pathogens.
All are fluorinated anaesthetics except:
- Methoxyflurane
- Halothane
- Sevoflurane
- Isoflurane
Halothane does not undergo desfluorination under normal conditions (defluorinated only under anaerobic conditions).
What is the role of color coding in dental records management?
1) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of records
2) To simplify the organization and retrieval of files
3) To indicate the financial status of patients
4) To differentiate between various dental procedures
Color coding can help in quickly identifying and organizing patient files, making retrieval more efficient.
Agent of choice for day care surgery:
Propofol
Etomidate
Ketamine
Midazolam
The elimination half life of propofol is 2-4 hours.
What is the most common microorganism found in infected root canals?
1) Streptococcus viridans.
2) Staphylococcus aureus.
3) Lactobacilli.
4) Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Streptococcus viridans is commonly found in infected root canals due to its ability to thrive in the anaerobic environment and form a significant part of the oral flora.
What is the most common reason for the failure of an approximal amalgam filling?
1) Marginal leakage
2) Secondary caries
3) Isthmus fracture
4) Overhang
Isthmus fractures are a common reason for the failure of approximal amalgam fillings, often due to stress and occlusal forces.
Bitewing radiography is the main special test used to help in the diagnosis of proximal caries. What is a reasonable summary of the diagnostic accuracy of bitewing radiography for proximal caries diagnosis?
1) Moderate sensitivity and low specificity
2) Moderate sensitivity and moderate specificity
3) Moderate sensitivity and high specificity
4) High sensitivity and moderate specificity
5) High sensitivity and high specificity
Bitewing radiography is known for its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting proximal caries, making it a valuable diagnostic tool.
What is the correct order for removing personal protective equipment (PPE)
at the end of a procedure?
1) Face shield, gown, mask, gloves
2) Gloves, mask, gown, face shield
3) Gown, face shield, mask, gloves
4) Mask, gloves, gown, face shield
The correct order for removing PPE is to first remove the gloves, then the mask, followed by the gown, and finally the face shiel4) This order helps to prevent contamination of the skin and mucous membranes during the removal process.
During eruption of permanent teeth, alveolar bone is resorbed and deposited intermittently
Choose correct statements about flowable composite:
1) Low modulus of elasticity.
2) Lower filler content.
3) Higher polymerization shrinkage.
4) All of the above.
ADC Test Answer: 4
Flowable composites generally exhibit a low modulus of elasticity, lower filler content, and increased polymerization shrinkage compared to traditional composites, making them suitable for specific applications but requiring careful consideration regarding their use.
What is the name of the surgical instrument used for luxating a tooth during extraction?
1) Elevator
2) Forceps
3) Excavator
4) Chisel
Forceps are the primary instruments used for luxating (rocking) and removing teeth during extraction procedures.
A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between 1. first and second molars 2. central and lateral incisors 3. lateral incisor and canine 4. canine and first molar
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between canine and first molar
What is the primary cause of an elevator fracture during tooth extraction?
1) Excessive force
2) Incorrectly angled elevator
3) Weak tooth structure
4) Inadequate anesthesia
Applying too much force can lead to tooth fracture, especially if the elevator is not inserted correctly.
Which of the following is NOT a function of rests?
1) To maintain occlusal contact
2) To provide aesthetics
3) To prevent displacement of abutment teeth
4) To provide indirect retention
Rests primarily focus on functional roles, like support and stability, rather than aesthetic enhancement.
What is the main function of EDTA?
1) Antimicrobial agent
2) Chelating agent
3) Local anesthetic
4) Antiseptic
EDTA is a chelating agent that helps in negotiating sclerosed canals and dissolving inorganic components of the smear layer.
What is the advantage of using electronic patient records over paper records?
- They take up less physical space
- They are more easily accessible and less prone to loss
- They are more difficult to alter
- They are less expensive
Electronic records can be accessed and retrieved more quickly and are less likely to be misplaced or damaged than paper records.
What is the primary legal concern regarding dental records?
- Data protection
- Patient confidentiality
- Consent management
- All of the above
Dental records are subject to legal regulations concerning data protection, patient confidentiality, and consent management.
A patient with osteitis and pus after a third molar extraction. Which antibiotic should be prescribed?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Metronidazole
3) Clindamycin
4) Cephalexin
Metronidazole is commonly used to treat infections associated with dental procedures, particularly those involving anaerobic bacteria, such as in cases of osteitis.
'Programme Operation' in Community health care is same as:
1) Treatment
2) Approval
3) Treatment Planning
4) Diagnosis
In community health care, "Programme Operation" refers to the implementation and
execution of various health programs and interventions. This includes providing
treatment to individuals, ensuring that approved protocols and guidelines are
followed, planning and organizing treatment strategies, and diagnosing health
conditions. Therefore, "Programme Operation" can be equated to the concept of
treatment in community health care.
During crown cementation, complete filling of crown with cement is not advisable due to :
1) Increased risk of bubble entrapment
2) Increased seating time
3) Increased pressure required for seating crown
4) All of the above
It is not advisable to fill the crown completely with cement due to following 4 reasons: 1.
2. the risk for bubble entrapment increases
3. increased pressure may be needed
4. the time for seating increases
Which of the following dental cements is a luting agent that provides adhesion to calcified dental tissues? 1. ZOE cement 2. Silicate cement 3. Zinc phosphate cement 4. Polycarboxylate cement
Dental Material Answer: 4Polycarboxylate cement is a luting agent that provides adhesion to calcified dental tissues
What is the largest possible cavosurface angle?
1) 90 degrees
2) 100 degrees
3) 110 degrees
4) 120 degrees
The largest possible cavosurface angle in dental restorations is typically around 110 degrees, which helps in achieving a proper seal and retention.
During which phase does the formation of dentin primarily occur?
1) Bud stage
2) Cap stage
3) Bell stage
4) Maturation stage
The bell stage of tooth development is when the formation of dentin primarily occurs, along with enamel development.
Zinc phosphate cement powder contains zinc oxide, magnesium oxide, bismuth oxide
Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?
1) Heavy and continuous
2) Heavy and intermittent
3) Light and continuous
4) Light and intermittent
SOLUTION Light and continuous
Use of continuous light force is recommended to be applied for adult group of patient rather than intermittent force as applied by removable appliance.
with normal biologic functioning. In adult due to heavy force teeth may devitalize because the opening into the tooth (apical foramen) is smaller and blood vessels can be easily disrupted.
What is least important for the success of a post?
1) Diameter
2) Material
3) Luting agent
4) Length
While the luting agent is important, the diameter, material, and length of the post are more critical factors influencing the success of the post in retaining the restoration.
What is the first line of treatment for a patient with a lower lateral tooth extracted while the alveolus heals to cover the gap?
1) Conventional cantilever
2) Partial denture
3) Both
4) None
A partial denture is often the preferred option to replace missing teeth during the healing process, providing functional and aesthetic support.
Which immunoglobulin types are produced in the Peyer patches of the intestine?
1) IgG and IgE
2) IgA and IgM
3) IgM only
4) IgD only
Within the Peyer patches, B lymphocytes stimulate the production of IgA and IgM, which are crucial for mucosal immunity.
What cement is used to temporarily cement a crown?
1) Glass ionomer cement
2) Resin cement
3) Zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE)
4) Composite resin
ZOE is commonly used for the temporary cementation of crowns due to its ease of use and sedative properties.
The concentration of ketones is increased in body due to: 1. Starvation 2. High fat diet 3. Diabetes mellitus
The junction between primary and secondary dentine is:
1) A reversal line
2) Sharp curvature
3) A resting line
4) A reduction in the number of tubules
ADC Test Answer: 2
The relationship between primary and secondary dentine is characterized by a sharp transition in the curvature of dentinal tubules as changes in odontoblast activity occur post-eruption.
For anterior teeth restorations, which type of material is preferred due to its esthetics?
1) Amalgam
2) Glass ionomer
3) Composite resin
4) Dental cement
Composite resin is preferred for anterior teeth restorations due to its superior esthetic qualities, allowing for natural color matching.
Flaccid lip, digit sucking, high frenum attachment & poor muscle tone are the etiology of :
1) Anterior cross bite
2) Diastema
3) Anterior bite
4) Posterior cross bite
Midline diastema Etiology Normal developing dentition - (Ugly Ducking Stage) Parafunctional habits Retrognathic mandible/ Prognathic mandible Frenum attachments
- Flaccid lips along with poor muscle tone
- Simple Tongue thrust can cause anterior open bite as well as diastema
- Thumb sucking or digit sucking for a prolonged time period
Mesio-distal angulation of teeth
Tooth anomalies (eg.
Pathological (Juvenile periodontitis)
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a high-risk patient?
1) 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient
2) 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient
3) Level of viruses are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
4) Level of virus in saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
ADC Test Answer: 2
Hepatitis B is known to be significantly more infectious than HIV, and small amounts of Hepatitis B virus can lead to transmission.
Patient received a heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture is most likely to be present in:
1) Symphysis region
2) Left body of the mandible
3) Left sub-condylar region
4) Right sub-condylar region
ADC Test Answer: 3
Due to the mechanics of jaw fractures, a blow to one side may often result in a corresponding fracture on the contralateral sub-condylar region.
What is the purpose of the American with Disabilities Act (ADA) as it relates to dental care?
1) To set minimum standards for accessibility in dental offices
2) To require dentists to provide free care to patients with disabilities
3) To mandate that all dental procedures must be performed under general anesthesia for patients with special needs
4) To establish a government-funded program for special needs dentistry
The ADA requires that dental offices provide equal access to care for individuals with disabilities.
The first teeth to erupt in the dental arches of the human being are the, primary 1. mandibular cuspids 2. maxillary central incisors. 3. mandibular central incisors 4. maxillary first molars
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3The first teeth to erupt in the dental arches of the human being are the, primary mandibular central incisors
Thymol is preservative used for:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Desflurane
4) Enflurane
Halothane is stored in amber-colored bottles and contains thymol 0.01% as a preservative to prevent decomposition by light.
The major growth sites in mandible are:
1.Anterior surface of ramus
2.Condylar process
3.Anterior part of chin
4. Posterior surface of ramus:
1) 1,2,3
2) 2,4
3) 2,3,4
4) 2,3
•In two ways the overall pattern of growth of the mandible can be represented .It will depend on the frame of reference if both are correct.
On the other hand, it becomes apparent that the principal sites of growth of the mandible are the posterior surface of the ramus and the condylar and coronoid processes if data from vital staining experiments are examined. Along the anterior part of the mandible there is little change
• The chin is almost inactive as a growth site. As the actual growth occurs at the mandibular condyle and along the posterior surface of the ramus it is translated downward and forward. By periosteal apposition of bone on its posterior surface the body of the mandible grows longer , at the condyle accompanied by surface remodeling while the ramus grows higher by endochondral replacement
• Conceptually,wiht is correct to view the mandible as being translated downward and forward,though at the same time it increases in size by growing upward and backward. As the bone moves downward the translation occurs largely. As the bone moves downward and forward along with the soft tissues in which it is embedded the translation occurs largely
Which type of bridge is not ideal for posterior cantilever due to heavy
occlusal forces?
1) Single retainer cantilever
2) Multiple-splinted abutment
3) Cantilever with two abutment teeth
4) Fixed-fixed bridge
a single retainer cantilever is not ideal for posterior cantilever due to heavy occlusal forces, which can cause increased stress on the abutment tooth.
For a pigmented fissure, what is the best way to diagnose caries?
1) Visual examination
2) Radiographic examination
3) Investigate the area with a round bur
4) Transillumination
Investigating the area with a round bur allows for direct assessment of the fissure and any underlying carious lesions.
Ketamine is contraindicated in:
1) Hypertension
2) Raised intracranial tension
3) Raised intraocular tension
4) All of the above
Ketamine raises both systolic and diastolic blood pressures and is thus contraindicated in hypertension. It increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure and is thus contraindicated in raised intracranial tension. Ketamine raises intraocular tension and is thus contraindicated in glaucoma.
What is the first step in the process for immediate dentures?
1) Create a secondary impression
2) Record occlusion
3) Assess patient needs
4) Finish and polish
The first step involves a comprehensive assessment to understand the patient's requirements and expectations, followed by primary and secondary impressions.
Example Test for type IV hypersensitivity:
1) Coagulase test
2) Mantoux test
3) Schick test
4) Elek’s test
A classic example of delayed type IV hypersensitivity is the Mantoux tuberculin test in which skin induration indicates exposure to tuberculosis. This reaction is called "delayed hypersensitivity" because it is mediated by sensitized CD4+ T lymphocytes which process antigens in association with class II HLA molecules and release lymphokines. Hypersensitivity reactions with this mode of action include: Granulomatous diseases (mycobacteria, fungi) Tuberculin skin reactions Transplant rejection Contact dermatitis Cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) mediated responses: CD8+ T cells are generated and lyse specific cells.
The lymphokines promote a reaction (especially mediated through macrophages) beginning in hours but reaching a peak in 2 to 3 days.
-
Neoplastic cell lysis
-
Transplant rejection
-
Virus-infected cell lysis
What is the most common finding after a dental complaint in young children?
1) Acute periodontal abscess.
2) Chronic periodontal abscess.
3) Apical abscess.
4) Chronic alveolar abscess.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Young children are more prone to developing apical abscesses due to their immature immune systems and the prevalence of dental caries.
All the following are part of the HURIER Model of Listening, except:
1) Hearing.
2) Remembering.
3) Responding.
4) Encouraging.
The HURIER Model of Listening is a framework that outlines the different stages
of effective listening. It stands for Hearing, Understanding, Remembering,
Interpreting, Evaluating, and Responding. Encouraging is not part of this model
because it does not represent a specific stage of the listening process.
Encouraging is more related to the communication skills of the listener, rather
than a distinct step in the listening model.
What is force applied per unit area?
1) Strain
2) Stress
3) Couple
4) Center of resistance
SOLUTION Stress is the force applied per unit area while strain can be defined as the internal distortion per unit area.
Stress and strain are inter-related terms as stress is an external force acting upon a body while strain is the resultant of stress on that body.
Strain can be expressed in the form of a change in either the external dimension or internal energy of the body.
A patient on diuretics may experience which oral side effect? 1) Xerostomia (dry mouth) 2) Gingival hyperplasia 3) Stomatitis 4) Facial swelling
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 1Diuretics can lead to xerostomia, commonly observed in patients on long-term antihypertensive therapy.
Which diuretic class is most commonly used as first-line therapy in hypertension?
1) Loop diuretics
2) Thiazide diuretics
3) Potassium-sparing diuretics
4) Aldosterone antagonists
Thiazide diuretics are often the first-line choice in managing hypertension because of their efficacy and fewer side effects.
Ambroxol is a :
1) Mucolytic agent
2) Bronchial secretion enhancer
3) Antitussive
4) None of the above
Expectorants (Mucokinetics)
(a) Bronchial secretion enhancers : Sodium or Potassium citrate, Potassium iodide, Guaiphenesin (Glyceryl guaiacolate), balsum of Tolu, Vasaka, Ammonium chloride.
(b) Mucolytics: Bromhexine Ambroxol Acetyl cysteine Carbocisteine
Drug used in acute gout is?
1) Aspirin
2) Indomethacin
3) Phenylbutazone
4) Allopurinol
Treatment of acute gout is mainly to control symptoms, i.e.
The symptoms of acute gout are due to inflammation in the joints.
So, drugs which decrease inflammation are used in acute gout, i.e. anti-inflammatory drugs. Drugs are:- NSAIDs, Colchicine, Corticosteroids
What is the typical shape of a pit and fissure lesion?
1) Inverted V-shape
2) V-shape
3) U-shape
4) O-shape
Pit and fissure lesions begin narrow and widen as they progress into the tooth structure.
Which of the following antibiotics shows an incidence of approximately 8% cross-allergencity with penicillins?
1) Bacitracin
2) Erythromycin
3) Cephalexin
4) Vancomycin
Cephalosporins can cause allergic reactions in people with penicillin allergy.
it is generally recommended that those allergic to penicillin avoid cephalosporins all together.
Which medication is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)?
1) Verapamil
2) Spironolactone
3) Candesartan
4) Atenolol
Candesartan is an ARB, which lowers blood pressure by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) Desflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient of 0.42, so it has the fastest induction and recovery. Second fastest induction and recovery is with cyclopropane with blood gas partition coefficient of 0.44.
Presently, the treatment plan for the child going abroad in 6 months should focus on:
1) Extracting teeth and using space maintainers
2) Extracting all affected teeth and referring to an oral surgeon
3) Referring to an oral surgeon and orthodontist for comprehensive treatment
4) Restoring the affected teeth and monitoring
ADC Test Answer: 4
Restoring both affected teeth conservatively allows for continued function and aesthetics while developing a long-term plan that can be managed after moving.
What enzyme assists microorganisms when they are causing dentine caries?
1) Collagenase
2) Enolase
3) Lactoferrin
4) Amylase
Enolase is involved in the glycolytic pathway of bacteria, aiding in their metabolism and contributing to the caries process.
A 45-year-old patient awoke with a swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and edema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. The likely condition is:
1) Acute periapical abscess
2) Angioneurotic edema
3) Infectious mononucleosis
4) Acute maxillary sinusitis
ADC Test Answer: 2
Angioneurotic edema, or angioedema, involves rapid swelling of the deeper layers of the skin and can cause facial swelling without dental complaints, often following an allergic reaction.
What percentage of hypertension cases is accounted for by primary or essential hypertension? 1) 50% 2) 60% 3) 75% 4) 90%
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 4Primary or essential hypertension makes up about 90% of all hypertension cases, typically with no identifiable cause and is associated with factors like genetics, smoking, and obesity.
A woman aged 48 years visits a dermatologist to have a mole removed. The patient tells her physician that she got allergic reaction to a local anaesthetic the last time she had undergone dental work. Investigation of the lady's dental records by her dentist discloses that the patient received procaine for a tooth extraction. Among the following alternatives, which drug would be suitable for the present procedure?
1) Benzocaine
2) Chloroprocaine
3) Tetracaine
4) Mepivacaine
Two classes of local anaesthetics exist namely: Esters and Amides. The rule of thumb describes that in case you are allergic to one drug in a given class (generally the ester class), you will also be allergic to other drugs of the same class. The lady received procaine which is an ester in the present case. Hence, we need to identify Amide in the list of answers. Mepivacaine is the only amide listed here.
An approach to an impacted mandibular molar is achieved by:
1) Envelop flap
2) Bayonet flap
3) L-shaped flap
4) All of the above
All the listed flap techniques (envelop flap, bayonet flap, and L-shaped flap) are types of mucoperiosteal flaps used in oral surgery to access impacted teeth. Each flap has its indications and advantages, and the choice of flap depends on the specific clinical situation. The L-shaped flap, also known as Ward's incision, is commonly used for the removal of impacted teeth due to its effectiveness in providing access while minimizing tissue trauma.
A patient with a recent complete denture has an ulcer in the buccal sulcus. What is the likely cause?
A. Incorrect occlusion
B. Denture stability
C. Overextended flange
D. Material reaction
An ulcer in the buccal sulcus of recent denture wearers is often a result of overextended denture flanges irritating the soft tissues, leading to ulceration.
Glutamate-pyruvate trans-aminase is predominantly present In: 1. Skeletal muscle 2. Cardiac muscle 3. Brain 4. Liver
Biochemistry Answer: 4Glutamate-pyruvate trans-aminase is predominantly present In Liver
What enzyme assists microorganisms in the dentin caries process?
1) Enolase
2) Collagenase
3) Amylase
4) Lactoferrin
Enolase plays a crucial role in the metabolic processes of bacteria involved in dentin caries, facilitating their growth and acid production.
What is the most effective method for dietary advice for a child?
1) Tell the parents not to give sweets to the child
2) Dentist tells the child which are good and bad foods
3) Nurse talks to the child
4) Send the child to a dietician
Direct communication with the child about dietary choices can be more impactful than parental instructions alone.
Ropivacaine is pharmacologically similar to:
1) Lignocaine
2) Mepivacaine
3) Etidocaine
4) Bupivacaine
Ropivacaine is newer drug which is pharmacologically similar to bupivacaine with less cardiotoxicity.
What is the primary concern when using templates for dental records?
- Lack of flexibility
- High cost of implementation
- Limited accessibility for patients
- Requires advanced IT skills
While templates can help organize information, the primary concern is that they may not capture all individual aspects of a patient's case or allow for the nuances of personalized care.
Approximately 3 hours following a well-balanced meal, blood levels of which of the following are elevated?
1) Fatty acids
2) Glucagon
3) Glycerol
4) Chylomicrons
Following digestion, the products of digestion enter the bloodstream.
These include glucose, amino acids, triacylglycerides packaged into chylomicrons from the intestine, and very low density lipoproteins from the liver.
The hormone of anabolism, insulin, is also elevated because of the signaling of the glucose and amino acids in the blood, which allows release of insulin from the β-cells of the pancreas.
What is the recommended approach to treat a patient with severe dental phobia?
1) Immediate comprehensive treatment
2) Gradual exposure to dental procedures
3) Immediate surgery under general anesthesia
4) Avoiding dental treatment altogether
Gradual exposure through a process like systematic desensitization can help patients with severe dental phobia to build tolerance and overcome their fears.
Ultrashort acting blocker most commonly used in anaesthesia is:
1) Esmolol
2) Nadolol
3) Propranolol
4) Atenolol
Esmolol is metabolized by RBC esterase, making it very short-acting with a half-life of only 8-10 minutes.