Dentist Abroad
Ferrite and austenite are soft and ductile
What is the natural buffer in saliva that helps neutralize acidity and combat
demineralization?
1) Phosphoric acid (H3PO4)
2) Bicarbonate (HCO3-)
3) Carbonic acid (H2CO3)
4) Lactic acid
Saliva contains bicarbonate, which acts as a natural buffer to help maintain oral pH equilibrium and protect against demineralization.
Surface activity and low toxic potential?
1) Cocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Benzocaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is the correct answer because it has surface activity and low toxic potential.
What is the main cause of patient collapse with congestive heart failure in the dental clinic?
1) Allergic reaction to local anesthetics
2) Stress from surgical procedures
3) Use of certain antibiotics
4) Lack of hydration
Patients with congestive heart failure may collapse during dental procedures due to the increased cardiac workload and stress involved, which can exceed their heart's functional ability.
The steps of plaque formation on teeth are:
1) Pellicle, biofilm, materia alba, plaque
2) Biofilm, pellicle, plaque, materia alba
3) Pellicle, plaque, biofilm, materia alba
4) Materia alba, plaque, biofilm, pellicle
The formation of dental plaque begins with the deposition of a pellicle, a thin film of proteins and salivary components on the tooth surface. This pellicle provides a substrate for bacterial adhesion, leading to the development of a biofilm. As the biofilm matures, it can form a white, soft, and easily removable substance known as materia alba. If not removed, the biofilm can become mineralized and transform into the dense and firm structure recognized as dental plaque, which can contribute to the onset of gum disease and tooth decay.
Which antihypertensive class includes drugs that are specifically cardioselective or non-cardioselective?
1) ARBs
2) Beta-blockers
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) Diuretics
Beta-blockers can be cardioselective (e.g., Atenolol) or non-cardioselective (e.g., Propranolol), affecting their selectivity on heart rate.
Which of the following instruments is NOT typically used in a pulpotomy procedure?
1) Cotton pellets.
2) Spoon excavator.
3) Diamond bur.
4) Formocresol.
A diamond bur is not typically used in a pulpotomy procedure. A 330 bur is used to remove the roof of the pulp chamber.
Which of the following is NOT a component that reduces cariogenicity?
1) Sucrose
2) Galactose
3) Lactose
4) Fermented carbohydrates
Fermented carbohydrates are not listed as reducing cariogenicity.
In a patient shot in the back of the head with the bullet passing through the forehead, which bones are least likely to be damaged? 1) Maxilla and temporal 2) Frontal and parietal 3) Occipital and sphenoid 4) Zygoma and ethmoid
Anatomy Answer: 1The trajectory of the bullet from the back of the head to the forehead is less likely to involve the maxilla and temporal bones compared to the others.
The type of assertion that can be used when another person is involved in a
situation is:
1) Basic assertion.
2) Discrepancy assertion.
3) Empathic assertion.
4) Negative feelings assertion.
Empathic assertion is the type of assertion that can be used when another person
is involved in a situation. This type of assertion involves expressing one's
thoughts, feelings, and needs while also considering and acknowledging the
thoughts and feelings of the other person. It aims to create a balance between
assertiveness and empathy, allowing for effective communication and
understanding between both parties.
Highest analgesic effect is a feature of:
1) Ketamine
2) Thiopentone
3) Propofol
4) Etomidate
Ketamine is a very potent analgesic (maximum analgesia among all IV anaesthetics).
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that functions as a:
1) Vasodilator
2) ACE inhibitor
3) Beta-blocker
4) Calcium channel blocker
Hydralazine is a direct vasodilator that helps reduce blood pressure by relaxing vascular smooth muscle.
All of following are effects of being unassertive, except:
1) Having low self-esteem.
2) Becoming aggressive.
3) Having a lack of purpose.
4) Developing social anxiety.
Being unassertive can lead to various negative effects, such as having low self-esteem, developing social anxiety, and having a lack of purpose. However, becoming aggressive is not typically associated with being unassertive. In fact, individuals who are unassertive may tend to avoid confrontation and conflict, which is the opposite of aggression.
Which of the following enzymes is active in adipocytes following a heavy meal?
1) Glycogen phosphorylase
2) Glycerol kinase
3) Hormone-sensitive triacylglyceride lipase
4) Phosphatidate phosphatase
The enzyme phosphatidate phosphatase converts phosphatidic acid to diacylglycerol during synthesis of triacylglycerides. The function of adipose tissue is the storage of fatty acids as triacylglycerols in times of plenty and the release of fatty acids during times of fasting or starvation. Fatty acids taken in by adipocytes are stored by esterification to glycerol-3-phosphate.
Glycerol kinase is not present to any great extent in adipocytes, so that glycerol freed during lipolysis is not used to reesterify the fatty acids being released.
The enzyme triacylglyceride lipase is turned on by phosphorylation by a cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase following epinephrine stimulation.
What is the primary goal of behavior management in pediatric dentistry for a child with special needs?
1) Completing the dental treatment as quickly as possible
2) Minimizing the child's fear and anxiety
3) Maximizing parental involvement during procedures
4) Ensuring the child is fully sedated for all dental visits
Behavior management in pediatric dentistry for children with special needs focuses on creating a positive experience and reducing fear and anxiety.
Which clinical sign might indicate the need for a referral to a physician
or specialist when treating a geriatric patient?
1) Mild tooth sensitivity
2) History of hypertension
3) Postural issues
4) Uncontrolled diabetes
Uncontrolled diabetes can lead to complications that affect
dental treatment, making it essential to refer the patient for medical
management.
A medication that may elicit headache as a side effect :
1) thiazide
2) Methyldopa
3) hydralazine
4) Procainamide
A number of medications may elicit headache as a side effect.
Common offenders include nitroglycerin, hydralazine, calcium-channel blockers, digitalis, and estrogen.
Recreational drugs such as nicotine, alcohol, marijuana, and amphetamines can also induce headache.
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for providing passive immunity from the mother to the fetus?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgD
4) IgG
IgG is the immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus, offering protection against infections during the early stages of life.
What is the purpose of placing rests on the proximal surfaces of teeth?
1) To enhance aesthetics
2) To prevent food impaction
3) To facilitate easier cleaning
4) To allow for more room in the denture base
Rests on the proximal surfaces prevent food impaction between the minor connector and the tooth.
Fat Embolism is diagnosed by - 1. Fluffy Exudates in Retina 2. Fat Droplets in Sputum 3. Fat droplets in Urine
Which treatment is most effective for a patient exhibiting type I hypersensitivity to a kiwi?
1) Antihistamines
2) Corticosteroids
3) Immediate epinephrine
4) Intravenous fluids
For severe anaphylactic reactions related to type I hypersensitivity, such as from kiwi, immediate epinephrine administration is crucial for reversal of symptoms.
Which of the following antiviral drugs cannot be given orally?
1) Zidovudine
2) Zalcitabine
3) Acyclovir
4) Iodoxuridine
Idoxuridine acts as an antiviral agent against DNA viruses by inhibiting thymidilate phosphorylase and viral DNA polymerases.
The effect of Idoxuridine results in the inability of the virus to reproduce or to infect/destroy tissue.
This product is available in the following dosage forms:Solution and Ointment
You notice that your patient's submandibular lymph nodes are enlarged. You would look for potential infection sites in the?
1) Hard palate, upper lip, upper central incisor, and lower first molar
2) Hard palate.
3) Hard palate and upper lip.
4) Hard palate, upper lip, and upper central incisor.
The correct answer is hard palate, upper lip, upper central incisor, and lower first molar.
What is the purpose of using articulating paper during a stainless steel crown procedure?
1) To remove caries.
2) To reduce occlusal surface.
3) To check occlusion.
4) To mix cement.
Articulating paper is used to check occlusion during a stainless steel crown procedure.
what %age of NaF is used in iontophoresis:
1.1%
2.2%
3.3%
4.4%
2% NaF is used in iontophoresis. This fluoride treatments brings about granular precipitation in dentinal tubules and reduces tubular diameter.
A successful infraorbital nerve block will produce anaesthesia of the?
1) Maxillary anterior teeth.
2) Maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae and the upper lip
3) Maxillary anterior teeth and their labial gingivae.
4) Maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae, the upper lip and anterior hard palate
A successful infraorbital nerve block will produce anesthesia of the maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae, and the upper lip.
Which material is more hydrophilic: PVS or polyether?
1) PVS
2) Polyether
3) Both are equally hydrophilic
4) Neither is hydrophilic
Polyether is generally considered more hydrophilic compared to PVS (polyvinyl siloxane). Hydrophilic materials, like polyether, readily absorb water or are soluble in water, which can be advantageous in certain dental applications, such as improving the quality of impressions in moist environments or enhancing the bond between the material and the oral tissues. PVS, on the other hand, is a type of elastomeric impression material that is less hydrophilic but more accurate and easier to handle.
What is the dentist's evaluation of a patient's general health and appearance part of?
- Medical history
- Dental history
- Informed consent
- Treatment plan
The dentist's evaluation of a patient's general health and appearance is a critical component of the medical history, which informs the treatment approach.
Administration of which among the following anaesthetic agent results in a state of dissociative anaesthesia?
1) Ether
2) Propofol
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopentone sodium
Dissociative Anaesthesia refers to a characteristic state which results after an induction dose of Ketamine.
The primary action of aspirin is to:
1) Increase blood flow
2) Decrease blood pressure
3) Inhibit thrombin
4) Inhibit platelet aggregation via thromboxane A2
Aspirin exerts its anti-inflammatory and anti-platelet effects by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, particularly COX-1. This inhibition leads to decreased synthesis of thromboxane A2, a potent mediator of platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. By blocking thromboxane A2, aspirin helps prevent the formation of blood clots, thus reducing the risk of thrombotic events such as heart attacks and strokes.
The principle of justice in healthcare ethics refers to:
1) The obligation to tell the truth
2) Fair distribution of healthcare resources
3) The duty to act in the best interest of the patient
4) Respecting the patient's wishes
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Justice involves ensuring that patients receive fair and equitable access to healthcare resources and services, regardless of their background.
The principal role of Vitamin E in the prevention of oxidative damage is to potentiate the action of superoxide dismutase
A patient with osteitis and pus after a third molar extraction. Which antibiotic should be prescribed?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Metronidazole
3) Clindamycin
4) Cephalexin
Metronidazole is commonly used to treat infections associated with dental procedures, particularly those involving anaerobic bacteria, such as in cases of osteitis.
What is the significance of the Stephan Curve in dentistry?
1) It illustrates changes in oral pH after sugar exposure.
2) It describes the process of remineralization.
3) It indicates the types of bacteria present in the mouth.
4) It shows the composition of saliva.
The Stephan Curve describes how the pH of the oral cavity changes in response to sugar and acid exposure over time.
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) esflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient of 0.42, so has fastest induction and recovery.
Which blood vessels have softer walls?
1) Arteries
2) Veins
3) Arterioles
4) Capillaries
Veins have thinner walls and are more compliant than arteries, allowing them to accommodate varying volumes of blood.
What is the most common cause of malignant hyperthermia during GA?
1) Halothane.
2) Ketamine.
3) Sevoflurane.
4) Desflurane.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Malignant hyperthermia is a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetic agents, most commonly halothane, which leads to hypermetabolism in skeletal muscles and can cause muscle rigidity, high temperature, and acidosis.
According to Pell & Gregory classification, if the occlusal plane of the
impacted tooth is between the occlusal plane and the cervical line of the second
molar, the type of impaction is:
1) Class A
2) Class B
3) Class C
4) Class D
Pell & Gregory classification categorizes impactions based on the relationship of the impacted tooth to the second molar and the occlusal plane. Class B impaction indicates that the occlusal surface of the impacted tooth is located between the occlusal plane and the cervical line of the adjacent second molar, suggesting a moderate level of difficulty in extraction.
What is BMI (Body Mass Index) for, and how do we measure it?
1) To check if someone is overweight/obese/underweight; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m˛)
2) To measure muscle mass; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m)
3) To assess hydration levels; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m)
4) To determine bone density; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m˛)
BMI is a widely used indicator to classify individuals based on their weight relative to their height, helping to identify potential health risks associated with being underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese.
What is the role of color coding in dental records management?
1) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of records
2) To simplify the organization and retrieval of files
3) To indicate the financial status of patients
4) To differentiate between various dental procedures
Color coding can help in quickly identifying and organizing patient files, making retrieval more efficient.
What should not be included in a patient's dental record?
- Financial information
- Detailed treatment plans
- Patient's home address
- Insurance policy details
Financial information, such as insurance claims and payment vouchers, is not considered part of the patient's clinical record and should be kept separate.
What is the significance of erosive lichen planus?
1) High malignant potential
2) Some malignant potential
3) No malignant potential
4) Always requires surgical intervention
ADC Test Answer: 2
Erosive lichen planus can carry an increased risk for malignant transformation, but this potential varies among individuals.
What protein has I, T, and C subcomponents in muscle fibers?
1) Myosin
2) Actin
3) Troponin
4) Tropomyosin
Troponin is a regulatory protein complex in muscle fibers that includes I (inhibitory), T (tropomyosin-binding), and C (calcium-binding) subcomponents.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is known for its cardiovascular stability.
For geriatric patients with cognitive impairments, what is the best approach to
dental care?
1) Treating them without their consent
2) Involving caregivers in decision-making
3) Ignoring their concerns
4) Minimal interaction during treatment
Caregivers play a crucial role in the wellbeing of cognitively
impaired patients, and including them in treatment discussions ensures better
understanding and compliance.
Which of the following is NOT a form of neglect?
1) Failing to provide food and water
2) Leaving a child unsupervised in a dangerous environment
3) Verbally abusing a partner
4) Ignoring medical needs
Neglect involves failing to provide necessary care, such as food, water, and medical attention. Verbal abuse is a form of emotional abuse, not neglect.
What is the most appropriate treatment for an elderly patient with a loose
denture?
1) Relining the denture
2) Implant placement
3) Adhesive use
4) Removal of the denture
Relining the denture can help improve its fit and stability, making it more comfortable for the patient.
The retention pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed:
1) Parallel to the outer wall
2) Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
3) Perpendicular to the occlusal plane
4) Diagonal to the preparation
ADC Test Answer: 1
When placing a retention pin in an amalgam restoration, it should be oriented parallel to the outer walls for optimal retention and to avoid weakening the tooth structure.
What is the effect on local anesthetic when used with sodium bicarbonate?
- Increases speed and quality of anaesthesia
- Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
- Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
- Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
The speed of onset of Anaesthesia is raised by Sodium bicarbonate and further enhances its quality by elevating the intensity and duration of block.
Local anaesthetic agent which has antimuscarinic action on heart muscle receptors is:
1) Procaine
2) Cocaine
3) Chloroprocaine
4) None of the above
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic (and thus antimuscarinic) local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
The air-water spray used as a coolant in high speed cutting of a cavity will
1. Decrease pulp damage.
2. Reduce frictional heat.
3. Keep the operating site clean.
4. Reduce clogging of cutting instruments.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
33) (2) and (4)
4) All of the above.
The air-water spray serves multiple purposes during dental procedures:
- Decrease pulp damage: By cooling the tooth structure, it helps prevent thermal injury to the pulp.
- Reduce frictional heat: The spray minimizes heat generated by the cutting instrument.
- Keep the operating site clean: The spray helps wash away debris and blood, providing better visibility.
- Reduce clogging of cutting instruments: It helps to clear debris from the cutting surface, maintaining instrument efficiency.
Which of the following is a key step in preparing a tooth for a stainless steel crown?
1) Reducing the occlusal surface.
2) Placing a rubber dam.
3) Applying a sealant.
4) Using a diamond bur to prepare the crown.
Before placing a stainless steel crown, the occlusal surface needs to be reduced to ensure proper fit and prevent interference with opposing teeth.
What is the most common finding after a dental complaint in young children?
1) Acute periodontal abscess.
2) Chronic periodontal abscess.
3) Apical abscess.
4) Chronic alveolar abscess.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Young children are more prone to developing apical abscesses due to their immature immune systems and the prevalence of dental caries.
Lip cancer survival rates are generally:
1) Higher in black males
2) Higher in white females
3) Higher in Hispanic males
4) Higher in Asian females
Lip cancer survival rates are influenced by various factors, including the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, the individual's health, and the effectiveness of treatment. Although the question implies that white females have the highest survival rates, it's essential to note that survival rates can be different across different populations. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in lip cancer, regardless of ethnicity.
What is the role of glycoproteins in the saliva's natural defense against
dental caries?
1) They act as a physical barrier to protect the tooth surface from bacteria.
2) They neutralize bacterial acids.
3) They inhibit the formation of plaque.
4) They promote the growth of beneficial oral bacteria.
Glycoproteins in saliva help to aggregate bacteria, making them easier to eliminate during swallowing and reducing their ability to adhere to tooth surfaces.
What is the purpose of the American with Disabilities Act (ADA) as it relates to dental care?
1) To set minimum standards for accessibility in dental offices
2) To require dentists to provide free care to patients with disabilities
3) To mandate that all dental procedures must be performed under general anesthesia for patients with special needs
4) To establish a government-funded program for special needs dentistry
The ADA requires that dental offices provide equal access to care for individuals with disabilities.
Which area should be checked for lacerations in patients with suspected mandibular fractures, particularly those with facial hair? 1) Submental area 2) Nasal septum 3) Buccal mucosa 4) Frontal sinus
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 1Lacerations in the submental area (under the chin) can be missed in patients with significant facial hair. This area should be carefully examined for any signs of trauma, especially in patients with mandibular fractures.
Which of the following is NOT one of the Four Cs of record keeping?
- Clear
- Comprehensive
- Concise
- Contemporaneous
The Four Cs of record keeping are Contemporaneous, Clear, Concise, and Complete.
Which anesthetic is known to penetrate the bone better?
1) Lidocaine
2) Articaine
3) Bupivacaine
4) Mepivacaine
Articaine has a unique chemical structure that facilitates better penetration of bone, making it very effective in dental anesthesia, especially for inferior alveolar nerve blocks.
Primary teeth begin to calcify between the ________ and ________months in
utero.
1) first; second
2) second; fourth
3) fourth; sixth
4) sixth; eighth
The primary teeth begin to form in utero at about six weeks.
Which soft palate muscle is not affected by a laceration of the mucosa
1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar?
1) Tensor veli palatini
2) Palatoglossus
3) Palatopharyngeus
4) Levator veli palatini
A laceration of the mucosa 1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar is unlikely to damage the levator veli palatini as it is located above the palatoglossal fold.
What is the kind of bur used for refinement and polishing of composites?
1) Fine carbide.
2) Diamond.
3) Both A and B.
4) Disc.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Both fine carbide burs and diamond burs are effective for the refinement and polishing of composite materials.
What is the typical pH of a healthy oral environment?
1) 5.0-5.5.
2) 6.0-6.5.
3) 7.0.
4) 7.5-8.0.
ADC Test Answer: 3
A healthy oral environment has a neutral pH of around 7.0, which helps maintain the integrity of the tooth structure and prevent dental decay.
Ante’s Law states that:
1) The pericemental area of the abutment teeth must exceed that of the replaced tooth
2) The abutments must be anatomically similar to the replaced tooth
3) The root length of abutments should be equal to the replaced tooth
4) There should be no mobility in abutment teeth
ADC Test Answer: 1
Ante's Law asserts that the combined periodontal support of the abutment teeth must be greater than that of the teeth being replaced to ensure stability.
The essential. sulphur containing amino acid is: 1. Methionine 2. Cystetne 3. Cystine 4. Valine
Biochemistry Answer: 1Methionine is sulphur containing AminoAcid
Impressions taken with which of the following materials are subject to distortion as a result of water sorption? 1. silicone rubber 2. polysulflde polymers 3. zinc oxide-eugenol-paste 4. polyether
Dental Material Answer: 4polyether materials are subject to distortion as a result of water sorption
What is the general guideline for discussing risks with patients?
1) Only discuss risks that are common and severe
2) Discuss all possible risks, no matter how rare
3) Only discuss risks that patients inquire about
4) It is not necessary to discuss risks if the treatment is routine
Healthcare providers should inform patients about common and severe
risks that have a reasonable chance of occurring, allowing them to make an
informed decision.
What happens if a dentist does not obtain informed consent before performing
a procedure?
1) The dentist can be charged with assault
2) The patient can refuse to pay for the treatment
3) The treatment is automatically considered successful
4) The dentist's insurance will cover any resulting complications
Performing a procedure without informed consent can be considered a violation of the patient's right to self-determination and may result in legal consequences, including charges of assault or battery.
A patient on diuretics may experience which oral side effect? 1) Xerostomia (dry mouth) 2) Gingival hyperplasia 3) Stomatitis 4) Facial swelling
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 1Diuretics can lead to xerostomia, commonly observed in patients on long-term antihypertensive therapy.
The first ossification center of the mandible in six weeks old human embryo is found in which of the following locations
1) Future coronoid process
2) Future condylar process
3) Future mental foramen
4) Future mandibular foramen
SOLUTION The mandible is ossified in the fibrous membrane covering the outer surfaces of Meckel’s cartilages. These cartilages form the cartilaginous bar of the mandibular arch, and are two in number, a right and a left. Ossification takes place in the membrane covering the outer surface of the ventral end of Meckel’s cartilage , and each half of the bone is formed from a single center which appears, near the mental foramen, about the sixth week of fetal life. By the tenth week the portion of Meckel’s cartilage which lies below and behind the incisor teeth is surrounded and invaded by the membrane bone
Following the injection of 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, a
nervous 22 year old male with well
controlled insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels dizzy and weak. Beads
of sweat have accumulated on
his forehead and upper lip. He is quite pale. The initial management of this
patient is to
1) administer glucagon 1.0mg.
2) administer epinephrine 0.5mg.
3) administer diphenhydramine 50mg.
4) elevate the patient's legs and administer 100% oxygen.
These symptoms suggest vasovagal syncope or hypoglycemia; elevating legs improves circulation, and oxygen supports recovery.
What is the correct order for removing personal protective equipment (PPE)
at the end of a procedure?
1) Face shield, gown, mask, gloves
2) Gloves, mask, gown, face shield
3) Gown, face shield, mask, gloves
4) Mask, gloves, gown, face shield
The correct order for removing PPE is to first remove the gloves, then the mask, followed by the gown, and finally the face shiel4) This order helps to prevent contamination of the skin and mucous membranes during the removal process.
Which of the following is a common form of neglect that can lead to significant dental problems?
1) Failure to provide dental care
2) Forcing a child to eat only sugary foods
3) Physical abuse to the head and neck region
4) Emotional abuse
Neglect often manifests as the failure to provide essential dental care, leading to severe dental problems.
In which stages of tooth development does the enamel organ form?
1) Bud stage
2) Cap stage
3) Bell stage
4) All of the above
The enamel organ develops through different stages of tooth development, including the bud, cap, and bell stages, contributing to tooth enamel formation.
Is measles caused by an RNA or DNA virus?
1) RNA virus
2) DNA virus
3) Both
4) Neither
Measles is caused by a single-stranded RNA virus, specifically the measles virus.
If maxillary canines are placed forward to orbital plane, they are said to be in
1) Protraction
2) Retraction
3) Abstraction
4) Contraction
Orthodontics Answer: 1
SOLUTION According to Simon, in normal arch relationship, the orbital plane passes through the distal axial aspect of the maxillary canine Malocclusions described as anteropostenor deviations based on their distance from the orbital plane are as follows: 1.
Simon used the orbital plane (a plane perpendicular to the F-H plane at the margin of the bony orbit directly under the pupil of the eye).
2. Retraction: The teeth, one or both dental arches and/or jaws are too far backward, i.e. placed posterior to the plane than normal
What is the purpose of a chisel in oral surgery?
1) To split teeth
2) To remove bone
3) To elevate soft tissue
4) To luxate teeth
A chisel is used in oral surgery to cut or remove bone, often during procedures such as apicoectomy or osteotomy.
What is the percentage of leukocytes required for extraction to be carried out?
1) 30 x 10^9
2) 50 x 10^9
3) 70 x 10^9
4) 100 x 10^9
A leukocyte count of 50 x 10^9 is often considered a threshold for safely performing dental extractions, as it indicates adequate immune function.
What is the first step in the "Tell-Show-Do" technique for explaining a dental procedure to an anxious patient?
1) Show the patient what will happen
2) Describe the sensation the patient might feel
3) Tell the patient what you are going to do
4) Perform the procedure
The Tell-Show-Do technique involves explaining the procedure in simple terms, demonstrating it with a model or the patient's hand, and then performing the actual procedure.
What enzyme assists microorganisms in the dentin caries process?
1) Enolase
2) Collagenase
3) Amylase
4) Lactoferrin
Enolase plays a crucial role in the metabolic processes of bacteria involved in dentin caries, facilitating their growth and acid production.
Which vitamin deficiency can lead to scurvy, affecting gingival tissues?
1) Vitamin A
2) Vitamin B12
3) Vitamin C
4) Vitamin D
Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakened collagen synthesis and can result in bleeding gums and other oral health issues.
The recommended level of fluoride in drinking water for temperate climate zones
is 1 ppm. This level is considered optimal for preventing tooth decay and
promoting dental health. It is important to maintain the right balance of
fluoride in drinking water as too little fluoride may not provide the desired
benefits, while too much fluoride can lead to dental fluorosis, a condition that
causes discoloration and damage to tooth enamel. Therefore, 1 ppm is the
recommended level to ensure the right amount of fluoride for dental health.
Defluoridation of water can be done by:
1)
Lime and alum
2)
Bleaching powders
3)
Potassium permanganate
4)
Sodium chloride
One of the most effective methods for defluoridation is the Nalgonda
technique, which involves the use of lime, alum, and bleaching powder.
What is the primary purpose of informed consent in dentistry?
1) To protect the dentist from legal liability
2) To ensure the patient understands and voluntarily agrees to the proposed
treatment
3) To provide the patient with financial information about the treatment
4) To obtain the patient's signature for insurance purposes
Informed consent is a process where the dentist communicates with the patient about the diagnosis, the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment, alternative treatment options, and the patient's right to refuse or withdraw consent. The primary goal is to empower the patient to make an informed decision regarding their dental care.
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following
anaesthetic:
1) lsoflurane
2) Halothane
3) Desflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient of 0.42, so has
fastest induction and recovery. Second fastest induction and recovery is with
cyclopropane with blood gas partition coefficient of 0.44.
Bone tissue grows by
1) Apposition
2) Interstitial growth
3) Osteoclastic growth
4) Mesenchymal tissue growth
SOLUTION Interstitial growth, simply means that it occurs at all points within the tissue.
The use of a reservoir on the sprue of a wax pattern decreases
1) volumetric changes in the casting.
2) casting porosity from inclusion of gases.
3) casting porosity from inclusion of foreign bodies.
4) casting porosity during solidification
A reservoir serves as a storage area for molten material and allows for a
consistent flow of metal into the mold during the casting process. This helps to
fill in any shrinkage that occurs during cooling and solidification, thereby
reducing the formation of porosity defects in the final casting.
In temporomandibular joint least vascularity is seen in which of the following:
1) Articular cartilage
2) Anterior part of articular cartilage
3) Posterior part of articular cartilage
4) Central part of articular disc
In permanent teeth, two pulp canals are most commonly found in the
1) distobuccal root of maxillary molars.
2) distal root of mandibular first molars.
3) palatal root of maxillary first premolars.
4) mesial root of mandibular first molars.
The mesial root of mandibular first molars is known to commonly contain two pulp canals. This anatomical feature is significant for endodontic treatment, as it requires careful exploration and cleaning to ensure all canals are adequately treated.
The gas with greatest solubility in blood:
1) Nitrous oxide
2) Nitrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Hydrogen
Although the solubility of nitrous oxide in blood is less than other inhalational agents its solubility is 35 limes more than nitrogen and 15 times more than oxygen
Which of the following statements about muscle fibers is correct?
1) The A band is made of Myosin
2) Troponin combines with calcium
3) Troponin has I, T, and C subcomponents
4) All of the above
All the statements are correct.
What is the best approach to ensure the cooperation of a patient with autism spectrum disorder during dental treatment?
1) Sticking strictly to a predefined treatment schedule
2) Providing a structured and predictable environment
3) Using bright, flashing lights in the operatory
4) Asking the patient to hold their mouth open without support
Patients with autism may benefit from a structured environment with minimal sensory stimulation.
How does fluoride in saliva promote tooth remineralization?
1) It forms hydrogen bonds with phosphate ions in the apatite structure.
2) It forms a more stable crystal structure with calcium called fluorapatite.
3) It reacts with carbonate ions to form calcium carbonate.
4) It produces an alkaline environment that dissolves hydroxyapatite.
Fluoride ions in saliva can replace hydroxyl ions in the hydroxyapatite lattice, creating fluorapatite, which is more resistant to acid attack.
Type 1 diabetes is more common in which of the following populations?
1) Hispanics
2) Africans
3) Asians
4) Non-Hispanic Whites
Type 1 diabetes has a higher incidence among non-Hispanic whites, particularly in children. This demographic shows a greater prevalence of the autoimmune condition compared to other ethnic groups.
Acetylcholinesterase receptor opens an ion channel, undergoes irreversible conformational changes when exposed to carbamates , it is inactivated in myasthenia gravis
What characterizes the action of saliva on dental plaque?
1) It increases plaque pH immediately.
2) It has no effect on plaque acidity.
3) It dilutes and neutralizes plaque acidity.
4) It only coats teeth without affecting pH.
Saliva plays a crucial role in maintaining oral health by diluting and carrying away acid metabolites produced by plaque bacteria, thus helping to neutralize acidity and reduce the risk of caries development.
Disto buccal root of upper first molar is supplied by:
1) Buccal nerve
2) Middle superior alveolar nerve
3) Posterior superior alveolar nerve
4) Infra orbital nerve
The disto buccal root of the upper first molar is supplied by the posterior superior alveolar nerve.
The normal growing mandible exhibits which of the following characteristics?
1) Resorbs along the posterior rami.
2) Grows more vertically than horizontally.
3) Has completed 100% of its growth by age 13 in females.
4) Has latent post-pubertal growth potential.
Oral Embryology Answer: 4Mandibular growth continues into adulthood, with post-pubertal growth potential contributing to facial development and occlusal changes.
Which maxillary tooth is most prone to fracture during extraction?
1) Maxillary first molar
2) Maxillary first premolar
3) Maxillary canine
4) Maxillary second premolar
Maxillary second premolars are more likely to fracture due to their two curved and divergent roots.
What is the most common site for oral cancer within the mouth?
1) Hard palate
2) L ateral borders of the tongue
3) Floor of the mouth
4) Buccal mucosa
The lateral borders of the tongue are the most frequently affected site for oral cancer, particularly in the context of squamous cell carcinoma.
What is the most critical aspect of communication with geriatric patients?
1) Using technical dental terminology
2) Using complex sentence structures
3) Speaking loudly
4) Being patient and empathetic
Effective communication with elderly patients often involves
patience, empathy, and simplifying explanations to address potential hearing or
cognitive impairments.
A medication that reduces the rate of aqueous humor formation in acute glaucoma
1) phenothiazines
2) amphotericin B
3) Isoniazid
4) carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Carbonic anhydrase is found in erythrocytes, kidney, gut, ciliary body, choroid plexus, and glial cells.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used primarily as probes for studying renal transport mechanisms and in the treatment of glaucoma
When used to treat glaucoma, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors diminish the transport of HCO3 - and Na+ by the ciliary process, which limits intraocular pressure.
This reduces the formation of aqueous humor by up to 50%, thereby reducing the intraocular pressure.
Which of the following conditions is an example of a mucous retention
phenomenon?
1) Nasopalatine cyst.
2) Koplik’s spots.
3) Ranula
4) Residual cyst.
A ranula is a mucous cyst caused by obstruction of the sublingual or
submandibular salivary glands.
It presents as a swelling in the floor of the mouth, typically painless unless
infected
What is the most common type of periodontal charting? 1) Probing depths 2) Gingival recession 3) Tooth mobility 4) Furcation involvement
Dental Records Answer: 1Probing depths are the most commonly recorded periodontal charting measurement. They indicate the distance from the free gingival margin to the bottom of the periodontal pocket and are crucial in assessing the health of the periodontium.
Where are occlusal rests typically located?
1) On the incisal edge of teeth
2) On the lingual surface of teeth
3) On the occlusal surface of posterior teeth
4) On the mesial surface of teeth
Occlusal rests are seated on the occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth to provide stability.
The first tapping sound, known as the Korotkoff sound, represents the systolic pressure.
Which one of the following statements is true as defined in endodontics?
1) Overfilling refers to the incomplete filling of the canal system with a
surplus of material extruding beyond the apical foramen.
2) Under filling refers to the complete filling of the canal space, but leaving
voids in the pulp chamber for possible recontamination or infection.
3) Overextension refers to the extrusion of filling material through an
accessory canal.
4) Under extension refers to the vertical extent of the filling material
regardless of its completeness of obturation.
In endodontics, "under extension" specifically refers to the filling material not reaching the appropriate vertical length within the canal system, which can leave parts of the canal unfilled. This is distinct from other terms like overfilling or underfilling, which have different implications regarding the completeness and placement of the filling material.
What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dyskeratosis
Acantholysis is the key histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of vesicles and ulcers in the oral mucosa.
Laminar flow is mainly dependent on:
1) Density
2) Viscosity
3) Solubility
4) Molecular weight
Laminar flow mainly depends on the viscosity of the gas, while turbulent flow is more dependent on density.
Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except?
1) Isoniazid
2) Cyclosporine
3) Levodopa
4) Hydralazine
Pyridoxine – drug interactions : INH – induces a pyridoxine deficiency state
Levodopa – pyridoxine promotes peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine – thus it decreases therapeutic action of levodopa in the brain
Oral contraceptive pills – decrease pyridoxine levels in some females
Hydralazine – impairment of pyridoxine utilisation
4-deoxy pyridoxine – pyridoxine antagonist
What is the purpose of a progress note in a dental record?
- To document the patient's current condition and the treatment provided
- To outline the patient's future treatment needs
- To communicate with the patient's other healthcare providers
- To justify the fees charged for services
A progress note is used to record the patient's current condition, any changes observed since the last visit, the treatment provided during the appointment, and the dentist's observations and findings.
What type of dental chair is most suitable for a patient with severe mobility issues?
1) A standard chair with a transfer board
2) A chair with power-operated height and tilt adjustments
3) A chair designed for pediatric patients
4) A chair with wheels for easy movement
A chair with power-operated height and tilt adjustments allows for greater accessibility and comfort for patients with severe mobility issues, making it easier to perform necessary dental procedures.
You suspect that your patient has an enlarged submandibular salivary gland. You expect the enlarged gland?
1) To be palpable intraorally
2) Only to be detectable by radiographical examination.
3) To be palpable both intra- and extraorally
4) To be palpable extraorally.
When a submandibular salivary gland is enlarged, it can be palpable both intraorally (inside the mouth) and extraorally (outside the mouth).
The principal internal retention for a Class V amalgam cavity preparation is
established at the
1) occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line angles.
2) mesio-axial and disto-axial line angles.
3) mesio-gingival and disto-gingival line angles.
4) none
These line angles provide resistance and retention in a Class V preparation by
preventing dislodgment of the restoration.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining dental records?
1) To fulfill legal obligations
2) To provide continuity of care
3) To assist in malpractice claims
4) All of the above
Dental records serve multiple purposes, including legal compliance, continuity of care, and providing evidence in malpractice claims.
Which behavior might indicate that a patient is anxious during a dental consultation?
1) Asking questions about the procedure
2) Maintaining eye contact
3) Fidgeting and avoiding eye contact
4) Relaxed body language
Physical signs, such as fidgeting and avoiding eye contact, are common indicators of anxiety in patients.
What is the primary method of preventing the spread of infectious diseases in the dental office?
1) Use of antimicrobial mouth rinses
2) Environmental cleaning and disinfection
3) Immunization of dental personnel
4) Use of hand sanitizers
While all the options listed are important in infection control, environmental cleaning and disinfection is the primary method of preventing the spread of infectious diseases in the dental office.
The drug currently in wide use for treating opioid dependent individuals 1. methadone 2. pentazocine 3. alphaprodine 4. meperidine
Pharmacology Answer: 1The drug currently in wide use for treating opioid dependent individuals is metahdone
Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is:
1) Fibroedematous
2) Edematous
3) Fibrotic
4) Formed within an infrabony pocket
Edematous tissue is more likely to shrink after curettage due to the presence of excess fluid.
Which of the following best describes ergonomic hazards in dentistry?
1) Exposure to infectious diseases
2) Improper use of dental materials
3) Repetitive motions and awkward postures
4) Chemical exposure from disinfectants
Ergonomic hazards involve physical strain from repetitive motions and awkward postures that can lead to musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals.
Which of the following restorations is the most appropriate for the replacement
of a maxillary permanent lateral incisor where there is 4.5mm of mesial-distal
space and an intact central incisor?
1) Implant supported restoration.
2) Cantilever pontic FPD using canine abutment.
3) Removable partial denture.
4) Three-unit metal-ceramic full coverage fixed dental prosthesis.
Cantilevered fixed partial dentures can be more successful in anterior quadrant than posterior because the forces are less in anterior region than posterior one. The cantilevered FPD requires at least two abutment teeth.
Which condition is characterized by the presence of intraoral fibromas?
1) Lichen planus
2) Fibromatosis
3) Pemphigus vulgaris
4) Epulis
An epulis is a benign tumor characterized by fibrous tissue growth in the gingiva that can present as intraoral fibromas.
Activation of a reverse labial bow is done by?
1) Opening the loop
2) Compressing the loop
3) Reversing the loop
4) Bending the loop
Reverse labial bow is so called as activation of the bow is done by opening the U-loop, instead of compressing as is seen in the conventional labial bows.
What is the best way to communicate with a patient who has an intellectual disability?
1) Using medical jargon to assert authority
2) Using simple language and visual aids
3) Ignoring the patient and speaking only to their caregiver
4) Relying on nonverbal cues from the patient
Communicating with a patient with an intellectual disability requires patience and clarity.
What is the typical onset of pain for a dry socket?
1) Immediately post-extraction
2) 3-4 days post-extraction
3) 1 week post-extraction
4) 2 weeks post-extraction
Dry socket pain typically starts 3-4 days after tooth extraction due to clot breakdown and bone exposure.
Which type of caries is characterized by a brown or black appearance and is
resistant to caries?
1) Acute caries
2) Chronic caries
3) Arrested caries
4) Incipient caries
Arrested caries are brown or black and become caries-resistant, especially when exposed to fluoride.
What is the primary risk factor for developing periodontitis?
1) Smoking
2) Poor oral hygiene
3) Genetics
4) All of the above
Smoking, poor oral hygiene, and genetic predisposition are all significant risk factors in the development of periodontitis.
The thoracic duct is located in the:
1) Anterior mediastinum
2) Posterior mediastinum
3) Middle mediastinum
4) Lateral mediastinum
The thoracic duct lies in the posterior mediastinum, between the descending thoracic aorta and the azygos vein.
During treatment, the dentist observes that the patient is clenching their fists. This reaction likely indicates:
1) Interest in the procedure
2) Relaxation
3) Anxiety or fear
4) Satisfaction with the treatment
Clenching fists is a common physical response to anxiety or fear, indicating that the patient may need additional support.
A picture of the gingiva of a black person with melanin pigmentation and a white line across the central incisors. What is the cause of the white line?
1) Amelogenesis imperfecta
2) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
3) Hypo-mineralization
4) Fluorosis
The white line is likely due to hypo-mineralization, which can occur due to various factors, including nutritional deficiencies or environmental influences.
Following trauma to the tooth, if there is no response to pulp tests the next day you should:
1) Review again later
2) Start endodontic treatment
3) Extraction of tooth
4) Perform additional sensibility tests
ADC Test Answer: 1
Initial negative responses may not indicate pulp necrosis, as the pulp could still be viable, so follow-up is essential to confirm the diagnosis.
How much force is usually used to move a tooth with an orthodontic appliance?
- extremely light force, less than 1 gram
- moderate force, in the range of 50 to 150 grams
- very heavy force, greater than 500 grams
- whatever the patient can tolerate
moderate force, in the range of 50 to 150 grams
Guiding planes on abutment teeth for a removable partial denture should be prepared before the occlusal rests are prepared in order to:
1) Avoid post-insertion adjustment.
2) Facilitate surveying of the cast.
3) Finalize the location of the occlusal rest.
4) Improve the retention of the direct retainer assembly.
FPD and RPD Answer: 3
Which bacteria is primarily associated with enamel caries?
1) Lactobacillus
2) Actinomyces
3) Streptococcus mutans
4) Porphyromonas gingivalis
S. mutans is a major contributor to enamel caries due to its acidogenic and aciduric properties.
A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is 1. Thiamine 2 Folic acid 3 Pyridoxine 4 Riboflavin
Biochemistry Answer: 3A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is Pyridoxine
How should patient records be organized in a traditional paper filing system?
- Alphabetically by patient surname
- Chronologically by appointment date
- By the amount paid for services
- By the dentist who treated the patient
For easy retrieval, patient records are typically organized alphabetically, usually by the patient's last name.
Which of the following drugs acts by enzyme inhibition?
1) salbutamol
2) acetazolamide
3) tolbutamide
4) chlorpromazine
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces aqueous humour production and is therefore indicated in glaucoma to reduce the intraocular pressure.
Salbutamol is a selective, short-acting beta2-agonist used as a bronchodilator in asthma.
Chlorpromazine is an aliphatic neuroleptic antipsychotic drug used in schizophrenia.
Polyethers are susceptible to dimensional change if immersed for a long time. The recommended maximum time to immerse in disinfectant is
1) 1 minute
2) 10 minutes
3) 30 minutes
4) 1 hour
The polyethers are susceptible to dimensional change if immersed for a long time (>10 min) because of their pronounced hydrophilic nature.
What percentage of people in the UK drink excessively?
1) 20%
2) 30%
3) 40%
4) 50%
Approximately 50% of men and 30% of women in the UK exceed the recommended weekly alcohol guidelines.
What dental relationship is present in an Angle Class I occlusion?
Orthodontics Answer: 31. The buccal cusp of the maxillary second premolar aligns with the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
2. The cusp of the maxillary canine aligns with the cusp of the mandibular canine.
3. The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar aligns with the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
4. The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar aligns with the embrasure between the mandibular first molar and second premolar.
The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar aligns with the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
Selective medium for streptococcus mutans?
1 mac conkey medium
2 mitis salivarius bacitracin agar
3 neutrient agar
4 tellurite medium
Colonies of E. coli serotype O157:H7 appear on Mac Conkey Sorbitol Agar as colourless colonies non-sorbitol fermenter. Others E. coli, sorbitol fermenters, give red colonies and gram-negative non-sorbitol fermenters appear translucent.
Exposure of the patient to ionizing radiation when taking a radiograph is NOT REDUCED by:
1) The use of fast film
2) Decreasing the kilovoltage (kVp)
3) Collimation of the beam
4) The use of an open and lead-lined cone
ADC Test Answer: 2
Decreasing the kilovoltage can actually increase exposure time and radiation dose, as it reduces the energy of the x-rays produced.
Which items should be disposed of in a sharps container?
1) Used gloves
2) Wedges
3) Cotton rolls
4) Plastic syringes
Items like wedges and silicone syringe tips can puncture typical waste bags and must be disposed of in a sharps container to prevent injury and contamination.
What is the most likely cause for the failure of a long-standing post-crown?
1) The post was too narrow
2) The post was too short
3) Failing root canal treatment
4) Presence of a vertical root fracture
Vertical root fractures often lead to the failure of a post-crown, especially if there are no other evident issues like caries or post malposition.
Which of the following is NOT a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy used in managing dental anxiety?
1) Systematic desensitization
2) Guided imagery
3) Dental hypnosis
4) Exposure therapy
While hypnosis can be used in dentistry for pain management and relaxation, it is not typically classified as a form of cognitive-behavioral therapy. Exposure therapy, systematic desensitization, and guided imagery are examples of cognitive-behavioral techniques.
A tooth makes its appearance in the oral cavity usually when 1. all of the crown is completed 2. all of the root is completed 3. one half of the root is completed 4. one half of the crown is completed
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3A tooth makes its appearance in the oral cavity usually when one half of the root is completed
Condylar fractures account for 26% of all mandibular fractures, often resulting from falls or trauma to the chin.
The most common malignant lesion found in the oral cavity is:
1) Ameloblastoma
2) Squamous cell carcinoma
3) Osteosarcoma
4) Adenocarcinoma
ADC Test Answer: 2
Squamous cell carcinoma constitutes approximately 90% of oral malignancies and is often seen as ulcers or lumps in the oral tissues.
Which of the following cements bonds to tooth structure, which has an anticariogenic effect, has a degree of translucency and does not irritate the pulp?
1) Polycarboxylate cement
2) Resin cement
3) Silicate Cement
4) Glass ionomer cement
Chelation of carboxyl groups of the polyacids with the calcium in the apatite of enamel and dentin is the main mechanism through which glass ionomer bonds to tooth structure. Glass ionomers release fluoride which results in the inhibiton of the progression of secondary caries.
They elicit a greater pulp reaction as compared to ZnoE but generally less compared to zinc phosphate cement.
Which of the following viruses has the greatest chance of transmission in an
occupational exposure to a vaccinated
dental healthcare worker?
1) Hepatitis B
2) Hepatitis C
3) HIV.
4) HPV.
Hepatitis C has a significant risk of blood borne transmission, especially via
needle sticks.
What is the first step in the process for immediate dentures?
1) Create a secondary impression
2) Record occlusion
3) Assess patient needs
4) Finish and polish
The first step involves a comprehensive assessment to understand the patient's requirements and expectations, followed by primary and secondary impressions.
The active immunity offered by tetanus toxoid is effectively in nearly:
1. 25 % of the patients.
2. 50 % of the patients.
3. 75 % of the patients.
4. 100 % of the patients.
80 - 100 % so nearly 100 -- 75 % also equally correct
If a partially set material is seated, the die material obtained from such impression will be
1) Oversized
2) Undersized
3) Retains its dimension due to elasticity of the material
4) Dimensions will be un changed but may leave a rough surface
If Impression tray comprising of elastomeric impression material is seated too late as elasticity starts to develop, raised seating pressure is applied to overcome the stiffness of impression material. Because of recovery of excessive elastic deformation there is development of distortion
The die produced in the inaccurate impression is too narrow and too short.
Rushton bodies are commonly seen in which of the following conditions?
1) Ultraviolet rays
2) Ultrasonic vibrations
3) Lichen planus
4) Radicular cyst
Rushton bodies are translucent or pink staining lamellar bodies formed by the epithelium of radicular cysts, indicating the odontogenic origin of the cyst.
Which of the following is a thiazide diuretic commonly used to manage hypertension?
1) Furosemide
2) Amiloride
3) Chlorothiazide
4) Spironolactone
Chlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic commonly used in hypertension, while Furosemide is a loop diuretic, Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist.
Contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy is all except:
1) Tumour involving pyriform sinus
2) Vocal cord fixidity
3) Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread
4) Post cricoid area expansion
Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread is not a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy.
Which of the following statements about the defective margins of amalgam restoration is true?
1) The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay
2) Secondary caries is less likely with marginal defects
3) Microscopic defects do not affect caries development
4) All margins always prevent secondary caries
ADC Test Answer: 1
Research has shown that larger defects in the margins of amalgam restorations increase the prevalence of secondary caries, making it critical to maintain good margins to prevent decay.
A 30-year-old man with an unknown allergy to latex goes into anaphylactic shock whilst being treated in the dental surgery. Which drug and route of administration is of most benefit in this situation?
A. Hydrocortisone - orally
B. Epinephrine – intramuscularly
C. Chlorphenamine - orally
D. Epinephrine - intravenously
In anaphylactic shock, immediate administration of epinephrine is crucial as it acts quickly to reverse bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and subsequent hypotension.
The palatine bone articulates with all of the following except
1.sphenoid
2. ethmoid
3. zygomatic
4. vomer
The palatine bone articulates with all of the following except a.sphenoid b. ethmoid c. zygomatic d. maxilla
What is the primary legal obligation related to dental records?
- To store them for a minimum of five years
- To provide them to the patient upon request
- To destroy them after treatment is completed
- To never disclose them without the patient's consent
Dentists are legally required to provide patients with a copy of their dental records when requested.
What is the best treatment option for replacing a missing lateral incisor?
1) Fixed partial denture
2) Removable partial denture
3) Dental implant
4) Orthodontic treatment
A dental implant is often the best option for replacing a missing lateral incisor, providing a stable and aesthetic solution.
What type of information is typically included in a patient's dental history?
- Only the patient's previous dental treatments
- The patient's general health and medical conditions
- The patient's financial status
- The patient's dental insurance details
Dental history includes an overview of the patient's overall health, which is crucial for planning safe and effective dental treatments.
What type of reaction does an amalgam restoration cause?
1) Type I hypersensitivity
2) Type II hypersensitivity
3) Type IV hypersensitivity
4) Anaphylactic reaction
Amalgam restorations can lead to type IV hypersensitivity reactions, which are delayed and mediated by T lymphocytes rather than antibodies.
Which antibiotic can be safely prescribed to a patient who is on warfarin and is not allergic to penicillin?
1) Clindamycin
2) Erythromycin
3) Penicillin
4) Metronidazole
Penicillin is an appropriate choice for patients who are on warfarin and not allergic to penicillin.
What is the best method to disinfect a dental bridge before sending it to the lab?
1) Soaking in bleach
2) Autoclaving
3) Using 70% isopropyl alcohol
4) Rinsing with water
70% isopropyl alcohol is effective for disinfecting dental appliances as it kills bacteria and viruses without damaging the material of the bridge.
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus indicates that the pulp is
1) necrotic
2) in an early hyperemic state.
3) normal.
4) irreversibly damaged
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus typically indicates that the pulp is irreversibly damaged. This prolonged response suggests that the nerve fibers are still responding to the stimulus, but the damage is significant enough that the pulp is not capable of healing, indicating a need for endodontic treatment.
In what area of the root are periodontal ligament fibers thinner?
1) Apical third
2) Middle third
3) Cervical third
4) Entire root
Periodontal ligament fibers are generally thinner in the middle third of the root compared to the apical and cervical thirds, where they are typically thicker for better support.
What is the best way to handle a chemical spill in a dental office?
1) Clean it up with paper towels and dispose of them in regular trash
2) Follow the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) guidelines for the specific chemical
3) Ignore it if it seems minor
4) Wait for someone else to handle it
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Following the MSDS guidelines ensures that the spill is handled safely and effectively, minimizing risks to staff and patients.
IN PREGNANT female there is decreased requirement of LA for spinal anaesthesia all true except
1) exaggerated lumber lordosis
2) increased congestion in spinal veins
3) decreased subarchnoid space
4) increased sensitivity of nerve fibres.
Local Anesthesia Answer: 1
exaggerated lumber lordosis
What does the principle of non-maleficence require dentists to do?
1) Provide only beneficial treatment
2) Do no harm to the patient
3) Ensure the patient's financial well-being
4) Advocate for social justice in healthcare
Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that obliges dentists to refrain from causing harm to patients, both intentionally and unintentionally. This includes avoiding actions that could lead to unnecessary pain, injury, or suffering.
During an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle ideally passes?
1) Through medial pterygoid
2) Anterior and lateral to medial pterygoid
3) Posterior and medial to medial pterygoid
4) Inferior to medial pterygoid.
During an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle ideally passes anterior and lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle.
Which of the following may be caused by a newly placed restoration that interferes with the occlusion?
1) Apical abscess
2) Pulpal necrosis
3) Apical periodontitis
4) Periodontal disease
An occlusal interference can lead to increased stress on the tooth, potentially resulting in apical periodontitis.
What is the red line in Winter's classification used to indicate?
1) The depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest
2) The path of eruption
3) The difference in occlusal level of 1st and 2nd molars
4) The amount of bone covering the tooth
The red line is drawn perpendicular from the amber line to an imaginary point of application of the elevator, indicating the depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest.
Which of the following clinical conditions is the most serious?
1) Acute apical abscess of a mandibular central incisor.
2) Mid facial cellulitis.
3) Chronic apical abscess of a mandibular third molar.
4) Infected dentigerous cyst.
Mid-facial cellulitis can rapidly progress to life-threatening complications
like cavernous sinus thrombosis or airway obstruction.
9 months of age, is the usual eruption time for 1. primary mandibular canines 2. primary maxillary canines 3. primary maxillary first molars 4. primary lower lateral incisors
Dental Anatomy Answer: 49 months of age, is the usual eruption time for primary lower lateral incis
What is the most common type of periodontal charting?
- Probing depths
- Gingival recession
- Tooth mobility
- Furcation involvement
Probing depths are the most commonly recorded periodontal charting measurement.
The permanent first molars of a 7-year-old patient have pronounced, deep occlusal fissures that are stained. Bitewing radiographs show a normal dentino-enamel junction. The most appropriate treatment is:
1)Conservative amalgam restorations.
2) Glass ionomer restorations.
3) Application of fissure sealants.
4) Topical fluoride application.
No recommended treatment.
Pediatric Dentistry Answer: 3Fissure sealants effectively prevent caries by sealing deep grooves and pits, particularly in children with a high risk of decay.
Which of the following is one of the "Four Cs" of record keeping?
1) Comprehensive
2) Complicated
3) Costly
4) Confusing
The "Four Cs" of record keeping include contemporaneous, clear, concise, and complete, emphasizing the importance of thorough documentation.
Untrue about desflurane is:
1) Rapid induction and recovery
2) High vapour pressure
3) Induction is very smooth
4) Does not produce fluoride
Desflurane has a pungent odor, making induction unpleasant and potentially causing laryngospasm or bronchospasm.
What is the most common cause of tooth sensitivity?
1) Gum recession
2) Tooth decay
3) Cracked teeth
4) All of the above
Tooth sensitivity can arise from various factors, including gum recession, tooth decay, and cracked teeth, exposing the dentin.
Internal resorption is:
1) Radiolucency over unaltered canal
2) Usually in response to trauma
3) Radiopacity over unaltered canal
4) Associated with carious lesions
ADC Test Answer: 2
Internal resorption occurs due to trauma or other factors that stimulate the pulp, leading to resorption of the dentin from within, resulting in a characteristic appearance.
what do u understand by isograft
1.bone taken frm same individual
2.bone taken frm genetically same individual
3.bone taken frm identical twin
4.bone taken frm same individual
A graft of tissue that is obtained from a donor genetically identical to the recipient.
Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the
1) anterior maxilla
2) posterior mandible.
3) posterior maxilla
4) anterior mandible.
The posterior mandible is more susceptible due to its dense cortical bone and
reduced blood supply, which hinder immune responses.
Which of the following drugs have a narrow therapeutic index?
1) Lithium
2) Diazepam
3) Penicillin
4) Desipramine
Other drugs with narrow therapeutic index:
Digoxin Gentamicin Amphotericin B Levothyroxine Prazosin Theophylline Quinidine Warfarin Valproic acid
What does "informed refusal" refer to in the context of medical and dental
care?
1) When a patient refuses to sign an informed consent form
2) When a patient refuses to proceed with a recommended treatment after being
informed of its benefits and risks
3) When a patient refuses to provide personal health information
4) When a patient refuses to pay for the treatment
When a patient refuses to proceed with a recommended
treatment after being informed of its benefits and risks
Explanation: Informed refusal occurs when a patient has the capacity to make a
decision and has been provided with all necessary information but chooses not to
undergo the treatment.
What are the main challenges in the adoption of computerized dental records?
- Affordability and reliability of technology
- Lack of patient interest
- Limited space for computer equipment
- Complex regulations regarding color coding
The main barriers to adopting electronic records are the cost of the technology and ensuring it is reliable and user-friendly.
The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a 1. significant increase in number of oral bacteria 2. shift towards a more acidogenic microflora 3 significant decrease in number of oral bacteria 4 shift towards a more aerobic micro flora
Microbiology Answer: 2The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a shift towards a more acidogenic microflora
In partial dentures, guiding planes serve to:
1) Aid in balancing occlusion
2) Ensure predictable clasp retention
3) Form a right angle with the occlusal plane
4) Eliminate the need for posterior clasps
ADC Test Answer: 2
Guiding planes provide a surface to help achieve reliable clasp retention, essential for the stability and effectiveness of partial dentures.
The primary stress-bearing area of the maxillary complete denture is the:
1) Hard palate.
2) Alveolar ridge.
3) Median palatal raphe.
4) Zygoma.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
The hard palate
provides a firm and stable support area for distributing
occlusal forces in maxillary dentures.
What is the role of a dental therapist in the care of a patient with special needs?
1) To provide all aspects of dental treatment under the supervision of a dentist
2) To perform only simple procedures like cleanings and fillings
3) To manage the patient's medical conditions
4) To provide oral health education and preventive care
A dental therapist is a mid-level dental provider who can perform various procedures under the supervision of a dentist.
What is the significance of a tooth undergoing 30-40% mineral loss for
radiographic detection of caries?
1) It indicates the lesion is only visible with advanced imaging techniques
2) It is the threshold for a lesion to be considered a cavity
3) It means the lesion is likely to be visible on a radiograph
4) It signifies that the tooth is beyond repair
Radiographs typically detect lesions that have undergone significant mineral loss, which is roughly 30-40%. At this stage, the lesion is usually large enough to be seen on a radiograph.
Not a physical property of propofol:
1) Water based preparation
2) Colour of the solution is white
3) It contains egg lecithin
4) Used as 2% strength
Propofol is oil based preparation containing soybean oil, egg lecithin and
glycerol. The colour is milky white' AND AVAILABLE AS 1 % AND 2% STRENGTH.
What is the primary concern when administering local anesthesia to a patient with a bleeding disorder?
1) Increased pain sensitivity
2) Prolonged bleeding from the injection site
3) Inability to achieve adequate anesthesia
4) Higher risk of infection
Patients with bleeding disorders, such as hemophilia, may have difficulty controlling bleeding, even from minor procedures like local anesthetic injections.
What is the most abundant extracellular cation?
1) Calcium
2) Sodium
3) Potassium
4) Magnesium
Sodium is the main extracellular cation, playing a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance and nerve function.
In patients under corticosteroid therapy, what precaution must be taken to prevent adrenal crisis during oral surgery?
1) Ensure doses are not missed to maintain adrenal reserve
2) Gradually taper off corticosteroids before surgery
3) Increase corticosteroid dosage immediately post-operatively
4) Administer corticosteroid injections during surgery
Corticosteroids suppress the adrenal glands, so missing doses can lead to an adrenal crisis.
he material of choice for obturating the root canal system of a primary
tooth is
1) silver cone.
2) gutta percha
3) zinc-oxide eugenol.
4) paper point medicated with formocresol.
Zinc-oxide eugenol (ZOE) is commonly used for obturating the root canal system of primary teeth due to its biocompatibility, sealing ability, and ease of use. It is particularly favored in pediatric dentistry because it is less likely to cause irritation to the surrounding tissues compared to other materials. Gutta percha is more commonly used in permanent teeth.
Which factor is likely implicated in the excessive fibrinolysis observed in localized alveolar osteitis?
1) Platelets
2) Fibrinogen
3) Plasmin
4) Thrombin
Excessive local fibrinolytic activity, primarily due to elevated levels of plasmin, is implicated in the development of localized alveolar osteitis after tooth extractions.
When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification of dentin matrix then
1 Interglobular dentin is formed
2 Dead tracts are found in formed dentin
3 Irregular dentin results
4 None
Sometimes, mineralization of dentin begins in small globular areas that fail to coalesce into a homogenous mass.
These zones are known as globular dentin or interglobular spaces. Thus, demonstrating defect of mineralization and not of matrix formation, the dentinal tubules pass uninterruptedly through interglobular dentin.
Overdrying after acid etching before bond application causes:
1) Micro leakage.
2) Nano shrinkage.
3) Gaping.
4) Secondary caries.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Overdrying dentin surfaces after acid etching can lead to nano shrinkage, which can impair the bond strength of the adhesive and result in clinical problems.
What are effective strategies to decrease polymerization shrinkage of a composite?
1. Incremental placing of composite using techniques like herringbone and lateral filling methods.
Utilizing incremental builds reduces the stress of polymerization shrinkage by minimizing wall-to-wall effects.