Dentist Abroad
What is the appropriate dosage of epinephrine for an 8-year-old child experiencing anaphylaxis?
1) 0.15 ml of 1:1000
2) 0.3 ml of 1:1000
3) 0.5 ml of 1:1000
4) 0.05 ml of 1:1000
For children experiencing anaphylactic shock, the common practice is to administer 0.15 ml of 1:1000 epinephrine, dependent on their weight and severity of symptoms.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of meningococcal meningitis in patients allergic to penicillin?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Teicoplanin
3) Meropenem
4) Chloramphenicol
Pharmacology Answer: 4
Treatment of meningococcal meningitis: In case of penicillin resistance, third generation cephalosporins should be used ( Ceftriaxone / CefotaximeIn case of penicillin / cephalosporin allergy, Chloramphenicol is used
Drug of choice – Penicillin G
Chlortetracycline acts by interfering with protein synthesis on bacterial but not mammalian ribosomes
What is the average number of 15-year-olds who have lost 6-7 teeth?
1) 1.1
2) 3.1
3) 4.7
4) 5.5
Current statistics indicate that approximately 3.1% of 15-year-olds have lost 6-7 teeth due to caries or other dental issues.
You suspect that your patient has an enlarged submandibular salivary gland. You expect the enlarged gland?
1) To be palpable intraorally
2) Only to be detectable by radiographical examination.
3) To be palpable both intra- and extraorally
4) To be palpable extraorally.
When a submandibular salivary gland is enlarged, it can be palpable both intraorally (inside the mouth) and extraorally (outside the mouth).
Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except?
1) Isoniazid
2) Cyclosporine
3) Levodopa
4) Hydralazine
Pyridoxine – drug interactions : INH – induces a pyridoxine deficiency state
Levodopa – pyridoxine promotes peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine – thus it decreases therapeutic action of levodopa in the brain
Oral contraceptive pills – decrease pyridoxine levels in some females
Hydralazine – impairment of pyridoxine utilisation
4-deoxy pyridoxine – pyridoxine antagonist
What is the difference between fluorapatite and carbonate substituted
hydroxyapatite?
1) Fluorapatite is less soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
2) Fluorapatite is more soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
3) They have the same solubility
4) Fluorapatite does not occur in tooth structure
Fluorapatite is a form of hydroxyapatite that has incorporated fluoride ions, which makes it more resistant to acid attacks and thus less soluble compared to carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite.
Bone tissue grows by
1) Apposition
2) Interstitial growth
3) Osteoclastic growth
4) Mesenchymal tissue growth
SOLUTION Interstitial growth, simply means that it occurs at all points within the tissue.
If a patient on warfarin is also allergic to penicillin, which antibiotic is recommended?
1) Erythromycin
2) Clindamycin
3) Cephalexin
4) Vancomycin
Clindamycin is a suitable alternative for patients allergic to penicillin who are also on warfarin since it does not interact adversely with anticoagulants.
In regards to HIV infection, which of the following is the earliest finding?
1) Kaposi sarcoma on the palate
2) Reduced hemoglobin
3) Infection with pneumocystic carinii
4) Reduction in white cell count
ADC Test Answer: 4
A reduction in white blood cell count, particularly CD4 T cells, is one of the earliest indicators of HIV infection and immune system compromise.
The bacterial population in the gingival sulcus or the pocket that influences the course of periodontal disease has been found to involve 1 bacteria indigenous to the oral cavity 2. essentially a pure culture 3. essentially the same organisms found in the healthy sulcus 4. mostly aerobic bacteria
Microbiology Answer: 3The bacterial population in the gingival sulcus or the pocket that influences the course of periodontal disease has essentially the same organisms found in the healthy sulcus
What is the best method to disinfect a dental bridge before sending it to the lab?
1) Soaking in bleach
2) Autoclaving
3) Using 70% isopropyl alcohol
4) Rinsing with water
70% isopropyl alcohol is effective for disinfecting dental appliances as it kills bacteria and viruses without damaging the material of the bridge.
What cement is used to temporarily cement a crown?
1) Glass ionomer cement
2) Resin cement
3) Zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE)
4) Composite resin
ZOE is commonly used for the temporary cementation of crowns due to its ease of use and sedative properties.
Which shape describes a triangular occlusal rest?
1) Circular
2) Triangular
3) Boomerang-shaped
4) Cingulum-shaped
The triangular occlusal rest is specifically shaped to fit the contours of the occlusal surface.
What is the purpose of using a handpiece with a 330 bur during a pulpotomy procedure?
1) To remove caries.
2) To reduce occlusal surface.
3) To remove the roof of the pulp chamber.
4) To mix IRM.
A handpiece with a 330 bur is used to remove the roof of the pulp chamber during a pulpotomy procedure.
Which of the following practices can help reduce the risk of cross-contamination in a dental office? 1) Using the same gloves for multiple patients 2) Disinfecting surfaces and instruments between patients 3) Not wearing masks during procedures 4) Ignoring hand hygiene protocols
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Regular disinfection of surfaces and instruments is essential for preventing cross-contamination and protecting both patients and dental staff.
A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotics for oral infection; this is an example of:
1) Type I allergic reaction
2) Nervous disorder
3) Side effect of the drug
4) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
ADC Test Answer: 3
Gastrointestinal upset is a common side effect of antibiotics, occurring due to their impact on gut flora and digestive processes.
A contributing factor to pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular third molar is:
1) Trauma by opposing tooth
2) Previous radiation therapy
3) Systemic disease
4) Infected follicular cyst
Pericoronitis, an inflammation of the soft tissue surrounding a partially erupted tooth, is often exacerbated by trauma from the opposing tooth during normal biting. The operculum, or flap of gum tissue covering the partially erupted third molar, can become irritated and inflamed due to this trauma, leading to infection and discomfort.
What is the minimum platelet level at which dental extractions can be safely performed?
1) 50 x 109/L
2) 75 x 109/L
3) 100 x 109/L
4) 150 x 109/L
Surgical procedures can be performed if platelet levels are above 50 x 109/L.
Symptoms from a riboflavin deficiency can be:
1. Cracks in the corner of the mouth (angular stomatitis)
2. Inflammation of the tongue (glossitis)
3. Eye and skin changes
4. All of the above
The eye change include an increase in blood vessels and inflammation of the conjunctivae, cornea is invaded by capillaries, producing opaque areas and even ulceration. Dermatitis characterized by a greasy and scaly reddened lesion develops on the skin around the nasolabial folds and may extend to a butterfly shape on the cheeks. There many also be lesions at the corners (canthi) of the eyes and lobes of the mouth.
A patient with a recent complete denture has an ulcer in the buccal sulcus. What is the likely cause?
A. Incorrect occlusion
B. Denture stability
C. Overextended flange
D. Material reaction
An ulcer in the buccal sulcus of recent denture wearers is often a result of overextended denture flanges irritating the soft tissues, leading to ulceration.
What is the primary study design to evaluate tetracycline as an adjunct to scaling and root planing for chronic periodontitis?
1) Cohort
2) Non-randomised controlled trial
3) Randomised controlled trial
4) Case-control
A randomized controlled trial (RCT) is the ideal design to assess the effectiveness of a treatment by removing bias and allowing for controlled comparisons.
A 9 year old presents for treatment immediately following a facial injury
resulting in a fracture of a maxillary central incisor that involves the enamel
only. The tooth tests negative to an electric pulp tester. This finding
indicates that the tooth
1) is nonvital and should be extracted
2) is nonvital and endodontic therapy is indicated
3) has a root fracture and should be extracted
4) should be observed and tested again at a later date.
A negative response to pulp testing immediately after trauma may not indicate necrosis but temporary pulp shock. Observation allows the pulp to recover.
Which of the following cannot be used to slow down the setting of zinc oxide eugenol impression paste? 1. cooling mixing slab 2. adding a small amount of water 3. adding a small amount of glycerine 4. altering the amounts of the two pastes used
Dental Material Answer: 2a small amount of water acccelerates the setting of zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
Which one of the following is the initial treatment for internal resorption?
1) Pulpectomy.
2) Pulpotomy.
3) Pulp capping.
4) Apicoectomy.
The initial treatment for internal resorption is typically a pulpectomy, which involves the complete removal of the pulp tissue. This procedure is necessary to halt the resorptive process and to allow for the potential healing of the tooth. A pulpotomy may be considered in some cases, but a pulpectomy is more definitive for internal resorption.
Before filling a Class V abrasion cavity with GIC (Glass Ionomer Cement) you should:
1) Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water, and weak acid
2) Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
3) Acid etch cavity then dry thoroughly
4) Rinse the cavity with saline
ADC Test Answer: 1
The purpose of using pumice and a rubber cup is to clean the cavity without excessively drying it, which is important as GIC is moisture-loving.
What is the primary cause of an elevator fracture during tooth extraction?
1) Excessive force
2) Incorrectly angled elevator
3) Weak tooth structure
4) Inadequate anesthesia
Applying too much force can lead to tooth fracture, especially if the elevator is not inserted correctly.
Developed hypo reactivity to a drug is
1) Detoxification
2) Antagonism
3) Tolerance
4) Desensitization
Tolerance: The capacity to absorb a drug continuously or in large doses without adverse effect; diminution in the response to a drug after prolonged use.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is considered a cardio-stable anaesthetic.
What is the effect on local anesthetic when used with sodium
bicarbonate ?
1 Increases speed and quality of anaestheisa
2 Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
3 Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
4 Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
The speed of onset of Anaesthesia is raised by Sodium bicarbonate and further
enhances its quality by elevating the intensity and duration of block.
Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of stone dies used for crown fabrication?
1) They lack accurate reproduction of surface details
2) Their overall dimensions are slightly smaller than the original impression
3) The strength of the stone
4) The hazard of aspiration of toxic materials during trimming of the dies
ADC Test Answer: 2
One of the notable disadvantages of some types of stone dies is that they can shrink upon setting or due to dehydration, leading to dimensions that are slightly smaller than the original impression, impacting the fit of the final restoration.
What is the most common complication associated with local anesthesia in the
elderly?
1) Dizziness and lightheadedness
2) Inadvertent intravascular injection
3) Increased risk of infection
4) Prolonged numbness
Due to altered pharmacokinetics, elderly patients may experience prolonged anesthesia and delayed recovery of normal sensation.
After completion of endodontic chemomechanical debridement
1) all tissue should be removed from the root canal system.
2) permanent inflammation may be cause4)
3) the root canal should be sterile.
4) some areas of the root canal system may be incompletely cleaned
Despite thorough chemomechanical debridement, it is common for certain areas within the complex anatomy of the root canal system to remain inadequately cleaned. This can occur due to the presence of lateral canals, isthmuses, or other anatomical variations that are difficult to access, leading to potential areas of infection or inflammation.
Which investigation would be most useful to check for hypertensive heart disease? 1) Urinalysis 2) Chest radiography 3) Blood sugar test 4) Echocardiogram
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Chest radiography can help identify cardiomegaly, which is suggestive of hypertensive heart disease.
What is the strength of adrenaline typically used in dental anesthesia?
1) 1:100
2) 1:1000
3) 1:2000
4) 1:5000
The standard concentration of adrenaline used in dental procedures is 1:1000, which helps to control bleeding and prolong the effect of local anesthetics.
What is the role of dental records in the event of a malpractice allegation?
- To prove the dentist's innocence
- To determine if the dentist followed the standard of care
- To provide financial compensation to the patient
- To assess the patient's satisfaction with the treatment
Dental records are used to evaluate whether the care provided to the patient met the standard of care expected within the community.
What substance is primarily responsible for the re-mineralization process in teeth?
1) Fluoride
2) Calcium
3) Phosphate
4) All of the above
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together to enhance the re-mineralization process in enamel, helping to repair demineralized areas.
How does fluoride in saliva promote tooth remineralization?
1) It forms hydrogen bonds with phosphate ions in the apatite structure.
2) It forms a more stable crystal structure with calcium called fluorapatite.
3) It reacts with carbonate ions to form calcium carbonate.
4) It produces an alkaline environment that dissolves hydroxyapatite.
Fluoride ions in saliva can replace hydroxyl ions in the hydroxyapatite lattice, creating fluorapatite, which is more resistant to acid attack.
What causes amalgam expansion?
1) Excess mercury
2) Sufficient ventilation
3) Moisture contamination
4) Inadequate mixing
Moisture during the mixing and placement of amalgam can result in expansion, particularly with zinc-containing alloys.
What is the most common finding after a dental complaint in young children?
1) Acute periodontal abscess.
2) Chronic periodontal abscess.
3) Apical abscess.
4) Chronic alveolar abscess.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Young children are more prone to developing apical abscesses due to their immature immune systems and the prevalence of dental caries.
What is a common consequence of prolonged exposure to loud noises in a dental office? 1) Increased risk of infection 2) Hearing loss 3) Skin irritation 4) Respiratory issues
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Prolonged exposure to loud noises from dental equipment can lead to noise-induced hearing loss, making it important to use hearing protection when necessary.
What is the GDC's requirement for the storage of patient records?
- They must be kept in a secure, locked cabinet
- They must be kept in a fireproof safe
- They must be kept in a format that is easily accessible and understandable
- They must be kept in a location that is accessible only to the dentist
The GDC requires that patient records be kept in a format that is easily accessible and understandable to ensure that dental professionals can provide effective care based on accurate and up-to-date information.
What is the primary function of a wedge in oral surgery?
1) To remove teeth
2) To split teeth
3) To expand the tooth socket
4) To elevate the tooth
A wedge is used to create space in the tooth socket, facilitating tooth elevation and reducing the risk of fracture during extraction.
Which of the following is NOT a method for sterilizing dental instruments?
1) Autoclaving
2) Dry heat
3) Chemical vapor sterilization
4) Microwave sterilization
Microwave ovens are not designed for sterilization purposes and can
cause uneven heating and potential damage to instruments. Autoclaving, dry heat,
and chemical vapor sterilization are all valid methods for sterilizing dental
instruments.
Which of the following is not a loop diuretic:
1) Fruesmide
2) Torsemide
3) Ethacrynic acid
4) Chlorthalidone
Pharmacology Answer: 4
Chlorthalidone (Thiazide like diuretic)
What is the recommended approach to treating an acute dental infection in an
elderly patient?
1) Antibiotic therapy
2) Drainage of the abscess
3) Extraction of the infected tooth
4) Immediate root canal therapy
Initially, the primary goal is to drain the infection and alleviate pain before considering further treatment options like antibiotics or tooth preservation procedures
Guiding planes on abutment teeth for a removable partial denture should be prepared before the occlusal rests are prepared in order to:
1) Avoid post-insertion adjustment.
2) Facilitate surveying of the cast.
3) Finalize the location of the occlusal rest.
4) Improve the retention of the direct retainer assembly.
FPD and RPD Answer: 3
A patient returns from holiday with diarrhea and vomiting after eating street food. What is the likely diagnosis?
1) Hepatitis A
2) Norovirus infection
3) Gastroenteritis
4) Food poisoning
Hepatitis A is often associated with consuming contaminated food or water, especially in areas with poor sanitation.
Tourniquet cannot be released before ....... minutes after Beir's block
1) 5 minutes
2) 10 minutes
3) 30 minutes
4) 60 minutes
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
30 minutes Tourniquet once inflated and drug given, it cannot be released before half an hour as it is assumed that it takes this much time for drug to be completely out of vascular compartment.
Best clinical sign for adequate reversal is:
1) Spontaneous eye opening
2) Spontaneous limb movements
3) Able to protrude tongue
4) Able to lift head > 5 seconds
If patient is able to lift the head > 5 seconds it is considered the best clinical sign as it corresponds to train of four ratio > 0.7.
If the drug is taken while teeth are still in the enamel developmental stage, it
can produce hypoplasia and intrinsic staining. What is the drug that's being
referred to?
1) Amino glycosides
2) Tetracycline
3) Amoxicillin
4) Levaquin
Tetracycline is the drug being referred to in this question. When taken during
the enamel developmental stage of teeth, it can cause hypoplasia and intrinsic
staining. This means that the drug can affect the growth and development of the
enamel, leading to underdevelopment (hypoplasia) and discoloration (intrinsic
staining) of the teeth.
Overdrying after acid etching before bond application causes:
1) Micro leakage.
2) Nano shrinkage.
3) Gaping.
4) Secondary caries.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Overdrying dentin surfaces after acid etching can lead to nano shrinkage, which can impair the bond strength of the adhesive and result in clinical problems.
What does the acronym "CQC" stand for in the context of dental record keeping?
1) Care Quality Commission
2) Clinical Quality Control
3) Comprehensive Quality Care
4) Centralized Quality Compliance
The Care Quality Commission (CQC) is responsible for regulating health and social care services in England, including dental practices.
Following drug interact with cefotaxime?
1) Digoxin
2) Paracetamol
3) Loop diuretics
4) Nifedipine
Nephrotoxicity of cephalosporins is accentuated by concurrent administration of loop diuretics.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions. A full dental record, on the other hand, includes the patient's medical and dental history, treatment plans, x-rays, notes from appointments, consent forms, and other relevant information about the patient's oral health.
What is the purpose of a comprehensive medical history in dental care?
- To bill the patient's insurance
- To tailor treatment plans based on the patient's health
- To determine the patient's credit score
- To market dental services to the patient
Knowing the patient's medical history helps the dentist make informed decisions about the patient's treatment and overall care.
The diagnosis for a tooth (75) with deep decay extending to the pulp is likely:
1) Periapical abscess
2) Dentigerous cyst
3) Granuloma
4) Radicular cyst
ADC Test Answer: 2
Deep decay can result in the formation of a dentigerous cyst, especially if associated with an unerupted tooth, reflected in imaging as a radiolucency surrounding the root.
If a 4th root canal is present in a maxillary 1st molar, it will likely be located in which of the following roots?
1) Mesiolingual
2) Mesiobuccal
3) Distolingual
4) Distofacial
Well over 50% of maxillary 1st molars have two canals in the mesiobuccal root.
There are usually 3 roots and 4 canals in a maxillary 1st molar.
The fourth canal, the mesiolingual canal, is also referred to as: the accessory mesiobuccal canal, mesiocentric, mesiopalatal canal or MB2.
It is usually tough to find MB2 through clinical inspection and it is not obvious on a radiograph. A dentist should expect it is present before beginning a root canal on the first maxillary molar.
What is a secondary caries lesion?
1) A lesion that occurs on the surface of a restored tooth
2) A lesion that occurs only in the presence of fluoride
3) A lesion that is limited to the enamel surface
4) A lesion that occurs only in children
Secondary or recurrent caries occur at the junction of the tooth and a restoration, often due to microleakage or inadequate oral hygiene.
Naloxone reverses the actions of:
1) Morphine
2) Diazepam
3) Thiopentone
4) All of the above
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids like morphine.
A medication that is associated with gingivitis
1) phenytoin
2) carbamazepine
3) propranolol
4) diazepam
Gingivitis is a form of periodontal disease.
Medications such as phenytoin and birth control pills, and ingestion of heavy metals such as lead and bismuth are also associated with gingivitis.
Which of the following is NOT a common occupational hazard for dentists and dental staff?
1) Exposure to ionizing radiation
2) Risk of infection from bloodborne pathogens
3) Development of musculoskeletal disorders
4) High risk of developing allergies to dental materials
While dentists and dental staff are indeed at risk of developing allergies to certain dental materials, especially those with latex allergies due to repeated exposure to gloves and other latex products, it is not a common occupational hazard compared to exposure to ionizing radiation from dental x-rays, risk of infection from bloodborne pathogens due to the nature of dental procedures, and the high prevalence of musculoskeletal disorders due to the ergonomic challenges of the work.
Drug class causing free water clearance:
a) Diuretic
b) Saluretic
c) Uricosuric
d) Aquaretic
Vasopressin antagonists like tolvaptan are aquaretics
What is malignant hypertension? 1) Hypertension with systolic <120 mmHg 2) Hypertension that presents only at night 3) Hypertension with systolic >200 mmHg and diastolic >130 mmHg 4) A type of primary hypertension
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 3Malignant or accelerated hypertension is defined by extremely high readings and often requires urgent treatment.
What is the typical presentation of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.
Which cement is commonly used for temporary cementation?
1) Zinc polycarboxylate cement
2) Zinc oxide eugenol
3) Glass ionomer cement
4) Resin cement
Zinc oxide eugenol is widely used for temporary cementation due to its sedative properties and ease of removal.
What is the primary purpose of a dental unit waterline treatment? 1) To improve the taste of the water 2) To prevent biofilm formation and contamination 3) To enhance the aesthetic appearance of the dental unit 4) To reduce the need for sterilization
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Regular treatment of dental unit waterlines is essential to prevent the growth of biofilms and ensure that the water used in procedures is safe and free from pathogens.
Which of the following medications is NOT associated with angioedema?
1) Ramipril
2) Ibuprofen
3) Furosemide
4) Paracetamol
Paracetamol is generally not associated with causing angioedema, while other medications like ACE inhibitors and certain NSAIDs are known to be linked to this condition.
What is a potential use of dental records in forensic dentistry?
1) To determine the patient's insurance coverage
2) To identify a dead or missing person
3) To track treatment costs
4) To evaluate staff performance
Dental records can provide antemortem information that assists forensic odontologists in identifying deceased individuals.
Regarding hand washing, which of the following is true?
1) Alcohol is the only effective agent
2) Chlorhexidine gel is used for surgical hand washing
3) Povidone iodine is not effective
4) Hand washing is not necessary before procedures
Chlorhexidine gel is an effective antiseptic used in surgical hand washing, along with alcohol and povidone iodine.
What is the difference between a dental chart and a dental record?
1) A dental chart is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental record includes all patient information.
2) A dental chart includes only the patient's medical history, while a dental record has the full treatment history.
3) A dental record is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental chart has the full treatment history.
4) Both are the same.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions.
Which of the following series of cements have anticariogenic properties? 1. zinc phosphate, silicate, and polycarboxylate cements 2. silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements 3. zinc oxide eugenol, ethoxybenzoic, and zinc oxide eugenol polymer reinforced cements 4. calcium hydroxide and ethoxybenzoic cements
Dental Material Answer: 2Cements with anticariogenic properties are silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements
What is the ideal angle for subgingival curettage using universal curettes?
1) 0 degrees
2) 30 degrees
3) 45 degrees
4) 90 degrees
An angle of 45 degrees is ideal for effective subgingival curettage, allowing for proper access and removal of calculus without damaging the soft tissue.
A 65-year-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is:
1) Extreme susceptibility to pain
2) Tendency towards prolonged hemorrhage
3) Recurring oral infection
4) Increased tendency to syncope
ADC Test Answer: 2
Severe cirrhosis affects blood clotting abilities, which can lead to increased risk of hemorrhage during dental procedures.
Not a physical property of propofol:
1) Water based preparation
2) Colour of the solution is white
3) It contains egg lecithin
4) Used as 2% strength
Propofol is oil based preparation containing soybean oil, egg lecithin and
glycerol. The colour is milky white' AND AVAILABLE AS 1 % AND 2% STRENGTH.
What is the dentist's evaluation of a patient's general health and appearance part of?
- Medical history
- Dental history
- Informed consent
- Treatment plan
The dentist's evaluation of a patient's general health and appearance is a critical component of the medical history, which informs the treatment approach.
What does the principle of non-maleficence require dentists to do?
1) Provide only beneficial treatment
2) Do no harm to the patient
3) Ensure the patient's financial well-being
4) Advocate for social justice in healthcare
Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that obliges dentists to refrain from causing harm to patients, both intentionally and unintentionally. This includes avoiding actions that could lead to unnecessary pain, injury, or suffering.
Which of the following is NOT an infrahyoid muscle?
1) Digastric
2) Mylohyoid
3) Geniohyoid
4) Omohyoid
The infrahyoid muscles are the mylohyoid, hyoglossus, stylohyoid,
thyrohyoid, and omohyoid muscles. The infrahyoid muscles are a group of muscles found in the neck that are
situated below the hyoid bone.
2) Mylohyoid: This muscle runs obliquely from the body and greater horn of the
hyoid bone to the inner surface of the mandible. It is involved in elevating the
hyoid bone, which occurs during swallowing and tongue movement.
3) Geniohyoid: The geniohyoid muscle originates from the lower mental spine and
genial tubercle of the mandible and inserts into the body and greater horn of
the hyoid bone. It plays a role in depressing the hyoid bone, which occurs
during swallowing and tongue protrusion.
4) Omohyoid: The omohyoid muscle originates from the scapula and passes upward
and medially to insert into the lower part of the hyoid bone. It also helps in
depressing the hyoid bone and can assist in raising the larynx during
swallowing.
The Digastric muscle is not an infrahyoid muscle. The digastric muscle is
actually a suprahyoid muscle, which means it is located above the hyoid bone. It
has two bellies: the anterior belly originates from the digastric fossa of the
mandible and inserts into the hyoid bone, while the posterior belly originates
from the mastoid process of the temporal bone and inserts into the hyoid bone. The digastric muscle functions in opening the jaw and raising the hyoid bone
during swallowing.
What is the most common occupational disease among dentists?
1) Hepatitis B
2) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
3) Tuberculosis
4) Oral cancer
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is the most common occupational disease among dentists due to the repetitive and precise hand movements required in their work.
Which type of caries is characterized by a brown or black appearance and is
resistant to caries?
1) Acute caries
2) Chronic caries
3) Arrested caries
4) Incipient caries
Arrested caries are brown or black and become caries-resistant, especially when exposed to fluoride.
Which of the following is a lifestyle factor that can modify the severity of hypertension? 1) Genetic predisposition 2) Physical inactivity 3) Age 4) None of the above
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Physical inactivity, along with factors like obesity and high sodium intake, can worsen hypertension.
Which of the following is not a part of behavioral science?:
1) Social Psychology
2) Economics
3) Sociology
4) Social Anthropology
Economics is not a part of behavioral science because it primarily focuses on
the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services, as well as
the behavior of individuals and organizations in the market. Behavioral science,
on the other hand, is a multidisciplinary field that studies human behavior and
interactions, drawing from various disciplines such as psychology, sociology,
and social anthropology. While economics may incorporate some aspects of human
behavior, it is not considered a core component of behavioral science.
What is the first step in the process for immediate dentures?
1) Create a secondary impression
2) Record occlusion
3) Assess patient needs
4) Finish and polish
The first step involves a comprehensive assessment to understand the patient's requirements and expectations, followed by primary and secondary impressions.
In a 4 year old the most appropriate treatment for a chronically infected,
non-restorable primary first molar is to
1) extract it and place a space maintainer.
2) observe it until it exfoliates.
3) extract it only.
4) observe it until it becomes symptomatic
Extraction and space maintenance prevent space loss for the permanent successors, ensuring proper arch alignment.
What is the red line in Winter's classification used to indicate?
1) The depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest
2) The path of eruption
3) The difference in occlusal level of 1st and 2nd molars
4) The amount of bone covering the tooth
The red line is drawn perpendicular from the amber line to an imaginary point of application of the elevator, indicating the depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest.
Which muscles are primarily used in swallowing?
1) Masseter and temporalis
2) Genioglossus and palatoglossus
3) Buccinator and orbicularis oris
4) Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
The genioglossus and palatoglossus muscles play significant roles in the swallowing process by controlling the position of the tongue and the soft palate.
What is the main goal when treating an anxious patient in dentistry?
1) To complete the treatment as quickly as possible
2) To utilize the maximum amount of sedation
3) To alleviate fear and build trust
4) To avoid all invasive procedures
The primary goal is to reduce anxiety, thereby fostering a trusting relationship that improves the overall treatment experience.
What is the purpose of using a rubber dam during dental procedures?
1) To isolate the operative site from the oral cavity
2) To improve visualization and access
3) To reduce the patient's gag reflex
4) To increase patient comfort
A rubber dam is used to create a barrier between the patient's oral
tissues and the rest of the mouth, thereby reducing the risk of
cross-contamination and protecting the patient and the dental team from bacteria
and saliva.
When injecting local solution in the maxilla on the buccal side, the technique is?
1) Intra osseous
2) Supra periosteal
3) Sup mucosal
4) Intra septal
The correct technique for injecting local solution in the maxilla on the buccal side is the supra periosteal technique.
Epidural space has negative pressure in:
1) 20%
2) 30%
3) 50%
4) 80%
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
80°/" Epidural space has negative pressure in more than 80% of individuals.
Can a patient withdraw their informed consent at any time?
1) No, once given, consent cannot be withdrawn
2) Yes, but only if the treatment has not yet started
3) Yes, at any point during the treatment
4) Only if the patient has not signed a consent form
A patient has the right to withdraw informed consent at any time
during the treatment process, regardless of whether they have signed a consent
form or not.
Position of needle in relation to medial pterygoid during IANB?
1) Lateral and posterior.
2) Medial and anterior.
3) Lateral and anterior.
4) Medial and posterior.
ADC Test Answer: 1
During an Inferior Alveolar Nerve Block (IANB), the needle is positioned laterally and posteriorly to the medial pterygoid, which is critical for successful anesthesia of the mandibular teeth.
Condylar fractures account for 26% of all mandibular fractures, often resulting from falls or trauma to the chin.
What does T2 indicate in the TNM classification?
1) Tumor size less than 2 cm
2) Tumor size between 2-4 cm
3) Tumor size greater than 4 cm
4) Tumor extending to adjacent structures
T2 indicates that the tumor measures between 2 and 4 cm in its greatest dimension, which is important for staging cancer.
Metronidazole is a treatment of choice for :
1) Salmonellosis
2) Ulcerative colitis
3) hookworm parasitic infection
4) Pseudomembranous colitis
metronidazole 250 mg po qid for 7 to 10 days is the treatment of choice. Oral vancomycin 125 mg qid is reserved for the most severe or resistant cases
The antimicrobials most widely regarded as optimal for the treatment of salmonellosis in adults is the group of fluoroquinolones.
Which of the following has highest minimum alveolar concentration?
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Nitrous oxide has the highest MAC value of 104 among all inhalational anaesthetics.
What enzyme does Streptococcus mutans produce that plays a key role in
converting dietary sugars into extracellular polysaccharides, which contribute
to bacterial adherence and biofilm formation?
1) Amylase
2) Glucosyltransferase (GTF)
3) Fructosyltransferase
4) Sucrase
S. mutans produces glucosyltransferase, which converts dietary sugars, particularly sucrose, into extracellular polysaccharides like glucans and fructans that facilitate bacterial adherence to tooth structures and promote biofilm formation.
What is the primary mode of transmission for hepatitis B in a dental
setting?
1) Respiratory droplets
2) Bloodborne pathogens
3) Fomites
4) Airborne particles
Hepatitis B is mainly transmitted through blood and other bodily
fluids. In a dental setting, the risk of transmission is highest through
exposure to contaminated sharp instruments, needlesticks, and mucosal contact
with infectious materials.
Which type of antihypertensive agent should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma?
1) ACE inhibitors
2) Calcium channel blockers
3) Non-selective beta-blockers
4) Diuretics
Non-selective beta-blockers, like propranolol, can worsen asthma symptoms due to bronchoconstriction.
What is the Angle classification of occlusion based upon?
Orthodontics Answer: 31. The position of the maxillary incisors relative to the mandibular incisors
2. The position of the maxillary incisors relative to the mandibular incisors
3. The position of the maxillary canines and first permanent molars relative to the mandibular canines and first permanent molars.
4. The position of the upper lip relative to the lower lip
The position of the maxillary canines and first permanent molars relative to the mandibular canines and first permanent molars
Which antihypertensive agent is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker?
1) Clonidine
2) Doxazosin
3) Enalapril
4) Furosemide
Doxazosin is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker that works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, reducing blood pressure.
If the tooth has not erupted to the line of occlusion it is called
1) Supraversion
2) Torsiversion
3) Rotated
4) Infraversion
Orthodontics Answer: 4
Terms used to describe the position of teeth. Mesioversion - A tooth in the arch located more mesial than normal
Distoversion - A tooth in the arch located more distal than normal
Labioversion - An incisor or canine outside of arch towards the lips
Buccoversion - A posterior tooth outside the arch toward the cheek
Linguoversion - A tooth inside the arch form toward the tongue
Infraversion - A tooth that has not erupted to the occlusal plane
Supraversion - A tooth the has over-erupted
Torsiversion - A tooth rotated on its axis
Transversion (Transposition) - Teeth that are in the wrong sequential order.
What is the largest possible cavosurface angle?
1) 90 degrees
2) 100 degrees
3) 110 degrees
4) 120 degrees
The largest possible cavosurface angle in dental restorations is typically around 110 degrees, which helps in achieving a proper seal and retention.
What is the primary risk associated with the use of nitrous oxide in patients with cerebral palsy?
1) Increased risk of aspiration
2) Decreased muscle tone leading to airway obstruction
3) Enhanced sensitivity to the anesthetic effects
4) Increased risk of dental caries
Patients with cerebral palsy may have difficulty controlling their airway and swallowing reflexes, which can increase the risk of aspirating during the administration of nitrous oxide.
All are non-verbal characteristics of aggressive behavior except:
1) Staring the person out.
2) Leaning forward or over.
3) Scowling when angry.
4) Sexual or racist remarks.
The given answer, "Sexual or racist remarks," is the only option that does not pertain to non-verbal characteristics of aggressive behavior. Staring the person out, leaning forward or over, and scowling when angry are all non-verbal cues that can indicate aggression. However, making sexual or racist remarks involves verbal communication rather than non-verbal cues.
Which of the following are anti-fungal drugs?
1) Cloxacillin
2) Aciclovir
3) Chlorhexidine
4) Nystatin
Miconazole is an imidazole anti-fungal drug, Nystatin is a polyene anti-fungal drug and itraconazole is a triazole anti-fungal.
Aciclovir is an anti-viral drug and chlorhexidine is an antiseptic.cloxacillin is penicillin derivative.
What is the primary function of lactoferrin in the oral cavity?
1) To bind and sequester iron for bacterial metabolism
2) To break down bacterial cell walls
3) To neutralize bacterial enzymes
4) To stimulate the production of saliva
Lactoferrin is an iron-binding protein that deprives cariogenic bacteria of the iron they need to produce acid and other harmful substances, thereby inhibiting their growth and activity.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for informed consent in dental treatment?
- The patient must be competent to make decisions
- The treatment options must be fully explained to the patient
- The patient must be informed of the risks and benefits of each option
- The patient must sign the consent form in triplicate
Informed consent requires that the patient is competent to make decisions, the treatment options are fully explained, the risks and benefits are communicated, and the patient understands the nature and purpose of the proposed treatment.
The bacteria having the highest lipid Content in the cell wall Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which of the following is NOT a typical adverse effect of opioids?
1) Diarrhea
2) Somnolence
3) Constipation
4) Nausea
Opioids are commonly associated with constipation due to their effect on the gastrointestinal tract, which slows down bowel movements. They also frequently cause somnolence and nausea due to their action on the central nervous system. Diarrhea, however, is not a typical side effect of opioid use. In contrast, opioids are often used to treat diarrhea associated with conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome and other gastrointestinal disorders due to their constipating effects.
What is the significance of the pH buffering capacity of saliva in
preventing dental caries?
1) It does not affect caries formation
2) It prevents the formation of lactic acid
3) It helps to maintain a pH above the critical threshold for demineralization
4) It promotes the formation of enamel
Saliva's buffering capacity helps to counteract the acidity produced by bacterial fermentation of sugars, maintaining a pH above the critical threshold and preventing demineralization.
Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?
1) Patients commonly complain of postoperative headache
2) An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively
3) There is a profound amnesic action and no side effects
4) Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours postoperatively
5) As a benzodiazepine, the action can be reversed with Flumazenil
Diazepam can cause side effects, including sedation and impaired motor function, and is not free from adverse reactions.
Considering the 3D growth of the face, it ceases last in which direction?
1. A-P
2. sagittal
3. transverse
4. vertical
for facial growth order of growth is width > depth > height
What is the primary consideration for a substitute decision-maker in the
case of a patient with advanced Alzheimer's disease?
1) The patient's past preferences
2) The cost of treatment
3) The healthcare provider's opinion
4) The decision-maker's personal beliefs
The primary consideration for a substitute decision-maker should be
to make choices that align with what the patient would have wanted based on
their past preferences and best interests.
What is the most common microorganism found in infected root canals?
1) Streptococcus viridans.
2) Staphylococcus aureus.
3) Lactobacilli.
4) Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Streptococcus viridans is commonly found in infected root canals due to its ability to thrive in the anaerobic environment and form a significant part of the oral flora.
The biologic standard used to test the efficiency of sterilization involves the use of spores of a harmless bacillus
What is the purpose of using a rubber dam during a stainless steel crown procedure?
1) To isolate the tooth.
2) To remove caries.
3) To reduce occlusal surface.
4) To mix cement.
A rubber dam is used to isolate the tooth during a stainless steel crown procedure.
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
Which of the following areas cannot be determined by survey analysis of a partially edentulous cast?
1) Areas to be blocked out for framework
2) Areas shaped for clasp retention
3) Areas used for guideline planes
4) Depth of rest seats
ADC Test Answer: 4
Survey analysis assists in determining areas suitable for clasp retention, framework design, and guiding planes, but it cannot measure the depth of rest seats directly.
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation for suspected mandibular fractures? 1) MRI 2) Orthopantomogram 3) CT scan 4) Lateral cephalogram
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 2The orthopantomogram (OPG) is the first-line radiographic investigation for suspected mandibular fractures. It provides a panoramic view of the mandible, making it ideal for fracture assessment.
First sign of complication of anaesthesia:
1) Tachycardia
2) Bradycardia
3) Hypertension
4) Convulsions
Tachycardia is often the first sign of many complications seen in anaesthesia.
What is the purpose of the principle of nonmaleficence in dental practice?
1) To ensure dentists do not cause harm to patients
2) To justify the use of painful procedures for therapeutic purposes
3) To require dentists to provide only the most expensive treatments
4) To prioritize the dentist's financial success
Nonmaleficence is the principle that guides healthcare professionals, including dentists, to avoid causing harm to patients. It is often paired with beneficence and requires that treatments and care are provided with the intent to do no harm.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using computerized dental records?
- Enhanced data security
- Reduced need for physical storage space
- Increased likelihood of errors and illegibility
- Improved efficiency in retrieving patient information
Computerized records generally reduce errors and improve legibility compared to handwritten notes.
Amalgam separators are used to reduce mercury exposure by capturing amalgam waste before it enters the wastewater system, thereby minimizing environmental contamination and health risks.
The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a 1. significant increase in number of oral bacteria 2. shift towards a more acidogenic microflora 3 significant decrease in number of oral bacteria 4 shift towards a more aerobic micro flora
Microbiology Answer: 2The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a shift towards a more acidogenic microflora
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for dental records according to the GDC?
1) Records must be clear and concise
2) Records must include financial information
3) Records must be contemporaneous
The GDC does not require financial information to be included in dental records; the focus is on clinical and patient care information.
Which of the following has a uricosuric action:
1) Allopurinol
2) Losartan
3) Ramipril
4) Atenolol
Losartan has a uricosuric action in addition to being an angiotensin receptor blocker. Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor which reduces the synthesis of uric acid.
A 64-year-old patient with a history of metastatic breast cancer presents with loose teeth, dental pain, and swollen gums. What is the most likely causative agent?
1) Osteonecrosis of the left mandible
2) Long-term use of bisphosphonates
3) Osteomyelitis
4) Periodontal disease
Patients on long-term bisphosphonates for metastatic cancer are at risk for osteonecrosis of the jaw, which can present with loose teeth and swelling.
What is the first step in managing trismus?
1) Prescribing muscle relaxants
2) Applying heat to the affected area
3) Administering corticosteroids
4) Performing surgical intervention
Initial treatment for trismus includes applying heat and administering anti-inflammatory medications to reduce muscle spasm.
Which of the following is a beta channel antagonist?
1) Verapamil
2) Nifedipine
3) Amplodipine
4) Metoprolol
Metoprolol is a beta channel antagonist because it belongs to a class of drugs known as beta blockers. Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on beta receptors in the body, thereby reducing heart rate and blood pressure. Metoprolol specifically targets beta-1 receptors, which are primarily found in the heart. By blocking these receptors, metoprolol helps to reduce the workload on the heart and improve its efficiency. This makes metoprolol an effective medication for treating conditions such as hypertension, angina, and certain types of heart rhythm disorders.
In patients under corticosteroid therapy, what precaution must be taken to prevent adrenal crisis during oral surgery?
1) Ensure doses are not missed to maintain adrenal reserve
2) Gradually taper off corticosteroids before surgery
3) Increase corticosteroid dosage immediately post-operatively
4) Administer corticosteroid injections during surgery
Corticosteroids suppress the adrenal glands, so missing doses can lead to an adrenal crisis.
Which antihypertensive agent is an ACE inhibitor?
1) Amlodipine
2) Losartan
3) Ramipril
4) Atenolol
Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor, while Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, Losartan is an ARB, and Atenolol is a beta-blocker.
Which component of amalgam gives strength?
1) Copper
2) Silver
3) Tin
4) Zinc
Copper enhances the strength and hardness of dental amalgam, making it a critical component in its formulation.
When no radiation shield is available, the operator should stand out of the primary x-ray beam and a distance from the patient’s head of at least:
1) 0.5 metres
2) 1 metre
3) 1.5 metres
4) 2 metres
ADC Test Answer: 4
To minimize exposure to ionizing radiation, operators should maintain a distance of at least 2 meters (6 feet) from the x-ray source/patient, as dictated by the inverse square law and safety protocols.
Which of the following is/are associated with the presence of microorganisms in
the bloodstream?
1) Anachoresis.
2) Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
3) Bacteremia
4) All of the above.
All the options listed (Anachoresis, Cavernous sinus thrombosis, and Bacteremia) are associated with the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream. Anachoresis refers to the process by which bacteria can localize in tissues, cavernous sinus thrombosis can occur due to the spread of infection from the oral cavity, and bacteremia is the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream itself.
What is the primary function of a rest in a removable partial denture (RPD)?
1) Aesthetic enhancement
2) Provide resistance against occlusal load
3) Act as a connector
4) Support the denture base
The primary function of a rest is to provide resistance against occlusal load, ensuring stability in the RPD.
Which of the following dental materials is most suitable for geriatric patients
with limited dexterity?
1) Composite resin
2) Amalgam
3) Glass ionomer cement
4) Temporary restoratives
Glass ionomer cement bonds to tooth structure and releases
fluoride, making it a convenient option that requires less maintenance and can
be beneficial for those with limited dexterity.
Epinephrine causes increased blood glucose level due to: 1. Increased glycogenolysis in liver and muscle 2. Activation of phosphorylase 3. Inhibition of glycogen synthesis in liver
What is the significance of 'dentin involvement' in determining
operative treatment for dental caries?
1) It is a precise indicator for the need for operative treatment.
2) It is a vague term and cannot be relied upon for decision-making.
3) It is always indicative of severe caries progression.
4) It is directly correlated with the presence of cavities.
The term 'dentin involvement' is not specific enough to accurately
describe the various changes occurring in the pulpo-dentinal organ during caries
progression. This limits its use as a reliable indicator for determining the
need for operative treatment.
What is the role of lactoferrin in the prevention of dental caries?
1) It produces fluoride
2) It binds to iron, inhibiting bacterial enzymes
3) It forms a protective layer on the tooth surface
4) It produces bicarbonate
Lactoferrin is a protein in saliva that binds to iron, making it unavailable for bacterial enzymes that require iron to function, thus inhibiting their growth and acid production.
Which of the following is NOT a component that reduces cariogenicity?
1) Sucrose
2) Galactose
3) Lactose
4) Fermented carbohydrates
Fermented carbohydrates are not listed as reducing cariogenicity.
A permanent tooth erupting in the mouth of an 11 years old child is most likely 1. maxillary lateral incisor 2. mandibular second bicuspid 3. maxillary third molar 4. rnandibular central incisor
Dental Anatomy Answer: 2A permanent tooth erupting in the mouth of an 11 years old child is most likely mandibular second bicuspid
Syncope may be treated with any of the following drug except
1) Phenylephrine
2) Oxygen
3) Ephedrine
4) Isoproterenol
Isoproterenol is used in the management of bronchospasm during anesthesia; adjunctive treatment for shock.
Kiwi is known to potentially cause which types of hypersensitivity reactions?
1) Type II
2) Type III
3) Type I
4) Type IV
Kiwi can trigger type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as anaphylaxis and urticaria, due to IgE-mediated responses to specific proteins in the fruit.
Which of the following clinical conditions is the most serious?
1) Acute apical abscess of a mandibular central incisor.
2) Mid facial cellulitis.
3) Chronic apical abscess of a mandibular third molar.
4) Infected dentigerous cyst.
Mid-facial cellulitis can rapidly progress to life-threatening complications
like cavernous sinus thrombosis or airway obstruction.
Which of the following has highest minimum alveolar concentration?
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Nitrous oxide has the highest MAC value of 104 among all inhalational anaesthetics.
In patients with anxiety disorders, what is the most common pharmacological option used in the dental setting?
1) Nitrous oxide
2) General anesthesia
3) Local anesthetic
4) Restraints
Nitrous oxide is commonly used for anxiety control due to its safety, rapid onset, and quick recovery time during dental procedures.
What is the treatment for trismus secondary to infection?
1) Warm compresses and antibiotics
2) Surgical drainage and antibiotics
3) Corticosteroid injections and muscle relaxants
4) Physical therapy and pain medication
Infectious causes of trismus often require surgical intervention to drain the infection site, followed by antibiotic therapy.
What is one of the main advantages of using templates for dental records?
1) They eliminate the need for documentation
2) They provide a structured format for organizing information
3) They are always flexible for individual cases
4) They reduce the need for training
Templates can help standardize record keeping and ensure that essential information is consistently documented, although they should be used with caution to avoid limitations.
What does the acronym IR(ME)R stand for?
- Information Rights and Records Management
- Ionizing Radiation (Medical Exposure) Regulations
- Infection Risks and Equipment Maintenance
- Imaging Records and Exposure Reporting
IR(ME)R 2017 Regulations pertain to the use of ionizing radiation for medical purposes, including dental x-rays.
While combining NaOCH and H2O2 as irrigants
1) H2O2 should be used last
2) NaOCH should be used last
3) First irrigation should be done by normal saline
4) NaOCH and H2O2 should never be used simultaneously
Because residual H2O2 might react with debris and produce gas that can cause continuous pain.
Infantile Osteopetrosis as a genetic condition can result into the following
options except?
1) Fractures
2) Hearing loss
3) Vision problems
4) Peeked nose
Infantile Osteopetrosis is a genetic condition that causes abnormal bone growth and density. It can lead to various complications such as fractures, hearing loss, and vision problems. However, a "peeked nose" is not a known symptom or complication of this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is "Peeked nose" as it is not associated with Infantile Osteopetrosis.
In a patient with thyroid surgery, the block to be given is:
1) Stellate ganglion
2) Upper cervical ganglion
3) Dorsal sympathetic ganglion
4) Any of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 2
Upper cervical ganglion Cervical plexus block is most commonly given for carotid endarterectomy but thyroidectomy and tracheostomy can be done under bilateral cervical plexus block.
What is the primary aim of infection control in dentistry?
1) To ensure patient comfort
2) To prevent the spread of infections
3) To maintain a clean and organized workplace
4) To reduce treatment costs
Infection control is a set of precautions taken to prevent the
spread of diseases during dental treatment. It is essential to ensure patient
safety and maintain a healthy environment for both patients and dental staff.
According to the specific plaque hypothesis, which of the following
bacteria is NOT associated with a specific type of dental caries?
1) Streptococcus mutans - enamel caries
2) Lactobacillus - dentinal caries
3) Actinomyces - root caries
4) Escherichia coli - enamel caries
The specific plaque hypothesis links Streptococcus mutans to enamel caries, Lactobacillus to dentinal caries, and Actinomyces to root caries. Escherichia coli is not mentioned as a main cause of dental caries in this context.
A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because:
1) Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest.
2) The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
3) Visibility and access are better.
4) The cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess that does not need to be prepared.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Lingual rests provide better mechanical advantage by minimizing leverage and torque forces on the abutment teeth, preserving their health and stability.
In the extended ecological caries hypothesis, what is the primary
factor that influences microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm?
1) The presence of fermentable carbohydrates.
2) Environmental acidification.
3) The host's immune response.
4) The availability of oxygen.
The extended ecological caries hypothesis posits that acidic environments created by dietary sugars and acids are the main drivers for microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm, particularly favoring the growth of aciduric and acidogenic bacteria like mutans streptococci.
Patients with which blood pressure range should be encouraged to seek medical consultation despite being able to undergo dental treatment? 1) 110/70 mmHg 2) 120/80 to 140/90 mmHg 3) 180/110 mmHg 4) 160/110 mmHg
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Patients with blood pressure between 120/80 and 140/90 should be encouraged to consult a doctor, even though dental treatment can proceed.
Flaccid lip, digit sucking, high frenum attachment & poor muscle tone are the etiology of :
1) Anterior cross bite
2) Diastema
3) Anterior bite
4) Posterior cross bite
Midline diastema Etiology Normal developing dentition - (Ugly Ducking Stage) Parafunctional habits Retrognathic mandible/ Prognathic mandible Frenum attachments
- Flaccid lips along with poor muscle tone
- Simple Tongue thrust can cause anterior open bite as well as diastema
- Thumb sucking or digit sucking for a prolonged time period
Mesio-distal angulation of teeth
Tooth anomalies (eg.
Pathological (Juvenile periodontitis)
What happens when rests are not properly designed?
1) They could be aesthetically displeasing
2) They may not transfer occlusal stresses effectively
3) They could enhance retention
4) They become more comfortable
Poorly designed rests may fail to effectively transfer occlusal stresses, potentially compromising the stability of the RPD.
What is the definition of syncope?
1) A prolonged seizure
2) Transient loss of consciousness due to cerebral anoxia
3) A chronic condition resulting from a brain tumor
4) A mental health disorder
Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a lack of oxygen to the brain. It is characterized by pallor, dilated pupils, coldness of skin, and unconsciousness.
What is the purpose of a chisel in oral surgery?
1) To split teeth
2) To remove bone
3) To elevate soft tissue
4) To luxate teeth
A chisel is used in oral surgery to cut or remove bone, often during procedures such as apicoectomy or osteotomy.
In mixed dentition, which of the following may be considered as a self correcting problem with age?
1) Unilateral loss of primary canine
2) Lack of interdental spaces
3) A distal step
4) Open bite
SOLUTION The possibility that a distal step would become class II is very real, and this not self correcting problem.
Normal child will go through a transitory stage of mandibular incisor crowding at age 8 to 9 even if there will eventually be enough room to accommodate all the permanent teeth in good alignment. In other words, a period when the mandibular incisors are slightly crowded is a normal developmental stage.
Continued development of the arches improves the spacing situation, and by the time the canine teeth erupt, space is once again adequate.
Which of the following can be caused by excessive consumption of soft drinks?
1) Digestive disorder
2) Tooth erosion
3) Tooth decay
4) Colorization of the tongue
Excessive consumption of soft drinks can cause tooth erosion. Soft drinks are
high in sugar and acid, which can weaken the enamel on the teeth over time. This
erosion can lead to tooth sensitivity, discoloration, and even tooth loss if not
addressed It is important to limit the consumption of sugary and acidic
beverages and maintain good oral hygiene to prevent tooth erosion.
What is the primary advantage of using oral sedatives for anxious patients?
1) They provide deeper sedation
2) They are less expensive
3) They have a more predictable onset and duration
4) They require no needle administration
Oral sedatives are often preferred by patients with needle phobia as they avoid the discomfort associated with injections.
Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon an adequate dietary supply of 1 Vitamin A 2 Vitamin E 3 Vitamin K 4 None of the above
Biochemistry Answer: 3Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon Vitamin K intake
What is the most common cause for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars?
1) Dental caries
2) Pericoronitis
3) Impaction due to tumor
4) Orthodontic reasons
Pericoronitis is an inflammation of the tissue around the crown of a partially erupted tooth, often the third molar. It is the most common reason for extracting impacted mandibular third molars.
Die stone has great strength and hardness
Enamel most likely effected by deficiency of vitamin A
During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment material will undergo an additional
expansion if it occurs
1) under water.
2) under vacuum.
3) in a cold environment.
4) in a dry environment.
Hygroscopic expansion occurs when water surrounds the setting gypsum, enhancing
its dimensional changes.
This type of expansion is often utilized intentionally in casting to compensate
for metal shrinkage during cooling.
Which type of blood vessel is classified as an elastic artery?
1) Vein
2) Artery
3) Capillary
4) Arteriole
Elastic arteries, such as the aorta, have a high content of elastic fibers, allowing them to stretch and recoil with blood flow.
What is the best method for managing dental emergencies in gerodontology?
1) Immediate referral to a specialist
2) In-office emergency care
3) Prescribing pain medication
4) Encouraging self-management
Rapid assessment and treatment in the dental office is typically the best approach for managing dental emergencies in elderly patients.
Which dental material is known for its use as a direct restorative material?
1) Resin composite
2) Glass ionomer cement
3) Amalgam
4) All of the above
Resin composites, glass ionomer cements, and amalgam are all commonly used direct restorative materials in dentistry.
Hyperthermia can be seen with:
1) Lithium toxicity
2) Opium withdrawal
3) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
4) Eclampsia
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome, often caused by phenothiazine used for neuroleptanalgesia and premedication, can cause hyperthermia.
What is the most common reason for the failure of an approximal amalgam filling?
1) Marginal leakage
2) Secondary caries
3) Isthmus fracture
4) Overhang
Isthmus fractures are a common reason for the failure of approximal amalgam fillings, often due to stress and occlusal forces.
Ketamine is contraindicated in:
1) Hypertension
2) Raised intracranial tension
3) Raised intraocular tension
4) All of the above
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) esflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Ketamine raises both systolic and diastolic blood pressures and is thus contraindicated in hypertension.
Which of the following is NOT one of the Four Cs of record keeping?
- Clear
- Comprehensive
- Concise
- Contemporaneous
The Four Cs of record keeping are Contemporaneous, Clear, Concise, and Complete.
Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia?
1) Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue
2) Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue
3) Usually caused by Candida species
4) Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue
ADC Test Answer: 2
Oral hairy leukoplakia is typically associated with Epstein-Barr virus and is most commonly found on the lateral borders of the tongue in immunocompromised individuals.
What is the purpose of placing rests on the proximal surfaces of teeth?
1) To enhance aesthetics
2) To prevent food impaction
3) To facilitate easier cleaning
4) To allow for more room in the denture base
Rests on the proximal surfaces prevent food impaction between the minor connector and the tooth.
What is the most common type of periodontal charting?
- Probing depths
- Gingival recession
- Tooth mobility
- Furcation involvement
Probing depths are the most commonly recorded periodontal charting measurement.
The most common cause of failure of the IDN (Inferior Dental Nerve) block is:
1) Injecting too low
2) Injecting too high
3) Injecting into the parotid gland
4) Incorrect anatomical landmarks
ADC Test Answer: 1
If the needle is injected too low, the anesthetic may not reach the nerve effectively, leading to failure of the block and insufficient anesthesia during dental procedures.
What suture material is used on lips?
1) Prolene
2) Nylon
3) Vicryl
4) Both 1 and 2
Prolene and nylon are both commonly used suture materials for lip closures due to their strength and minimal tissue reaction.
What is the predominant microorganism in deep dentinal caries?
1) Streptococcus mutans.
2) Lactobacillus species.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lactobacilli are typically the predominant bacteria found in deep dentinal caries due to their ability to produce high levels of acid in the absence of oxygen.
Which organ has fenestrated capillaries?
1) Liver
2) Kidney
3) Pancreas
4) Lung
Fenestrated capillaries are characteristic of the pancreas, particularly in the islets of Langerhans, which facilitate the exchange of hormones into the bloodstream.
What type of disinfectant is most commonly used for surface disinfection in a
dental office?
1) Alcohol-based
2) Chlorine-based
3) Phenolic-based
4) Iodine-based
Phenolic disinfectants are commonly used in dental offices because
they are broad-spectrum, effective against a wide range of pathogens, and
suitable for disinfecting surfaces and equipment.
Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?
1) Patient commonly complains of postoperative headache
2) An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively
3) There is a profound amnesic action and no side effects
4) Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post-operatively
ADC Test Answer: 3
Although diazepam can cause amnesia, it is incorrect to say there are no side effects; benzodiazepines are known for various side effects including confusion and sedation.
What feature of a crown is most likely responsible for gingival swelling?
1) Material of the crown
2) The occlusion
3) Proximal Contour
4) Surface finish
Poor proximal contour can lead to food impaction and plaque accumulation, contributing to gingival swelling and inflammation around crowns.
What is the primary concern when using templates for dental records?
- Lack of flexibility
- High cost of implementation
- Limited accessibility for patients
- Requires advanced IT skills
While templates can help organize information, the primary concern is that they may not capture all individual aspects of a patient's case or allow for the nuances of personalized care.
What type of information should be included in the patient's medical history?
- Only dental information
- Only medical information
- Both dental and medical information
- Dental, medical, lifestyle, and family history information
A comprehensive medical history should include the patient's dental information, medical conditions, current medications, allergies, and surgeries.
During which stage of caries can a lesion be detected using transillumination?
1) White spot lesion
2) Dentinal caries
3) Enamel caries
4) Advanced cavitation
Transillumination is most effective in detecting interproximal caries, particularly enamel lesions, as the light can penetrate and highlight changes in the tooth structure at these early stages.
What is the typical microorganism found in localized aggressive periodontitis?
1) Porphyromonas gingivalis.
2) Fusobacterium nucleatum.
3) Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans.
4) Prevotella intermedia.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans is frequently associated with localized aggressive periodontitis, contributing to the rapid destruction of periodontal tissues.
The canine eminence is 1. associated with the mandibular canine only 2. the labial ridge on the crown of canine 3. an osseous structure surrounding the root of a canine on the facial aspect 4. the prominent ridge on the lingual surface of a maxillary canine
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3The canine eminence is an osseous structure surrounding the root of a canine on the facial aspect
Local anaesthetic used as an antiarrhythmic agent is:
1) Bupivacaine
2) Lignocaine
3) Cocaine
4) Chlorprocaine
It is also used to treat ventricular tachycardia and to perform nerve blocks Dosage Of Local Anesthesia: 1) Safety dose of 2% Lignocaine is 4.5mg/kg without a Vasoconstrictor Without a Vasoconstrictor 300 mg (maximum dose) 2) Safety dose of 2% Lignocaine is 7mg/kg with a Vasoconstrictor With a Vasoconstrictor – 500 mg (maximum dose) 3) As 1ml of 2% Lignocaine contains 20mg – Where the Maximum safety dose being 300 mg So 15 ml of Drug can be given safely 4) 1:1,00,000 concentration means 1 part of Adrenaline is 1,00,000 parts of Solution Safety Dose of Adrenaline for Dental Use in normal patients is 0.2 mg – which means 20 ml of LA can be given to normal patients containing Adrenaline For cardiac Patients the safety dose of Adrenaline is 0.04mg – Which means 4ml of LA can be given to Patients with cardiac problems containing Adrenaline 5) If the concentration of LA is 1:50,000 – 10 ml of LA can be given safely
Which bacteria is primarily associated with enamel caries?
1) Lactobacillus
2) Actinomyces
3) Streptococcus mutans
4) Porphyromonas gingivalis
S. mutans is a major contributor to enamel caries due to its acidogenic and aciduric properties.
What artery provides nourishment to the TMJ?
1) Superficial temporal artery
2) Maxillary artery
3) Facial artery
4) Inferior alveolar artery
The superficial temporal artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, provides blood supply to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
Which of the following is an indication for a pulpotomy on a primary tooth?
1) Radiographic evidence of internal root resorption.
2) Involvement of interradicular bone with no fistula
3) Involvement of interradicular bone with a fistula
4) Signs and symptoms of reversible pulpitis.
Pulpotomy is indicated when inflammation is limited to the coronal pulp, preserving vitality of the radicular pulp.
What should be avoided when documenting patient records?
1) Using clear language
2) Omitting relevant information
3) Keeping records up to date
4) Documenting consent
It is crucial to provide a complete picture of the patient's dental health to ensure proper care and treatment planning.
Which antihypertensive class includes drugs that may cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect?
1) Beta-blockers
2) ACE inhibitors
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) ARBs
Calcium channel blockers, such as Amlodipine, are associated with gingival hyperplasia.
Which of the following represents the normal relationship of the primary canines?
1) The distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
2) The mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
3) Normal articulation of primary canines is end-to-end.
4) None
Oral MicroAnatomy Answer: 2
In the primary dentition, the mesial inclined
plane of the maxillary canine aligns with the distal inclined plane of the
mandibular canine, facilitating proper occlusal function.
Which of the following is NOT a protective component of saliva against dental
caries?
1) Urea
2) Lactoferrin
3) Statherin
4) Sodium lauryl sulfate
Saliva contains urea, lactoferrin, glycoproteins, lysozyme, lactoperoxidase, sIgA, and calcium/phosphate ions that help protect against caries. Sodium lauryl sulfate is a detergent and not a natural component of saliva with known caries-fighting properties.