Dentist Abroad
Ante’s Law states that:
1) The pericemental area of the abutment teeth must exceed that of the replaced tooth
2) The abutments must be anatomically similar to the replaced tooth
3) The root length of abutments should be equal to the replaced tooth
4) There should be no mobility in abutment teeth
ADC Test Answer: 1
Ante's Law asserts that the combined periodontal support of the abutment teeth must be greater than that of the teeth being replaced to ensure stability.
What is the purpose of a pulp vitality test before a restorative procedure?
1) To determine the presence of pulp infection.
2) To assess the depth of the cavity preparation.
3) To evaluate the need for endodontic treatment.
4) To ensure that the patient is not allergic to the restorative material.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Pulp vitality tests are conducted to assess the health of the tooth's pulp and identify any signs of infection before proceeding with a restorative treatment.
Suppuration results from the combined action of several factors. Which of the following is not one of them?
1) Necrosis
2) Presence of lymphocytes
3) Collection of neutrophils
4) Accumulation of tissue fluid
Neutrophils primarily mediate the inflammatory response and pus formation, while lymphocytes are more involved in chronic inflammation, not in the acute pus production.
Thymol is preservative used for:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Desflurane
4) Enflurane
Halothane is stored in amber-colored bottles and contains thymol 0.01% as a preservative to prevent decomposition by light.
Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given
1) After meals
2) Shortly before meals
3) Along with H2 blockers
4) During prolonged fasting periods
Bio-availability of all proton pump inhibitors is reduced by food; they should be taken in empty stomach, followed 1 hour later by a meal to activate H+K+ ATPase and make it more susceptible to the proton pump inhibitor.
Which of the following is true about the supraeruption of unopposed molars?
1) Supraeruption occurs 60% of the time.
2) Supraeruption is more prevalent in the mandibular arch.
3) Unopposed molars have a mean supraeruption of 3.0mm.
4) Attachment loss is one of the main predictors.
Attachment loss reduces periodontal stability, making it a significant factor in
the supraeruption of unopposed teeth.
What is the role of the healthcare team in the informed consent process?
1) To convince the patient to accept the proposed treatment
2) To provide all necessary information and support the patient's decision
3) To make the treatment decision for the patient
4) To document the consent process
The healthcare team plays a crucial role in ensuring that the patient has a full understanding of their condition and the available treatment options, and in facilitating the patient's decision-making process.
What type of respiratory protection is recommended for dental personnel
during aerosol-producing procedures?
1) N95 mask
2) Surgical mask
3) Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)
4) Full-face respirator
N95 masks are recommended for dental personnel during
aerosol-producing procedures as they provide a higher level of protection
against airborne particles compared to surgical masks. PAPRs and full-face
respirators may be used in certain situations, but N95 masks are sufficient for
most dental procedures.
Which antihypertensive agent is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker?
1) Clonidine
2) Doxazosin
3) Enalapril
4) Furosemide
Doxazosin is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker that works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, reducing blood pressure.
How is acetylcholine released?
1) Diffusion
2) Exocytosis
3) Active transport
4) Osmosis
Acetylcholine is released from nerve terminals into the synaptic cleft via exocytosis, a process where vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
What is more likely to happen to an interproximal composite filling rather than amalgam?
1) Fracture
2) Polymerization shrinkage
3) Marginal leakage
4) Discoloration
Composite materials are more prone to polymerization shrinkage, which can lead to gaps and sensitivity compared to amalgam.
What is the primary ethical concern regarding informed consent in dental
tourism?
1) Cost of treatment
2) Quality of care
3) Patient autonomy and safety
4) Availability of specialists
Informed consent in dental tourism raises ethical concerns about ensuring that patients are fully informed about the risks, benefits, and continuity of care when seeking treatment abroad.
What is the primary purpose of informed consent in healthcare?
1) To protect
the healthcare provider from legal liability
2) To ensure the patient understands the treatment options
3) To expedite the treatment process
4) To document the patient's medical history
Informed consent is primarily about ensuring that patients understand the nature of the treatment, its risks and benefits, and alternatives, allowing them to make an informed decision.
What type of epithelium lines the maxillary sinus?
1) Ciliated columnar
2) Stratified squamous
3) Simple cuboidal
4) Transitional
The maxillary sinus is lined with ciliated columnar epithelium, which is a type of respiratory mucosa
Which type of periodontitis is most likely to require antibiotic
treatment?
1) Chronic periodontitis
2) Aggressive periodontitis
3) Localized aggressive periodontitis (LAP)
4) Necrotizing periodontitis
Localized aggressive periodontitis (LAP) is characterized by rapid destruction of periodontal tissues, particularly in adolescents and young adults. It is associated with specific bacterial pathogens, particularly Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, and often requires systemic antibiotic therapy in addition to scaling and root planing to control the infection effectively. Chronic periodontitis and necrotizing periodontitis may also benefit from antibiotics, but LAP is most likely to necessitate their use due to its aggressive nature and bacterial etiology.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause pain?
1) Carious pulp exposure.
2) Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyp).
3) Acute pulpitis.
4) Apical periodontitis.
Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis, also known as pulp polyp, typically occurs in teeth with large carious lesions and is characterized by the presence of a proliferative mass of inflamed pulp tissue. While it can be associated with some discomfort, it is generally less painful than acute pulpitis or apical periodontitis, as the pulp tissue is often necrotic and the inflammatory response is more chronic and less acute.
Before filling a Class V abrasion cavity with GIC (Glass Ionomer Cement) you should:
1) Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water, and weak acid
2) Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
3) Acid etch cavity then dry thoroughly
4) Rinse the cavity with saline
ADC Test Answer: 1
The purpose of using pumice and a rubber cup is to clean the cavity without excessively drying it, which is important as GIC is moisture-loving.
What is the role of dental records in the event of a malpractice allegation?
- To prove the dentist's innocence
- To determine if the dentist followed the standard of care
- To provide financial compensation to the patient
- To assess the patient's satisfaction with the treatment
Dental records are used to evaluate whether the care provided to the patient met the standard of care expected within the community.
Which fracture is most likely to lead to meningitis?
1) Le Fort 1
2) Le Fort 2
3) Le Fort 3
4) Zygomatic
Le Fort 3 fractures involve the craniofacial skeleton extensively and can disrupt the dura mater, increasing the risk of infection and potentially leading to meningitis.
All of the following drugs cross the placenta except?
1) Phenytoin
2) Diazepam
3) Morphine
4) Heparin
Heparin Heparin does not the cross the placenta. Hence its safe for use in pregnant patients who need anticoagulation.
What are effective strategies to decrease polymerization shrinkage of a composite?
1. Incremental placing of composite using techniques like herringbone and lateral filling methods.
Utilizing incremental builds reduces the stress of polymerization shrinkage by minimizing wall-to-wall effects.
Which of the following factors most significantly influences the oral health
of the geriatric population?
1) Socioeconomic status
2) Age
3) Gender
4) Location
Socioeconomic status can impact access to dental care, education about oral health, and the ability to afford dental treatments, influencing the overall oral health of elderly individuals.
What is force applied per unit area?
1) Strain
2) Stress
3) Couple
4) Center of resistance
SOLUTION Stress is the force applied per unit area while strain can be defined as the internal distortion per unit area.
Stress and strain are inter-related terms as stress is an external force acting upon a body while strain is the resultant of stress on that body.
Strain can be expressed in the form of a change in either the external dimension or internal energy of the body.
Which of the following is not true about casting gypsum-bonded investment material?
1) Its used for cast metal alloys
2) 50—65% of gypsum changes to form α-hemihydrate
3) The investment material is not heated above 700°C temperature
4) Heating above 700°C causes formation of sulphur dioxide from copper sulphate
Gypsum-bonded investments are used for gold alloys.
Ist investments flow contain the α-hemihydrate of gypsum. because greater strength is obtained. This gypsum
product serves as a binder to hold other ingredients together and provide rigidity. The strength of the investment is dependent on the amount of binder present.
A slight expansion takes place between 400°C and approximately 700°C (1292°F). and then a large contraction occurs. This later shrinkage is most likely caused by decomposition and release of sulphur gases, such as sulphur dioxide.
This decomposition not only causes shrinkage but also contaminates the casting with the sulphides of the nonnohlc alloying elements, such as silver and copper. Thus, it is imperative that gypsum investments should not be heated above 700°C (1292°F). however, for gypsum products containing carbon, the maximum temperature should be 650°C (1202°F). In this way, proper ut and uncontaminated alloys are obtained.
The principle of beneficence obliges dentists to:
1) Only provide treatments that are profitable
2) Act in the best interest of the patient
3) Follow the latest trends in dental technology
4) Delegate all complex procedures to specialists
Beneficence is the ethical principle that requires dentists to act
in the best interest of their patients, promoting well-being and providing
competent and appropriate care. It does not relate to profit, trends, or
delegation of duties but rather to the moral obligation to do good for the
patient.
The principal growth sites of the maxilla in a downward and forward direction include which of the following sutures?
1 Frontomaxillary.
2) Zygomaticomaxillary.
3) Pterygopalatine.
4) Median palatine.
1). (1), (2), and (3).
2). (1) and (3).
3). (2) and (4).
4). (4) only.
Growth of the maxilla occurs at multiple sutures, particularly the frontomaxillary, zygomaticomaxillary, and pterygopalatine, allowing for its expansion and forward displacement.
A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotics for oral infection; this is an example of:
1) Type I allergic reaction
2) Nervous disorder
3) Side effect of the drug
4) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
ADC Test Answer: 3
Gastrointestinal upset is a common side effect of antibiotics, occurring due to their impact on gut flora and digestive processes.
What is the suitable restoration approach for a Class III jaw relationship with limited coronal height?
1) Provide a gold onlay
2) Provide a full crown
3) Increase vertical dimension
4) Crown lengthening
An adhesively retained gold onlay is ideal for teeth with limited coronal height due to its ability to conserve tooth structure while providing durability.
In the TNM classification, what does T1 indicate?
1) Tumor size greater than 4 cm
2) Tumor size less than 2 cm
3) Tumor extending to adjacent structures
4) Tumor size between 2-4 cm
T1 indicates that the tumor is less than 2 cm in its greatest dimension, which is an important factor in staging cancer.
A reversible white spot lesion indicates early demineralization that can be reversed with proper care and management
What is the purpose of placing rests on the proximal surfaces of teeth?
1) To enhance aesthetics
2) To prevent food impaction
3) To facilitate easier cleaning
4) To allow for more room in the denture base
Rests on the proximal surfaces prevent food impaction between the minor connector and the tooth.
Platelets play an important role in hemostasis; which of the following describes this role?
1) They convert fibrinogen to fibrin
2) They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels
3) They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis
4) They supply fibrin stabilizing factors
ADC Test Answer: 2
Platelets are crucial for forming a plug at the site of vessel injury, which is a key step in the hemostatic process.
Most potent inhaled anaesthetic is:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Desflurane
Halothane is the most potent inhalational agent with a MAC of 0.74%.
What is the most common cause of dental trauma in children?
1) Sports injuries
2) Falls
3) Accidental injuries
4) Physical altercations
Falls are the most common cause of dental trauma in children, often resulting in fractures or avulsions of teeth.
Most potent opioid:
1) Fentanyl
2) Alfentanil
3) Buprenorphine
4) Sufentanil
Sufentanil is the most potent opioid, being 500-1,000 times more potent than morphine.
The fovea palatini serves as a landmark for determining:
1) Anterior border of upper denture
2) Posterior border of upper denture
3) Midline of the arch
4) Occlusal plane angle
ADC Test Answer: 2
The fovea palatini marks the posterior seal area of the upper denture, essential for denture retention.
Possible thin dentin with normal enamel thickness and cervical fractures are
symptoms of which option?
1) Dentin dysplasia
2) Hypercementosis
3) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
4) Hypo plastic Amelogenesis
Possible thin dentin with normal enamel thickness and cervical fractures are symptoms of Dentinogenesis imperfect1) This condition is characterized by the abnormal development of dentin, which is the hard tissue that forms the majority of the tooth. In Dentinogenesis imperfecta, the dentin is not properly formed, leading to weak and brittle teeth that are prone to fractures. The enamel, on the other hand, is typically normal in thickness.
What is the typical healing time for a simple extraction of a tooth?
1) 3-5 days
2) 1-2 weeks
3) 2-4 weeks
4) 4-6 weeks
Healing after a simple tooth extraction typically occurs within 1 to 2 weeks, although complete healing may take longer.
Which of the following can be an effective non-pharmacological technique to manage dental anxiety?
1) Immediate extraction
2) Encouraging distracted breathing
3) Ignoring the patient's fear
4) Avoiding all discussion about the procedure
Distracted breathing techniques can help patients manage anxiety by focusing their attention away from the stressor.
What is the role of the dental nurse in maintaining patient records?
- To make and keep complete and accurate records of patient treatments and discussions
- To handle financial transactions and appointments
- To manage the dental office's social media accounts
- To oversee the sterilization of instruments
Dental nurses are crucial in the record-keeping process as they can take notes during patient appointments, ensuring that the records are made contemporaneously.
What material is LEAST usable for an impression of PFM (Porcelain-Fused-to-Metal)?
A. Alginate
B. Polyvinyl siloxane
C. Polyether
D. Agar
Alginate is primarily used for making preliminary impressions due to its set time and hydrophilic properties but does not provide the necessary detail and stability required for precise impressions needed for PFMs.
What is the primary function of the tensor tympani muscle?
1) To assist in swallowing
2) To dampen loud sounds
3) To facilitate hearing
4) To stabilize the jaw
The tensor tympani muscle helps protect the inner ear from loud sounds by tensing the tympanic membrane, reducing sound transmission.
What does a serological smear test diagnose?
1) Candidiasis.
2) Squamous cell carcinoma.
3) Lichen planus.
4) Herpes simplex.
E. Pemphigoid.
ADC Test Answer: 4
A serological smear test can be used to diagnose Herpes simplex virus infections by identifying the presence of the virus in the smear from the lesion.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the size of the face at birth?
1) The face forms 2/3rd the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd of the bulk.
2) The face forms the bulk of the head through life
3) The face forms 1/3rd the bulk of the head, whereas in the adult it forms 1/8th of the bulk
4) The face forms only 1/8th of the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd to of the bulk.
Due to the advanced state of the growth of brain this size at birth of the head of the infant is relatively large .
Most potent opioid:
1) Fentanyl
2) Alfentanil
3) Buprenorphine
4) Sufentanil
Sufentanil is the most potent opioid, being 500-1,000 times more potent than morphine.
What is the typical shape of a pit and fissure lesion?
1) Inverted V-shape
2) V-shape
3) U-shape
4) O-shape
Pit and fissure lesions begin narrow and widen as they progress into the tooth structure.
Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of the following sites?
1) Lateral border anteriorly
2) Anterior dorsal surface
3) Posterior dorsal surface
4) Lateral border posteriorly
ADC Test Answer: 4
The lateral border of the tongue, particularly posteriorly, is a common site for oral squamous cell carcinoma.
Strength and hardness of a gypsum model or cast are affected by water-powder ratio and porosity of cast
What is the difference between a dental chart and a dental record?
1) A dental chart is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental record includes all patient information.
2) A dental chart includes only the patient's medical history, while a dental record has the full treatment history.
3) A dental record is a visual representation of teeth, while a dental chart has the full treatment history.
4) Both are the same.
A dental chart is a part of the patient's dental record that specifically depicts the teeth and their conditions.
A periapical radiograph can be used to locate the buccal bone level.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
Water on the surface of enamel has the following effect on polycarboxylate cements. 1. increases the setting time 2. decreases the opacity of the set cement 3. interferes with chemical adhesion of the cement to enamel 4. increases the acidity of the cement
Dental Material Answer: 3Water interferes with chemical adhesion of the polycarboxylate cement to enamel
What antibiotic is used to manage a superinfected herpetic lip lesion?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Metronidazole
3) Cefuroxime
4) Amoxicillin
Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria and is often used for superinfected lesions, including herpetic lesions.
The nerve damaged if injured at the stylomastoid foramen is:
1) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
2) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN 8)
3) Facial nerve (CN 7)
4) Accessory nerve (CN 11)
The facial nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and is therefore at risk of damage at this location.
What is TRUE in regards to osteogenesis imperfecta?
1) Manifests with blue sclera
2) May be associated with deafness
3) Sex-linked disorder of bones that develop in cartilage
4) All of the above
ADC Test Answer: 1
Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by fragile bones, blue sclera due to thin collagen in the eye, and may also have associations with hearing loss.
What is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors?
1) Hyperkalemia
2) Cough
3) Constipation
4) Bradycardia
ACE inhibitors frequently cause a dry cough as a side effect due to bradykinin buildup.
What is a common reason why a ten-year-old amalgam filling has become raised above the tooth surface?
1) Wear
2) Creep
3) Improper placement
4) Over-carving
Creep is the tendency of dental amalgam to deform under constant stress, often leading to a raised filling surface as it continues to flow slowly over time.
Contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy is all except:
1) Tumour involving pyriform sinus
2) Vocal cord fixidity
3) Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread
4) Post cricoid area expansion
Pre-epiglottic involvement is not a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy.
A single force applied at which point of a tooth will allow complete translation of the tooth.
1) At the apex
2) At the incisal edge
3) At the center of resistance
4) At the center of rotation
SOLUTION Center of resistance- Point analogous to the centers of gravity.
Generally it is constant.In single root it lies between one third and one half of the root apical to alveolar crest.
In multi rooted tooth it lies 1-2 mm apical to furcation
What legislation gives patients the right to access their dental records?
- General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- Data Protection Act 2018
- Access to Health Records Act 1990
- All of the above
The Access to Health Records Act 1990 gives patients, or their representatives in the case of a deceased patient, the right to access their healthcare records, including dental records.
What is the significance of the tail of an enamel rod being less mineralized
than the head?
1) It helps in the flexibility of the tooth
2) It provides a site for tooth coloration
3) It aids in nutrient absorption
4) It is more susceptible to decay
The tail of an enamel rod has less mineral content, making it more prone to demineralization and decay compared to the head.
Thymol is preservative used for:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Desflurane
4) Enflurane
Halothane can be decomposed by light so stored in amber colour bottles and contains thymol 0.01 % as preservative.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides:
1) Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
2) Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
3) Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may cause Kernicterus
4) Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to Norcardia species
Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT Sulfasalazine is poorly absorbed (10-20%) from the GIT .
Patients with which condition may require premedication with antibiotics before dental procedures?
1) Asthma
2) Congenital heart defects
3) Alzheimer’s disease
4) Hypertension
Patients with certain congenital heart defects are at an increased risk of bacterial endocarditis and may require prophylactic antibiotics before dental treatment.
Which of the following new technologies uses light to detect dental caries?
1) Digital Imaging Fibre-Optic Transillumination (DIFOTI)
2) Laser fluorescence (DIAGNOdent)
3) Quantitative Light-Induced Fluorescence (QLF)
4) All of the above
DIFOTI, DIAGNOdent, and QLF are all new technologies that utilize light to detect dental caries. They work by identifying changes in light transmission or fluorescence caused by the presence of carious lesions.
In temporomandibular joint least vascularity is seen in which of the following:
1) Articular cartilage
2) Anterior part of articular cartilage
3) Posterior part of articular cartilage
4) Central part of articular disc
Are prions resistant to inactivation by conventional sterilization methods?
1) Yes
2) No
3) Only in certain conditions
4) Depends on the type of prion
Prions are resistant to inactivation by conventional sterilization methods, making them particularly challenging to eliminate.
The parasympathetic fibers to pterygopalatine ganglion come from greater petrosal nerve
What is the primary role of saliva in oral health?
1) Aids in digestion
2) Provides antibacterial action
3) Helps in remineralization of teeth
4) All of the above
Saliva plays multiple roles in oral health, including aiding digestion, providing antibacterial action, and helping in the remineralization of teeth.
What is the primary goal of behavioral management techniques in treating anxious patients in dentistry?
1) To eliminate all signs of anxiety
2) To reduce the patient's anxiety to a level where dental treatment can be performed comfortably
3) To induce sleep during the procedure
4) To replace the patient's fear with positive emotions
The main objective of behavioral management is to create a relaxed and cooperative atmosphere, making it possible to conduct the necessary dental procedures without causing undue distress.
Acetylcholinesterase receptor opens an ion channel, undergoes irreversible conformational changes when exposed to carbamates , it is inactivated in myasthenia gravis
Lactobacillus is an acidogenic genus found in deep dental caries, that often increases significantly in the saliva during periods of caries activity
Dens in dente is thought to arise as a result of 1. a normal tooth but enclaved within an other tooth, during formation 2. proliferation and evagination of an area of the inner enamel epithelium 3. extensive growth of mesenchymal cells of pulp tissue 4. an invagination of the enamel organ during tooth formation
Oral Pathology Answer: 4Dens in dente is an invagination of the enamel organ during tooth formation
What is the recommended method for storing dental records?
- In a cardboard box in the office
- In a secure, climate-controlled room
- With the patient's financial records
- In an unlocked drawer
Dental records should be kept in a secure and controlled environment to prevent damage or unauthorized access.
Which of the following medications is known to potentially cause a lichenoid reaction?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Beta blockers
3) Paracetamol
4) Antibiotics
Beta blockers and certain other medications, including NSAIDs and antimalarials, can cause lichenoid drug reactions, characterized by oral lesions resembling lichen planus.
A medication that may elicit headache as a side effect :
1) thiazide
2) Methyldopa
3) hydralazine
4) Procainamide
A number of medications may elicit headache as a side effect.
Common offenders include nitroglycerin, hydralazine, calcium-channel blockers, digitalis, and estrogen.
Recreational drugs such as nicotine, alcohol, marijuana, and amphetamines can also induce headache.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is considered a cardio-stable anaesthetic.
The basic principle of Orthodontic spot welder lies on the concept of :-
1 Heat technique
2) Quenching
3) Diodelasers
4) Electrode Technique
SOLUTION The type of welding used to join Orthodontic components is called Spot welding.
1. Transmit current to the metals to be joined so as to cause a rapid increase in temperature.
2. The electrodes help in conducting the heat produced away from the area so as to preserve the properties of stainless steel around the weld spot.
3. The electrode also help in holding together the two metals to be joined.
4. The electrodes are designed to apply pressure on the metals being joined. As soon as the temperature increases, the pressure exerted by the electrodes helps in squeezing metal into each other.
Which muscle protrudes the hyoid?
1) Suprahyoids
2) Infrahyoids
3) Geniohyoid
4) Stylohyoid
The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located in the neck, just above the larynx.
Brief explanation of the other muscles:
1) Suprahyoids: The suprahyoid muscles are a group of muscles that are situated
superior to the hyoid bone. Their primary function is to elevate the hyoid
during activities like swallowing. They include the digastric, stylohyoid, and
mylohyoid muscles. However, they do not directly protrude the hyoid.
2) Infrahyoids: The infrahyoid muscles are a group of muscles that are situated
inferior to the hyoid bone. They function to depress the hyoid bone during
activities like swallowing and speech. They include the sternohyoid, omohyoid,
thyrohyoid, and geniohyoid muscles.
4) Stylohyoid: The stylohyoid muscle is one of the infrahyoid muscles and it
originates from the styloid process of the temporal bone and inserts into the
lesser cornu and the body of the hyoid bone. Its main function is to elevate and
draw the hyoid bone backward and laterally. It does not directly protrude the
hyoid.
The geniohyoid muscle is the most specific in its action to protrude the hyoid
bone .
What is the typical microorganism found in localized aggressive periodontitis?
1) Porphyromonas gingivalis.
2) Fusobacterium nucleatum.
3) Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans.
4) Prevotella intermedia.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans is frequently associated with localized aggressive periodontitis, contributing to the rapid destruction of periodontal tissues.
In the extended ecological caries hypothesis, what is the primary
factor that influences microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm?
1) The presence of fermentable carbohydrates.
2) Environmental acidification.
3) The host's immune response.
4) The availability of oxygen.
The extended ecological caries hypothesis posits that acidic environments created by dietary sugars and acids are the main drivers for microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm, particularly favoring the growth of aciduric and acidogenic bacteria like mutans streptococci.
Defluoridation of water can be done by:
1)
Lime and alum
2)
Bleaching powders
3)
Potassium permanganate
4)
Sodium chloride
One of the most effective methods for defluoridation is the Nalgonda
technique, which involves the use of lime, alum, and bleaching powder.
The smallest and most inaccessible root canal-in the maxillary second molar is the 1. faciolingual 2. mesiobuccal 3. lingual 4. distobuccal
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4The smallest and most inaccessible root canal-in the maxillary second molar is the distobuccal
What is the primary feature of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.
Not a physical property of propofol:
1) Water based preparation
2) Colour of the solution is white
3) It contains egg lecithin
4) Used as 2% strength
Propofol is oil based preparation containing soybean oil, egg lecithin and glycerol. The colour is milky white and available as 1% and 2% strength.
Tongue is protruded by Genioglossus
What is the primary component of saliva that helps in remineralization?
1) Lactoferrin
2) Calcium and phosphate ions
3) Urea
4) Glycoproteins
Saliva contains calcium and phosphate ions, which are essential for the remineralization of teeth.
A patient who had epilepsy 10 years ago but is now in control. Which technique will you use?
1) Inhalation sedation
2) IV sedation
3) Carry on with treatment
If the patient's epilepsy is well-controlled, routine dental treatment can proceed without special precautions.
The most common failure in constructing porcelain-to-metal restorations is due to:
1) Improper metal framework
2) Rapid heating
3) Poor porcelain layering
4) Inadequate glazing
ADC Test Answer: 1
The failure of porcelain-to-metal restorations frequently arises from a poorly constructed metal framework, which compromises the bond between the two materials.
A 16-year-old patient presents with bleeding gums and a bad smell. Which antibiotic should be prescribed?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Metronidazole
3) Clindamycin
4) Tetracycline
Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria, which are often involved in gingivitis and periodontitis, making it suitable for treating this patient's condition.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but
that it is still intact. Your instructions should be to
1) put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day.
2) place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately. .
3) put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately.
4) place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately.
Placing an avulsed tooth in milk is recommended because it helps preserve the vitality of the periodontal ligament cells. Milk has a similar osmolality to that of human cells, which can help keep the cells alive until the patient can receive professional dental care. Immediate treatment is crucial for the best chance of successful re-implantation.
A 4 year old has generalized bone loss, mobile teeth and generalized calculus.
Which condition should NOT be included in the differential diagnosis?
1) Cyclic neutropenia
2) Papillon-Lefevre syndrome.
3) Chediak-Higashi syndrome.
4) Crouzon syndrome.
Crouzon syndrome is associated with craniofacial abnormalities, not generalized
bone loss or periodontal issues.
Crouzon syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FGFR2 gene, which is important for bone formation
For anterior teeth restorations, which type of material is preferred due to its esthetics?
1) Amalgam
2) Glass ionomer
3) Composite resin
4) Dental cement
Composite resin is preferred for anterior teeth restorations due to its superior esthetic qualities, allowing for natural color matching.
Which nerve is located between the palatoglossus and palatopharyngeus
muscles?
1) Cranial nerve 9
2) Cranial nerve 7
3) Cranial nerve 10
4) Cranial nerve 12
The facial nerve (CN 7) passes between the palatoglossus and
palatopharyngeus muscles in the pterygopalatine fossa.
For a pigmented fissure, what is the best way to diagnose caries?
1) Visual examination
2) Radiographic examination
3) Investigate the area with a round bur
4) Transillumination
Investigating the area with a round bur allows for direct assessment of the fissure and any underlying carious lesions.
Which dimension in which arch is considered as a safety value for pubertal growth spurts?
1) Maxillary intercanine dimension
2) Mandibular intercanine dimension
3) Maxillary intermolar width
4) Mandibular intermolar width
SOLUTION Intercanine width serves as safety valve for dominant horizontal basal mandibular growth spurt.
The growth of the alveolar process has a major effect on
1) Anteroposterior jaw relationship
2) Vertical jaw relationship
3) Both
4) None of the above
What is the general guideline for discussing risks with patients?
1) Only discuss risks that are common and severe
2) Discuss all possible risks, no matter how rare
3) Only discuss risks that patients inquire about
4) It is not necessary to discuss risks if the treatment is routine
Healthcare providers should inform patients about common and severe
risks that have a reasonable chance of occurring, allowing them to make an
informed decision.
What enzyme assists microorganisms in the dentin caries process?
1) Enolase
2) Collagenase
3) Amylase
4) Lactoferrin
Enolase plays a crucial role in the metabolic processes of bacteria involved in dentin caries, facilitating their growth and acid production.
Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is:
1) Fibroedematous
2) Edematous
3) Fibrotic
4) Formed within an infrabony pocket
Edematous tissue is more likely to shrink after curettage due to the presence of excess fluid.
A successful stellate ganglion block can produce:
1) Hypotension
2) Horner syndrome
3) Brachial plexus involvement
4) All of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
All of the above Successful stellate ganglion will produce Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis.
What is the role of SmartConsent technology in informed consent?
1) To
replace the need for consent
2) To standardize and communicate information effectively to patients
3) To eliminate the need for written consent
4) To provide legal protection for healthcare providers
SmartConsent aims to improve how information about risks and benefits is communicated to patients.
Drug used in acute gout is?
1) Aspirin
2) Indomethacin
3) Phenylbutazone
4) Allopurinol
Treatment of acute gout is mainly to control symptoms, i.e.
The symptoms of acute gout are due to inflammation in the joints.
So, drugs which decrease inflammation are used in acute gout, i.e. anti-inflammatory drugs. Drugs are:- NSAIDs, Colchicine, Corticosteroids
Which nerve fibers are responsible for pulpal pain?
1) A-alpha fibers
2) A-delta fibers
3) C fibers
4) Both 2 and 3
A-delta fibers are responsible for sharp, stabbing pain associated with pulpal pain, while C fibers transmit dull, aching pain.
To impart a hardening heat treatment to a dental gold alloy, the best method is to Reheat to 450°C and cool uniformly to 250°C over a period of 15 to 30 minutes
Which ion acts as a second messenger?
1) Sodium
2) Potassium
3) Calcium
4) Magnesium
Calcium ions serve as important second messengers in various cellular signaling pathways, facilitating communication within and between cells.
In patients with cerebral palsy, which position is often recommended for dental procedures?
1) Supine
2) Prone
3) Elevated semi-upright
4) Lateral recumbent
An elevated semi-upright position can enhance comfort and respiratory efficiency for patients with cerebral palsy during dental treatments.
Nitinol has the disadvantage of which of the following?
1) It cannot be formed into desired shapes
2) It lacks elastic properties
3) Its strength is not suited for orthodontic purposes
4) It lacks stiffness
Nitinol is a metal alloy – or mixture – of nickel and titanium.
Endogenous morphine-like substances that can control pain are known as:
1) Bradykinins
2) Enkephalins
3) Prostaglandins
4) Serotonins
ADC Test Answer: 2
Enkephalins are opioid peptides that play a significant role in pain regulation and are produced by the body.
After an amalgam restoration has been carved, it is important to lightly burnish the surface because burnishing 1. moves the amalgam in such a way as to fill in voids and submarginal areas 2. changes the contour of the restoration 3. increases the amalgam’s resistance to corrosion 4. contributes a dull luster to the surface
Dental Material Answer: 3After an amalgam restoration has been carved, it is important to lightly burnish the surface because burnishing increases the amalgam’s resistance to corrosion
X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of:
1) Silver nitrate crystal
2) Metallic silver in gelatine
3) Silver bromide in gelatine
4) Silver nitrate in gelatine
ADC Test Answer: 3
The emulsion on x-ray films is primarily composed of silver bromide crystals suspended in gelatin, which is sensitive to radiation.
Baker anchorage utilizes
1) Intermaxillary anchorage with screws
2) Intramaxillary anchorage with screws
3) Intermaxillary anchorage with elastics
4) Intramaxillary anchorage with elastics
SOLUTION Intermaxillary anchorage or Baker's Anchorage.
Intramaxillary anchorage is also used in the form of E-chain, when elastics are used from the back molar teeth to the front teeth in the same jaw to move teeth back of the mouth.
Vasopressor of choice for spinal hypotension in pregnancy:
1) Ephedrine
2) Mephentermine
3) Methoxamine
4) None of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 2
Mephentermine
Which of the following best describes the concept of "informed refusal"?
1) A patient agreeing to treatment without understanding the risks
2) A patient declining treatment after being fully informed of the risks and benefits
3) A dentist refusing to treat a patient
4) A patient who is unable to make decisions about their care
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Informed refusal occurs when a patient, after being provided with all necessary information regarding a treatment option, chooses not to proceed with it. This respects the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare.
What is the primary function of salivary IgA?
1) To neutralize bacterial toxins
2) To prevent bacterial adhesion to tooth surfaces
3) To initiate the immune response against caries-causing bacteria
4) To provide a source of calcium for remineralization
Salivary IgA is an antibody that specifically targets bacteria in the mouth, helping to prevent their colonization and the initiation of the caries process.
During crown cementation, complete filling of crown with cement is not advisable due to :
1) Increased risk of bubble entrapment
2) Increased seating time
3) Increased pressure required for seating crown
4) All of the above
It is not advisable to fill the crown completely with cement due to following 4 reasons: 1.
2. the risk for bubble entrapment increases
3. increased pressure may be needed
4. the time for seating increases
Ability of an orthodontic wire to spring back to Its original shape is evaluated by
1) Brittleness
2) Resilience
3) Tensile strength
4) Toughness
Resilience is the amount of energy absorbed by a structure when it is stressed to proportional Limit.
The elastic area of the stress-strain graph gives resilience; entire area up to breaking point is a measure of toughness.
The slope of straight Line gives Young’s modulus.
Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
1) Propofol
2) Ketamine
3) Atracurium
4) Fentanyl
Ketamine increases cerebral O2 consumption.
What should a dentist do if a patient is unable to provide informed consent
due to language barriers?
1) Proceed with treatment without consent
2) Use a family member as an interpreter
3) Use a professional interpreter or translation services
4) Rely on non-verbal cues from the patient
Dentists should use professional interpreters or translation services to communicate effectively with patients who do not speak the same language. This ensures accurate information is conveyed and that the patient fully understands their treatment options and can make informed decisions.
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of ?
1) Generalized tonic clonic seizures
2) Absence seizures
3) Simple partial seizures
4) Complex partial seizures
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures. Other drugs used in the management of absence seizures are valproic acid, lamotrigine and clonazepam.
A Class III antiarrhythmic agent that blocks K+ channels, prolongs action potential duration , and lengthens QT interval.
1) propranolol
2) acebutolol
3) sotalol
4) esmolol
Sotalol is a Class III antiarrhythmic agent that blocks K+ channels, prolongs action potential duration (APD), and lengthens QT interval.
Noncardiac selective beta-adrenergic blocker.
The D-isomer has less than 1/50 beta-blocking activity of the L-isomer.
Sotalol possesses 30% of beta-blocking activity of propranolol
A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because:
1) Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest.
2) The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
3) Visibility and access are better.
4) The cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess that does not need to be prepared.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Lingual rests provide better mechanical advantage by minimizing leverage and torque forces on the abutment teeth, preserving their health and stability.
The effects of hypoglycemia is marked by
1) Warfarin
2) Beta blockers
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) Amino glycosides
Beta blockers
Hypoglycemia can occur with beta-blockade because b2- adrenoceptors normally stimulate hepatic glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) and pancreatic release of glucagon, which work together to increase plasma glucose.
Which of the following is a well-recognized feature of capitation-based remuneration?
1) Encourages under-prescribing
2) Encourages high technical quality of work
3) Encourages high output of procedures
4) Encourages over-prescribing
Capitated payments encourage dentists to provide quality treatment since their income is not based on the number of procedures performed.
Which investigation would be most useful to check for hypertensive heart disease? 1) Urinalysis 2) Chest radiography 3) Blood sugar test 4) Echocardiogram
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Chest radiography can help identify cardiomegaly, which is suggestive of hypertensive heart disease.
Immediately following the closure of the A-V valves is the period of 1. Isotonic contraction 2. Isometric contraction 3. Isometric relaxation 4. Isotonic relaxation
Anatomy Answer: 3Immediately following the closure of the A-V valves is the period of Isometric relaxation
Which of the following analyses is most appropriate for use in an adult patient?
1) Moyers.
2) Bolton.
3) Tanaka-Johnston.
4) all of the above.
The Bolton analysis is most appropriate for use in adult
patients to determine the fit and proportion of teeth. It is a method of
measuring the mesiodistal and buccolingual dimensions of teeth to ensure that
the upper and lower teeth are in harmony. The other options, such as Moyers and
Tanaka-Johnston, are more commonly used for children and adolescents to assess
tooth size and arch dimensions.
Which clinical sign can indicate an open fracture of the mandible? 1) Sublingual hematoma 2) Mobility of fractured teeth 3) Step in the occlusion 4) Presence of blood-stained saliva
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 4Blood-stained saliva, along with evidence of current or prior bleeding from the tooth sockets, is a strong indicator of an open mandibular fracture, where the fracture communicates with the oral cavity.
If a patient is unable to give informed consent due to a medical condition,
who can provide consent on their behalf?
1) Any family member
2) A legal guardian or surrogate decision-maker
3) The healthcare provider
4) The patient's friends
If a patient lacks the capacity to consent, a legal guardian or designated surrogate can provide consent in their best interest.
What is the importance of maintaining confidentiality in dental records?
- It is not important as long as the records are accurate
- It encourages patient honesty and trust in the dentist-patient relationship
- It is only important for insurance purposes
- It is only relevant for HIPAA compliance
Confidentiality is crucial for fostering a relationship of trust and respect between the patient and the dental team.
What is the most effective non-pharmacological method for managing dental anxiety?
1) Tell-Show-Do technique
2) Breathing exercises
3) Positive reinforcement
4) Nitrous oxide sedation
Breathing exercises, such as deep breathing or diaphragmatic breathing, are widely recognized as effective non-pharmacological methods for reducing anxiety. They help the patient to relax and can be performed easily without additional equipment.
Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of:
1) Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.
2) Serotonergic receptors.
3) Dopaminergic receptors.
4) GABA receptors.
Anticholinergic side effect of antidepressant leads to dry mouth in the patients on these drugs. Dry mouth is due to the Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonism of these drugs.
The main stimulation for production of A.D.H. is 1. Increase in plasma potassium. 2. Decrease in blood volume 3. Increase in extracellular fluid 4. Decrease inextracellularosmotic pressure
Physiology Answer: 2The main stimulation for production of A.D.H. is Decrease in blood volume - A.D.H. secretion increases during osmotic diuresis
What is the difference between a horizontal mattress suture and a simple interrupted suture?
1) A horizontal mattress suture has a single loop, while a simple interrupted suture has multiple loops.
2) A horizontal mattress suture is used to compress tissues, while a simple interrupted suture is not.
3) A simple interrupted suture is used to approximate tissues in a straight line, while a horizontal mattress suture is used for more complex tissue relationships.
4) Both sutures have the same function and are used interchangeably.
ADC Test Answer: 2
A horizontal mattress suture is designed to compress tissues against each other, promoting healing and reducing tension.
What is the main function of glucosyltransferase (GTF) produced by S. mutans?
1) It breaks down bacterial cell walls.
2) It converts sucrose into polysaccharides.
3) It neutralizes acids in saliva.
4) It promotes remineralization.
GTF converts sucrose into extracellular polysaccharides, aiding bacterial adherence to tooth surfaces.
Hemorrhagic shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by
1) increase in blood pressure.
2) alteration in circulating blood volume.
3) elevation of temperature.
4) decrease in amount of interstitial fluid
Hemorrhagic shock occurs due to significant blood loss, reducing effective circulation and oxygen transport.
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for providing passive immunity from the mother to the fetus?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgD
4) IgG
IgG is the immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus, offering protection against infections during the early stages of life.
The working time of zinc-phosphate cement:
1) Is shortened if moisture condenses on the mixing slab during the mixing process.
2) Is lengthened if the powder is mixed with the liquid as quickly as possible.
3) Is shortened if the mixing slab is cooled.
4) Is shortened by adding a small quantity of powder to the liquid a minute prior to start mixing.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
Explanation: Moisture
condensation increases the reactivity of
zinc-phosphate cement, accelerating the setting
reaction and shortening the working time.
During the extraction of a lower impacted right molar, bone is removed:
1) To expose maximum dimension of the tooth
2) Up to CE junction
3) Up to furcation area
4) Up to half of roots
The primary goal of bone removal during the extraction of an impacted molar is to expose the maximum dimensions of the tooth, allowing for easier access and removal. Adequate bone removal is essential to visualize the tooth and its roots fully, facilitating a successful extraction. Techniques such as high-speed handpiece and bur or chisel and mallet may be employed, with continuous irrigation to minimize bone necrosis.
Which component of amalgam gives strength?
1) Copper
2) Silver
3) Tin
4) Zinc
Copper enhances the strength and hardness of dental amalgam, making it a critical component in its formulation.
Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of stone dies used for crown fabrication?
1) They lack accurate reproduction of surface details
2) Their overall dimensions are slightly smaller than the original impression
3) The strength of the stone
4) The hazard of aspiration of toxic materials during trimming of the dies
ADC Test Answer: 2
One of the notable disadvantages of some types of stone dies is that they can shrink upon setting or due to dehydration, leading to dimensions that are slightly smaller than the original impression, impacting the fit of the final restoration.
Glycine is a Glycogenic amino acid, only
Penicillinase may inactivate penicillin by splitting the beta-lactum ring
Periapical Abscess is a collection of pus at the root of a tooth. It's usually
caused by which of the following?
1) Inflammation
2) Tooth decay
3) Infection
4) Dead tissues
Periapical abscess is a collection of pus that occurs at the root of a tooth. It is usually caused by infection. Infection can occur when bacteria enter the tooth through a cavity or a crack, leading to inflammation and the formation of pus. Tooth decay and dead tissues can contribute to the development of an infection, but the primary cause is the presence of bacteria that trigger the inflammatory response and the subsequent formation of pus.
The secretory product of odontoblasts is:
1) Topocollagen.
2) Calcium salts.
3) Mantle dentin.
4) Hydroxyapatite
Dentinogenesis is the formation of dentin by odontoblasts of mesenchymal origin
located at the periphery of the dental pulp
Dentinogenesis is initiated by the inductive influence of the enamel organ
involving molecular signaling pathways, such as Wnt, Runx-2, and TGF-?. In the
molar tooth, dentinogenesis starts at the late bell stage, and occurs in the
crown as well as root regions.
Predentin, the first organic matrix secreted by odontoblasts, is composed by
proteoglycans, glycoproteins, and collagens.
The elastomeric impression material commonly supplied as a base paste & a liquid catalyst is :
1) Polysulfide
2) Condensation silicone
3) Addition silicone
4) Polyether
The condensation silicone impression materials are supplied as a base paste and a low-viscosity liquid catalyst (or a paste catalyst).
Putty is a high-viscosity material that has been developed in order to overcome the large polymerization shrinkage of the condensation silicone impression materials.
All the other impression materials are generally supplied as catalyst paste & base paste.
Which of the following methods of instrument sterilization uses the lowest
temperature?
1) Steam autoclave.
2) Dry heat oven.
3) Ethylene oxide method
4) Glass bead sterilizer.
The ethylene oxide method of sterilization operates at lower temperatures compared to steam autoclaves and dry heat ovens. It is particularly useful for heat-sensitive instruments, as it can effectively sterilize at temperatures around 30-60°C, making it suitable for materials that cannot withstand higher temperatures.
Which of the following is NOT an indication for sealants?
1) Questionable or confirmed enamel caries
2) Presence of deep pits/fissure
3) Proximal caries
4) Increased risk for caries
Sealants are indicated for questionable or confirmed enamel caries, presence of deep pits/fissure, and increased risk for caries. Proximal caries are not an indication for sealants.
What is the largest possible cavosurface angle?
1) 90 degrees
2) 100 degrees
3) 110 degrees
4) 120 degrees
The largest possible cavosurface angle in dental restorations is typically around 110 degrees, which helps in achieving a proper seal and retention.
Extraction of a distoangular impaction of the mandibular third molar can cause:
1) Slippage in the lingual pouch
2) Fracture of the ramus of the mandible
3) Excessive hemorrhage
4) Dry socket
Distoangular impactions are particularly challenging due to their
position and the extensive bone removal required for extraction. This can weaken
the ramus of the mandible, making it more susceptible to fracture during the
extraction process. The risk of fracture is a significant concern for surgeons
when dealing with this type of impaction.
What is the primary role of osteoclastic cells in the body?
1) Bone formation
2) Bone resorption
3) Collagen synthesis
4) Mineralization
Osteoclasts are specialized cells responsible for bone resorption, breaking down bone tissue and playing a crucial role in bone remodeling.
What is the most effective preventive care for dental caries in geriatric
patients?
1) Daily flossing
2) Professional cleanings every six months
3) Fluoride applications
4) Routine radiographs
Frequent fluoride applications can strengthen enamel and reduce
caries incidence, especially in those with reduced salivary flow.
The reaction used for estimating free amino, groups in proteins is: 1. Ninhydrin test 2. Deamination with HNO2 3. Biuret test 4. Formol titration
Biochemistry Answer: 2The reaction used for estimating free amino, groups in proteins is Deamination with HNO2
Which investigation is most commonly used to rule out aspiration in mandibular fracture patients with missing teeth? 1) Chest X-ray 2) Orthopantomogram 3) PA mandible 4) CT scan
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 1A chest X-ray is commonly performed when missing teeth or denture fragments cannot be accounted for in a mandibular fracture patient. This helps to rule out aspiration of foreign bodies.
Which of the following is an example of implied consent?
1) A patient signing
a consent form for surgery
2) A patient verbally agreeing to a dental cleaning
3) A patient nodding in agreement when asked if they understand the procedure
4) A patient refusing to undergo a procedure
Implied consent occurs when a patient’s actions suggest agreement without formal documentation.
What is the primary mechanism by which fluoride helps prevent dental caries?
1) It acts as an antibiotic.
2) It increases the pH of saliva.
3) It inhibits the demineralization of enamel.
4) It promotes remineralization of enamel.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Fluoride forms a protective layer on the tooth enamel that inhibits the activity of bacterial enzymes responsible for demineralization, thereby preventing dental caries.
After completion of root canal therapy on a maxillary first premolar with
moderate mesial and distal lesions and intact buccal and lingual surfaces, the
restoration of choice is a/an
1) MOD composite resin.
2) MOD onlay.
3) MOD pin retained amalgam.
4) MOD bonded amalgam.
An onlay provides superior protection and strength for teeth with compromised structure, especially on premolars.
Which of the following is the first drug to be prescribed in status asthmaticus?
1) Salbutamol
2) Humidified oxygen inhalation
3) Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate
4) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Pharmacology Answer: 3
Status asthmaticus/Refractory asthma Any patient of asthma is susceptible to develop acute severe asthma which may be life-threatening.
(i) Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate 100 mg (or equivalent dose of another glucocorticoid) i.v. stat, followed by 100-200 mg 4-8 hourly infusion; may take upto 6 hours to act.
(ii) Nebulized salbutamol (2.5-5 mg) + ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg) intermittent inhalations driven by O2 .
(iii) High flow humidified oxygen inhalation
(iv) Salbutamol/terbutaline 0.4 mg i.m./s.c. may be added since inhaled drug might not get to smaller bronchi owing to severe narrowing/plugging with secretions
(v) Intubation and mechanical ventilation if needed
(vi) intensive antibiotic therapy to be used for treating chest infection
(vii) Treat dehydration and acidosis with saline + sod. Bicarbonate/lactate infusion.
The epithelium which covers a healed ulcer is derived from 1. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells of the ulcer 2. intact epithelium at the ulcer margin 3. transformation of fibroblasts to epithelial cells 4. endothelial cells via the blood stream
Oral Pathology Answer: 2The epithelium which covers a healed ulcer is derived from intact epithelium at the ulcer margin
What is the most common complication following third molar extraction?
1) Alveolar osteitis (dry socket)
2) Infection
3) Nerve injury
4) Trismus
Dry socket is a frequent complication due to the loss of the blood clot in the extraction site, leading to pain and discomfort.
You wish to purchase a dental X-ray machine and have the choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines. With a single change from 60kVp to 70kVp, what would the approximate effect on exposure time be?
1) No effect
2) Half the time
3) Double
4) Quarter
ADC Test Answer: 2
Increasing the kilovoltage (kVp) increases the energy of the x-rays, which increases the penetrating power and film blackening.
What is the primary risk factor for the development of musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals?
1) Prolonged periods of sitting
2) Repetitive motions
3) Working with vibrating instruments
4) Exposure to radiation
Repetitive motions, such as those involved in holding and using small hand instruments for long periods, are the primary risk factor for the development of musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals.
Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a premature baby is :
1) Domperidone
2) Metoclopramide
3) Cisapride
4) Omeprazole
Cisapride can cause QT prolongation when administered along with drugs like ketoconazole which inhibit hepatic cytochrome p-450 CYP 3A4 enzyme.
Which of the following conditions is an example of a mucous retention
phenomenon?
1) Nasopalatine cyst.
2) Koplik’s spots.
3) Ranula
4) Residual cyst.
A ranula is a mucous cyst caused by obstruction of the sublingual or
submandibular salivary glands.
It presents as a swelling in the floor of the mouth, typically painless unless
infected
The sounds "S," "Z," and "che" are produced when:
1) The teeth are widely apart
2) The teeth barely touch
3) The lips are tightly closed
4) The tongue is elevated
The sounds "S," "Z," and "che" are sibilant sounds, which are produced by forcing air through a narrow space between the tongue and the teeth. The teeth do not completely occlude (touch) during the articulation of these sounds. Instead, they are positioned in a way that allows a thin stream of air to flow, creating the characteristic hissing sound. This requires precise coordination between the tongue and the teeth, particularly the tongue and the alveolar ridge (the bony ridge behind the upper incisors).
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious?
1) Hypotension
2) Hepatotoxicity
3) Uterine neoplasia
4) Thromboembolism disorder
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thromboembolism is a significant risk associated with oral contraceptives, particularly in women with additional risk factors.
Thiamine is useful in:
1) Collagen synthesis
2) Clotting factor production
3) Epithelial integrity
4) Cellular energy production
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) is a vital coenzyme in the metabolism of carbohydrates, playing a crucial role in the production of energy.
What is the purpose of the Caldicott Principles in dental record keeping?
- To provide a framework for the use and sharing of patient information
- To dictate the physical layout of dental records
- To outline the responsibilities of dental nurses in record keeping
- To detail the storage requirements for dental x-rays
The Caldicott Principles are designed to ensure the confidentiality of patient information and to provide guidance on when and how patient data can be used or shared appropriately.
Which dietary recommendation is most beneficial for the oral health of
elderly patients?
1) Increased sugar intake
2) Elimination of all dairy products
3) High-fiber diets with sufficient hydration
4) Low-calorie diets
A high-fiber diet, combined with hydration, supports overall
health and prevents issues caused by dry mouth, contributing to better oral
hygiene.
Sterilization of carious dentin without pulp injury is assured by the
application of
1) phenol.
2) 70% ethyl alcohol.
3) chlorhexidine.
4) None of the above.
Sterilizing carious dentin while preserving pulp vitality is a delicate balance:
- Phenol: While it has antibacterial properties, it can be toxic to pulp tissue and is not recommended for use in vital pulp therapy.
- 70% ethyl alcohol: This concentration is effective for disinfection but can also cause dehydration and damage to pulp tissue.
- Chlor hexidine: Although it is an effective antimicrobial agent, it may not be suitable for direct application on carious dentin close to the pulp due to potential cytotoxic effects.
- Absolute alcohol: This can cause desiccation and damage to the pulp tissue, making it unsuitable for use in this context.
What is the primary purpose of a dental sealant?
1) To improve aesthetics
2) To prevent tooth decay
3) To strengthen enamel
4) To whiten teeth
Dental sealants are primarily used to prevent tooth decay by sealing the grooves and pits on the chewing surfaces of teeth, making them less susceptible to plaque accumulation.
How are forces transmitted through rests?
1) Along the oblique axis
2) Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
3) Perpendicular to the tooth
4) Randomly throughout the denture
Rests are designed to transmit forces in a manner that aligns them parallel to the long axis of the supporting tooth.
What’s the percentage of tooth erosion in 6-year-olds and 15-year-olds in the UK?
1) 5-10% and 15-20%
2) 5-52% and 15-27%
3) 10-30% and 20-40%
4) 15-25% and 25-35%
Studies indicate that tooth erosion affects a significant percentage of children, with varying rates between different age groups.
Which of the following is NOT a method for sterilizing dental instruments?
1) Autoclaving
2) Dry heat
3) Chemical vapor sterilization
4) Microwave sterilization
Microwave ovens are not designed for sterilization purposes and can
cause uneven heating and potential damage to instruments. Autoclaving, dry heat,
and chemical vapor sterilization are all valid methods for sterilizing dental
instruments.
In an Angle Class I occlusion, the:
1) Distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
2) Mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
3) The primary canines are end-to-end.
4) The permanent canines are end-to-end.
This articulation pattern reflects the normal occlusal relationship in Angle Class I, ensuring proper alignment and functional harmony of the dentition.
What is the radiograph of choice for new edentulous patients?
1) Periapical
2) Bitewing
3) Panoramic
4) Cone beam CT
Periapical radiographs are the best choice as they allow for detailed visualization of specific problem areas in newly edentulous patients.
Afet tooth eruption in permanent teeth the apex is fully developed after 2-3 years
What is the primary goal of the Gillies approach in zygomatic arch fractures?
1) To minimize scarring
2) To allow for accurate fracture reduction
3) To prevent nerve damage
4) To facilitate faster healing
The Gillies approach is designed to provide direct access to the zygomatic arch, enabling precise reduction of fractures through a bimanual technique.
The first thing to assess when a patient complains of pain under a denture is:
1) Occlusion
2) Soft tissue changes
3) Fit of the denture
4) Age of denture
ADC Test Answer: 1
Checking occlusion is critical, as occlusal discrepancies can be a primary cause of discomfort under dentures.
What is the primary concern when administering local anesthesia to a patient with a bleeding disorder?
1) Increased pain sensitivity
2) Prolonged bleeding from the injection site
3) Inability to achieve adequate anesthesia
4) Higher risk of infection
Patients with bleeding disorders, such as hemophilia, may have difficulty controlling bleeding, even from minor procedures like local anesthetic injections.
In cases of anorexia nervosa with high caries rates, what management options should be prioritized?
1) Dietary advice
2) Tooth brushing
3) Referral to a GP
4) All of the above
Comprehensive management should include dietary advice, oral hygiene practices, and medical evaluation while working closely with healthcare providers.
The most common permanent tooth found to be ankylosed is
1) 1st molars
2) 2nd molars
3) Canines
4) Premolars
ankylosed teeth are also known as submerged teeth.
submerged teeth are decidous teeth most commonly mandibular second molars
Most common permanant tooth found to be ankylosed is premolars.
The first tapping sound, known as the Korotkoff sound, represents the systolic pressure.
What is the function of the periodontal ligament?
1) To attach the tooth to the bone
2) To absorb shock during chewing
3) To supply nutrients to the tooth
4) To protect the tooth from bacteria
The periodontal ligament connects the tooth root to the alveolar bone, providing stability and support during functional movements such as chewing.
What is the best way to communicate with a patient who has an intellectual disability?
1) Using medical jargon to assert authority
2) Using simple language and visual aids
3) Ignoring the patient and speaking only to their caregiver
4) Relying on nonverbal cues from the patient
Communicating with a patient with an intellectual disability requires patience and clarity.
Koplik's spots are seen in the oral cavity of patients with
1) chickenpox.
2) mumps.
3) measles.
4) scarlet fever.
E. smallpox.
Koplik's spots are small, white spots found on the mucous
membranes of the cheeks in the early stages of measles. These spots are
pathognomonic for the disease and typically appear before the rash. They are not
associated with the other conditions listed: chickenpox, mumps, or scarlet
fever.
Which of the following statements about the defective margins of amalgam restoration is true?
1) The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay
2) Secondary caries is less likely with marginal defects
3) Microscopic defects do not affect caries development
4) All margins always prevent secondary caries
ADC Test Answer: 1
Research has shown that larger defects in the margins of amalgam restorations increase the prevalence of secondary caries, making it critical to maintain good margins to prevent decay.
What is the typical histological finding in pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Basal cell hyperplasia
Acantholysis, or the loss of adhesion between keratinocytes, is a hallmark of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of vesicles and ulcers.
A successful infraorbital nerve block will produce anaesthesia of the?
1) Maxillary anterior teeth.
2) Maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae and the upper lip
3) Maxillary anterior teeth and their labial gingivae.
4) Maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae, the upper lip and anterior hard palate
A successful infraorbital nerve block will produce anesthesia of the maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae, and the upper lip.
You are interested in finding out what the risk indicators are for a rare form of oral cancer. What type of study would be the most appropriate for addressing this issue?
1) Cohort
2) Prevalence study
3) Clinical trial
4) Case-control study
A case-control study is ideal for investigating risk factors for rare diseases, as it compares individuals with the disease to those without.
The administration of penicillin G along with probenacid results in 1. increased excretion of probenacid in the feces and perspiration 2. increased excretion of probenacid in urine 3. increased metabolism of penicillin G 4. decreased renal excretion of penicillin G
Pharmacology Answer: 4The administration of penicillin G along with probenacid results in decreased renal excretion of penicillin G
Can a patient withdraw their informed consent at any time?
1) No, once given, consent cannot be withdrawn
2) Yes, but only if the treatment has not yet started
3) Yes, at any point during the treatment
4) Only if the patient has not signed a consent form
A patient has the right to withdraw informed consent at any time
during the treatment process, regardless of whether they have signed a consent
form or not.
Which of the following is NOT a common cause of secondary hypertension? 1) Pheochromocytoma 2) Smoking 3) Renal disease 4) Cushing’s syndrome
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Smoking is a risk factor for primary hypertension, while secondary hypertension is due to specific conditions like pheochromocytoma, renal disease, and Cushing’s syndrome.
The average overall length of the permanent maxillary central incisor is 22.5 mm
What is the recommended position for a patient with a spinal cord injury during dental procedures to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?
1) Supine with the head elevated
2) Seated upright in a chair
3) Prone with the head elevated
4) Lateral recumbent with the affected side down
The supine position with the head elevated helps manage blood pressure and reduces the risk of autonomic dysreflexia, which is a concern for patients with spinal cord injuries.
Technique of anesthesia in which local anesthetic solution is injected into the vein is?
1) Epidural anesthesia
2) Intra venous regional anesthesia
3) Nerve block
4) Infiltration anesthesia
Intra venous regional anesthesia is the technique of anesthesia in which a local anesthetic solution is injected into the vein.
Which of the following is an example of a chemical hazard in a dental office? 1) Repetitive motion injuries 2) Exposure to dental amalgam 3) Loud noises from dental equipment 4) Inadequate lighting
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Chemical hazards in dentistry include exposure to materials such as dental amalgam, which contains mercury, and other chemicals used in dental procedures.
Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of poor oral health
in geriatric patients?
1) Pneumonia
4) Malnutrition
3) Dementia
4) Cardiovascular disease
While poor oral health is associated with an increased risk of
developing pneumonia and cardiovascular disease, it is not a direct cause of
dementi1) However, oral health can impact the quality of life and overall
systemic health.
Which of the following conditions might warrant caution when using benzodiazepines?
1) Young adults
2) Pregnant women
3) Healthy athletes
4) Non-smokers
Caution is especially required when prescribing benzodiazepines to pregnant women due to potential risks and complications that could affect fetal health, including withdrawal symptoms and respiratory problems in the neonate.
Which of the following is a lifestyle factor that can modify the severity of hypertension? 1) Genetic predisposition 2) Physical inactivity 3) Age 4) None of the above
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Physical inactivity, along with factors like obesity and high sodium intake, can worsen hypertension.
The upper lip is the result of fusion between the:
1) Maxillary and mandibular processes.
2) Maxillary and lateral nasal processes.
3) Maxillary and medial nasal processes.
4) Medial and lateral nasal processes.
Growth & Development Answer: 3Cleft lip occurs when the maxillary and lateral nasal processes fail to fuse during embryogenesis, leading to an incomplete upper lip.