Talk to us?

Dental Study Abroad, NBDE, ADC, NDEB, ORE, SDLE-neetmds.com
Dentist Abroad

The largest and longest root canal of the maxillary second molar is the 1. lingual 2. mesiobuccal 3. distobuccal 4. distal

Dental Anatomy Answer: 1

The largest and longest root canal of the maxillary second molar is the lingual

Water on the surface of enamel has the following effect on polycarboxylate cements. 1. increases the setting time 2. decreases the opacity of the set cement 3. interferes with chemical adhesion of the cement to enamel 4. increases the acidity of the cement

Dental Material Answer: 3

Water interferes with chemical adhesion of the polycarboxylate cement to enamel

What is the primary reason for the increased incidence of periodontal disease in geriatric patients?
1) Immobility of dental plaque
4) Decreased host resistance
3) Increased bone density
4) Diminished salivary flow

Geriatric Dentistry Answer: 4

The immune system's response diminishes with age, making elderly individuals more susceptible to the bacterial invasion that leads to periodontal disease.

Which of the following is NOT a form of neglect?
1) Failing to provide food and water
2) Leaving a child unsupervised in a dangerous environment
3) Verbally abusing a partner
4) Ignoring medical needs

Abuse & Neglect Answer: 3

Neglect involves failing to provide necessary care, such as food, water, and medical attention. Verbal abuse is a form of emotional abuse, not neglect.

Whom to contact if there is a 20% increase in radiation dose?
1) The clinic manager
2) The radiation protection advisor
3) The health and safety officer
4) The dental board

ORE Test Answer: 2

The radiation protection advisor should be contacted to assess and address any significant increases in radiation exposure.

What is the correct order for the administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen to a patient?
1) Oxygen for 5 minutes, then nitrous oxide
2) Nitrous oxide for 5 minutes, then oxygen
3) Simultaneous administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen
4) Nitrous oxide for 5 minutes, followed by oxygen for 2 minutes

Anxious Patient Answer: 3

Nitrous oxide is always administered with oxygen to prevent hypoxia. The typical mixture is 30-50% nitrous oxide with 50-70% oxygen.

Where should you ideally place your finger support when performing operative treatment in the oral cavity?
1) Tooth
2) Gingiva
3) Cheek
4) Chin
5) Lip

ORE Test Answer: 1

Supporting your hand on a tooth provides a stable base for performing precise dental procedures and reduces the risk of accidental injury to soft tissues.

Choose correct statements about flowable composite:

1) Low modulus of elasticity.

2) Lower filler content.

3) Higher polymerization shrinkage.

4) All of the above.

ADC Test Answer: 4

Flowable composites generally exhibit a low modulus of elasticity, lower filler content, and increased polymerization shrinkage compared to traditional composites, making them suitable for specific applications but requiring careful consideration regarding their use.

Following a simple extraction of tooth 47, hemostasis was achieved Forty eight hours later, there is renewed
bleeding from the extraction site. Firm pressure fails to achieve hemostasis. The most appropriate management is to

1) give local anesthetic, pack and suture.
2) apply firm pressure and ice for 10 minutes.
3) obtain an international normalized ratio (INR) and a complete blood count
4) give local anesthetic and electrocauterize the socket.

Oral Surgery Answer: 3

Postoperative bleeding may indicate a coagulopathy or systemic issue requiring investigation.

Which of the following causes bronchodilatation?

1) adrenaline (epinephrine)
2) histamine
3) prostaglandin E2
4) guaifenesin

General Medicine Answer: 1

Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a sympathomimetic agent that causes bronchodilatation. It is used to relieve bronchospasm in anaphylactic shock reactions. 
Histamine, kinins and prostaglandins, such as prostaglandin E2, are inflammatory mediators.
In response to allergic stimuli, inflammatory mediators may cause bronchoconstrictions. 
Guaifenesin is an expectorant preparation that increases bronchial secretions to promote the expulsion of the mucus coughed up.

Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?

1) Heavy and continuous
2) Heavy and intermittent
3) Light and continuous
4) Light and intermittent

Orthodontics Answer: 3

SOLUTION

Light and continuous
Use of continuous light force is recommended to be applied for adult group of patient rather than intermittent force as applied by removable appliance. This is because continuous forces are expected to bring about direct resorption of the root socket. They should hence not occlude more than a small percentage of blood vessels with in the periodontal ligament, not substantially interfere with their nutritional supply and little interference
with normal biologic functioning.
In adult due to heavy force teeth may devitalize because the opening into the tooth (apical foramen) is smaller and blood vessels can be easily disrupted.

What is the main purpose of using chlorhexidine mouth rinse in dentistry?
1) To promote tooth whitening
2) To reduce plaque and gingivitis
3) To provide pain relief
4) To replace fluoride treatments

ORE Test Answer: 2

Chlorhexidine mouth rinses are primarily used in dentistry for their efficacy in reducing plaque accumulation and gingivitis.

Prior to investing the casting ring is lined with asbestos to . 1. prevent sliding of the investment mold 2. prevent confinement of mold expansion 3. permit easy retrieval of the casting 4. prevent cracking of the mold

Dental Material Answer: 2

the casting ring is lined with asbestos to prevent confinement of mold expansion

Which immunoglobulin exists as both a monomer and a dimer?

1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgE
4) IgA

ORE Test Answer: 4

Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is unique because it can exist both in a monomeric form found in serum and as a dimer (secretory IgA) predominant in mucosal areas. This dual form allows IgA to effectively function in mucosal immunity, providing a primary defense against pathogens in areas like the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts.

Which of the following is NOT an infrahyoid muscle?
1) Digastric
2) Mylohyoid
3) Geniohyoid
4) Omohyoid

Anatomy Answer: 1

The infrahyoid muscles are the mylohyoid, hyoglossus, stylohyoid, thyrohyoid, and omohyoid muscles.

The infrahyoid muscles are a group of muscles found in the neck that are situated below the hyoid bone. These muscles are responsible for the movement of the hyoid bone and the larynx. The infrahyoid muscles include the following:

2) Mylohyoid: This muscle runs obliquely from the body and greater horn of the hyoid bone to the inner surface of the mandible.
It is involved in elevating the hyoid bone, which occurs during swallowing and tongue movement.

3) Geniohyoid: The geniohyoid muscle originates from the lower mental spine and genial tubercle of the mandible and inserts into the body and greater horn of the hyoid bone.
It plays a role in depressing the hyoid bone, which occurs during swallowing and tongue protrusion.

4) Omohyoid: The omohyoid muscle originates from the scapula and passes upward and medially to insert into the lower part of the hyoid bone.
It also helps in depressing the hyoid bone and can assist in raising the larynx during swallowing.

The Digastric muscle is not an infrahyoid muscle.
The digastric muscle is actually a suprahyoid muscle, which means it is located above the hyoid bone. It has two bellies: the anterior belly originates from the digastric fossa of the mandible and inserts into the hyoid bone, while the posterior belly originates from the mastoid process of the temporal bone and inserts into the hyoid bone. The digastric muscle functions in opening the jaw and raising the hyoid bone during swallowing.

Which bacteria is most commonly associated with acute dentistry-related infections?
1) Streptococcus viridans
2) Staphylococcus aureus
3) Escherichia coli
4) Neisseria meningitidis

ORE Test Answer: 1

Streptococcus viridans is part of the normal oral flora and frequently implicated in dental infections, particularly endocarditis following dental procedures.

Which artery leaves the thoracic cavity at T12?
1) Descending aorta
2) Inferior phrenic artery
3) Superior mesenteric artery
4) Celiac trunk

Anatomy Answer: 1

The descending aorta exits the thoracic cavity at the level of T12 to enter the abdominal cavity.

When a dentist suspects elder abuse, what is the first step they should take?
1) Confront the caregiver about the suspicion
2) Report the suspicion to the patient's family
3) Report the suspicion to the local Adult Protective Services (APS) agency
4) Treat the patient's dental issues without further action

Abuse & Neglect Answer: 3

The first step in suspected elder abuse is to report the concern to Adult Protective Services.

Fat Embolism is diagnosed by - 

1. Fluffy Exudates in Retina 
2. Fat Droplets in Sputum 
3. Fat droplets in Urine 
4. All of the above

Pathology Answer: 4

Fat Embolism is diagnosed by - 1. Fluffy Exudates in Retina 2. Fat Droplets in Sputum 3. Fat droplets in Urine

After crown placement, when should a follow-up radiograph be taken?
1) Within 1 month
2) After 6 months
3) Annually
4) Every 2 years

ORE Test Answer: 3

Annual follow-up radiographs are necessary to monitor the health of the crown and surrounding structures.

The mucosa of the hard palate is?
1) Non-keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
2) Non-keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posteromedially
3) Keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
4) Keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally

Local Anesthesia Answer: 4

The correct answer is "keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally." The hard palate is the bony structure that forms the roof of the mouth. The mucosa of the hard palate is keratinised, meaning it has a tough outer layer of keratin cells. It also has a submucosa layer, which is a connective tissue layer beneath the mucosa. Additionally, there are minor salivary glands located posterolaterally on the hard palate, which contribute to saliva production.

What is the most suitable X-ray technique to diagnose interproximal caries in primary molars of a three-year-old child?
1) Bitewing
2) Periapical
3) Occlusal
4) Ceiling view

ORE Test Answer: 1

Bitewing X-rays are effective for detecting interproximal caries, especially in primary molars, due to their ability to capture the contact areas between teeth.

Which of the following will most lead to a person unwilling to accept criticism:

1) Being raised in a destructive criticism environment.
2) Working in a destructive criticism environment.
3) The person only gives out destructive criticism.
4) Having aggressive behavior.

Anxious Patient Answer: 1

Being raised in a destructive criticism environment can greatly contribute to a person's unwillingness to accept criticism. This is because if someone grows up constantly being subjected to negative and destructive criticism, they may develop a fear of judgment and rejection. They may also internalize the belief that criticism is always harmful and personal, making them defensive and resistant to any form of feedback. This upbringing can shape their mindset and make them view criticism as an attack rather than an opportunity for growth, leading to their unwillingness to accept it.

Losartan is commonly preferred over ACE inhibitors in patients who experience:
1) Dry mouth
2) Cough
3) Hyperkalemia
4) Bradycardia

Pharmacology Answer: 2

Patients who develop a cough with ACE inhibitors may be switched to an ARB like Losartan, which does not cause this side effect.

What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dysplasia

ORE Test Answer: 2

Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the loss of intercellular adherence of suprabasal spinous cells, leading to acantholysis and the formation of vesicles.

Analysis which is similar to Pont’s analysis is_______?  

1) Linder Harth index
2) Korkhaus analysis
3) Bolton’s analysis
4) (A) and (B)

Orthodontics Answer: 4

SOLUTION
· Pont’s in 1905 presented a system whereby the measurement of the four maxillary incisors automatically established the width of the arch in the premolar and molar region.  If measured value is less than calculated value, it indicates the need for expansion. 

· Linder Harth index: This analysis is very similar to Pont’s analysis except that a new formula has been proposed to determine the calculated premolar and molar value. 

· Korkhaus analysis: This analysis is also very similar to Pont’s analysis it makes use of Linder Harth’s formula to determine the ideal arch width in the premolar and molar region.
 In addition this analysis utilizes a measurement made from the midpoint of the inter-premolar line to a point in between the two maxillary incisors. 
 
· Bolton’s analysis: The Bolton’s analysis helps in determining disproportion in size between maxillary and mandibular teeth. 

What percentage of adults in the UK are alcoholics?
1) 3%
2) 5%
3) 10%
4) 15%

ORE Test Answer: 2

Approximately 5% of adults in the UK are classified as alcoholics, indicating a significant public health concern.

The largest sized pororsity is:

1) Micro porosity.
2) Pin hole porosity
3) Suck back porosity
4) Gas inclusion porosity

Dental Material Answer: 3

Main causes of the porosity of alloy castings are:
1) Solidification defects
2) Trapped gases
3) Residual air

1. Solidification defects

Solidification defects cold lead to two different manifestations of porosity; localised shrinkage porosity and Microporosity.


Localised shrinkage porosity is caused by insufficient feeding of the alloy during solidification.

Microporosity is also caused by solidification shrinkage, but generally happens in fine grain alloys when the solidification is too rapid for the microvoids to segregate.
This in turn is caused the mould or casting temperature being too low.

2.
Trapped gases

Many metals dissolve or occlude gases when they are molten. On solidification, these gases are forced out of the casting causing what is usually called pinhole porosity. These voids are rather small.


3.
Incomplete casting
If the molten alloy is prevented from fully or partially filling the mould and incomplete or even no casting at all can result.

Your employer is attempting to update office sterilization procedures; what would you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred?

1) Use color change tape in each load and spore tests weekly

2) Use indicator strips in each load and color change tape on each package

3) Use indicator strips daily and spore tests weekly

4) Use color change tape daily and spore tests monthly

ADC Test Answer: 3

Color-change tape each load + weekly spore tests

– Tape only shows the package was exposed to heat, not that sterilization was achieved.


Indicator strips each load + color-change tape each package

– No spore testing included → cannot verify sterilization.


Indicator strips daily + spore tests weekly

– Includes both chemical indicators and weekly spore tests → best match.

Color-change tape daily + spore tests monthly

– Monthly spore testing is inadequate.

When treating a special needs patient, what is the most important initial step?
1) Begin treatment immediately
2) Obtain a detailed medical history
3) Discuss treatment costs
4) Schedule a follow-up appointment

Special Needs Patient Answer: 2

A detailed medical history helps identify any special considerations, medication interactions, and the patient's specific needs before treatment.

What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.

ORE Test Answer: 3

The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes. This is followed by boiling the water for an additional 2 hours to ensure complete curing of the resilient liner material.

What is the primary use of nitrous oxide in dentistry?
1) To strengthen teeth
2) To relieve anxiety and create mild sedation
3) To enhance local anesthesia
4) To improve the taste of dental materials

Anxious Patient Answer: 2

Nitrous oxide is commonly used for its anxiolytic properties and ability to induce a relaxed state without deep sedation.

Which dimension in which arch is considered as a safety value for pubertal growth spurts?

1) Maxillary intercanine dimension
2) Mandibular intercanine dimension
3) Maxillary intermolar width
4) Mandibular intermolar width

Orthodontics Answer: 1

SOLUTION

Intercanine width serves as safety valve for dominant horizontal basal mandibular growth spurt.

Which of the following is used to decrease the toxicity of amphotericin B?

1) Dose reduction 
2) Liposomal delivery systems 
3) Supplementing glucose 
4) Giving it along with flucytosine

Pharmacology Answer: 2

Liposomal delivery systems decrease the amount of free drug in the blood Infected cells interact with the liposomes, resulting in the release of amphotericin B at the site of action.

Which type of caries occurs at the junction of tooth structure and restorative material?
1) Primary caries
2) Secondary/recurrent caries
3) Residual
4) Incipient caries

Operative Dentistry Answer: 2

Secondary or recurrent caries occur at the junction of tooth structure and restorative material, often due to leakage.

Which of the following local anaesthetic is sympathomimetic:
1) Cocaine
2) Procaine
3) Lignocaine
4) Tetracaine

Local Anesthesia Answer: 1

Cocaine is a sympathomimetic local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it. It causes vasoconstriction.

What factor can enhance the bicarbonate-mediated acid-neutralizing effect of saliva?

1) High-fat diet
2) Decreased salivary flow
3) Increased salivary flow
4) Sleep

ORE Test Answer: 3

Increased salivary flow naturally raises bicarbonate levels in the saliva, which helps to neutralize acids in plaque more effectively, protecting against enamel demineralization and promoting oral health.

Which immunoglobulin is pentameric?
1) IgA
2) IgG
3) IgM
4) IgE

ORE Test Answer: 3

IgM is the largest immunoglobulin in terms of size and is structured as a pentamer, facilitating its role in early immune responses.

Most bacterial endotoxins are composed of 1. pure carbohydrates 2. mucoprotein complexes 3. pure lipids 4. lipoprotein-polysaccharide complexes

Microbiology Answer: 4

Most bacterial endotoxins are composed of lipoprotein-polysaccharide complexes

What oral condition is characterized by inflammation of the oral mucosa and is common in elderly patients?
1) Angular cheilitis
2) Oral lichen planus
3) Stomatitis
4) Oral thrush

Geriatric Dentistry Answer: 3

Stomatitis is a general term for inflammation of the oral tissues, which can be more common in older individuals due to various factors, including dry mouth and nutritional deficiencies.

What is the most frequent site of endocarditis?
1) Aortic valve
2) Mitral valve
3) Tricuspid valve
4) Pulmonary valve

ORE Test Answer: 2

Endocarditis most commonly affects the mitral valve, especially in patients without a history of intravenous drug use.

In mixed dentition, which of the following may be considered as a self correcting problem with age?

1) Unilateral loss of primary canine
2) Lack of interdental spaces
3) A distal step 
4) Open bite

Orthodontics Answer: 2

SOLUTION

The possibility that a distal step would become class II is very real, and this not self correcting problem. When the central incisors erupt, these teeth use up essentially all of the excess space in the normal primary dentition. With the eruption of the lateral incisors, space becomes tight in both arches.

Normal child will go through a transitory stage of mandibular incisor crowding at age 8 to 9 even if there will eventually be enough room to accommodate all the permanent teeth in good alignment.
In other words, a period when the mandibular incisors are slightly crowded is a normal developmental stage.

Continued development of the arches improves the spacing situation, and by the time the canine teeth erupt, space is once again adequate.

What is the appropriate dosage of epinephrine for an 8-year-old child experiencing anaphylaxis?
1) 0.15 ml of 1:1000
2) 0.3 ml of 1:1000
3) 0.5 ml of 1:1000
4) 0.05 ml of 1:1000

ORE Test Answer: 1

For children experiencing anaphylactic shock, the common practice is to administer 0.15 ml of 1:1000 epinephrine, dependent on their weight and severity of symptoms.

Which of the following clinical conditions is the most serious?

1) Acute apical abscess of a mandibular central incisor.
2) Mid facial cellulitis.
3) Chronic apical abscess of a mandibular third molar.
4) Infected dentigerous cyst.

Dental Emergencies Answer: 2

Mid-facial cellulitis can rapidly progress to life-threatening complications like cavernous sinus thrombosis or airway obstruction.

What happens to the pH of the mouth after exposure to cariogenic foods?
1) It increases
2) It decreases
3) It remains the same
4) It fluctuates

Operative Dentistry Answer: 2

Cariogenic bacteria ferment sugar, producing lactic acid that lowers the pH of the mouth, leading to demineralization of tooth structure.

Primary herpes simplex virus infection
1) usually occurs after the age of 20.
2) has a slow onset.
3) may be subclinical.
4) lasts for 1 - 2 days.

Oral Medicine and Oral Pathology Answer: 3

In many individuals, the primary infection does not produce noticeable symptoms.
Subclinical infections often go unnoticed, though the virus remains dormant in nerve ganglia, potentially reactivating later.

Which of the following antihypertensive agents is classified as a beta-blocker?
1) Amlodipine
2) Losartan
3) Captopril
4) Atenolol

Pharmacology Answer: 4

Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker, whereas Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), and Captopril is an ACE inhibitor.

What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss

Occupational Hazards Answer: 2

According to the study conducted among dentists in southern Thailand, musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it. This is consistent with findings from other studies that highlight the prevalence of musculoskeletal disorders in the dental profession due to prolonged sitting postures, repetitive movements, and manual dexterity required in dental practice.

VLC resins are also called

1) microwave-activated resins.
2) tertiary amine-activated resins.
3) light-activated resins.
4) heat-activated resins.

Dental Material Answer: 3

The first light-activated systems were formulated for UV light to initiate free radicals. Today the UV light-cured composites have been replaced by visible blue-light-activated systems with greatly improved depth of cure, a controllable working time, and other advantages.

Because of these advantages, visibly light-activated composites are more widely used than are chemically acti wited materials.

A patient comes complaining of a bad taste and bad smell from a newly fixed 3-unit fixed partial denture. Upon examination, bubbles are coming from one of the abutments when pressure is applied on it with a water spray. What is the likely reason?

1) Fractured joint.

2) Open margin.

3) Loose abutment.

4) Overcontoured restoration.

ADC Test Answer: 2

The presence of bubbles and bad taste/smell indicates potential leakage or movement at the margins of the restoration, suggesting an open margin that allows bacteria and fluids to enter, causing these symptoms.

What is a potential use of dental records in forensic dentistry?
1) To determine the patient's insurance coverage
2) To identify a dead or missing person
3) To track treatment costs
4) To evaluate staff performance

Dental Records Answer: 2

Dental records can provide antemortem information that assists forensic odontologists in identifying deceased individuals.

Ethohepatazine is a chemical derivative of 

1. codeine 
2. morphine 
3. meperidine 
4. papaverine

Pharmacology Answer: 3

Ethohepatazine is a chemical derivative of meperidine

Which of the following are anti-fungal drugs?

1) Cloxacillin
2) Aciclovir
3) Chlorhexidine
4) Nystatin

Pharmacology Answer: 4

Miconazole is an imidazole anti-fungal drug, Nystatin is a polyene anti-fungal drug and itraconazole is a triazole anti-fungal.
Aciclovir is an anti-viral drug and chlorhexidine is an antiseptic.cloxacillin is penicillin derivative.

A wound to the posterior left axillary line, between the ninth and tenth rib, and extending approximately 5 cm deep, will most likely damage which organ? 
1)  Ascending colon            
2)  Duodenum  
3)  Left kidney
4)  Spleen

Anatomy Answer: 4

The spleen follows the long axes of ribs 9 to 11 and lies mostly posterior to the stomach, above the colon, and partly anterior to the kidney. It is attached to the stomach by a broad mesenterial band, the gastrosplemic ligament. Therefore, it is the most likely organ of the group to be pierced by a sharp object penetrating just above rib 10 at the posterior axillary line. Note that the pleural cavity, and possibly the lower part of the inferior lobe of the lung, would be pierced before the spleen. The ascending colon (choice 1) is on the wrong side (the right) to be penetrated by a sharp instrument piercing the left side.

Most of the duodenum (choice 2) is positioned too far to the right to be affected by this injury.

Even the third part of the duodenum, which runs from right to left, would still be out of harm's way. In addition, the duodenum lies at about levels L1 to L3, placing it too low to be injured in this case.

The superior pole of the left kidney (choice 3) is bordered by the lower part of the spleen. However, it is crossed by rib 12 and usually does not extend above rib 11. It would probably be too low and medial to be injured in this case because this penetration is at the posterior axillary line.

Which of the following is NOT a component of personal protective equipment (PPE) for dental healthcare workers?
1) Masks
2) Gloves
3) Gowns
4) Eye protection

Infection Control Answer: 4

PPE includes masks, gloves, and gowns, which are essential to protect against the transmission of infections. However, eye protection such as goggles or face shields is also a critical component to prevent the spread of pathogens through splashes or aerosols.

What is the main goal when treating an anxious patient in dentistry?
1) To complete the treatment as quickly as possible
2) To utilize the maximum amount of sedation
3) To alleviate fear and build trust
4) To avoid all invasive procedures

Anxious Patient Answer: 3

The primary goal is to reduce anxiety, thereby fostering a trusting relationship that improves the overall treatment experience.

If a partially set material is seated, the die material obtained from such impression will be

1) Oversized
2) Undersized
3) Retains its dimension due to elasticity of the material
4) Dimensions will be un changed but may leave a rough surface

Dental Material Answer: 2

If Impression tray comprising of elastomeric impression material is seated too late as elasticity starts to develop, raised seating pressure is applied to overcome the stiffness of impression material.

Because of recovery of excessive elastic deformation  there is development of distortion
The die produced in the inaccurate impression is too narrow and too short.

What is the primary feature of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling

ORE Test Answer: 2

Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.

What are the benefits of using computerized patient records?

  1. Improved access and data retrieval
  2. Reduced cost and errors
  3. Enhanced outcomes management and decision support
  4. All of the above

Dental Records Answer: 4

Electronic patient records offer benefits such as improved access, reduced cost and errors, and better outcomes management and decision support.

What is the radiograph of choice for new edentulous patients?
1) Periapical
2) Bitewing
3) Panoramic
4) Cone beam CT

ORE Test Answer: 1

Periapical radiographs are the best choice as they allow for detailed visualization of specific problem areas in newly edentulous patients.

Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious?

1) Hypotension

2) Hepatotoxicity

3) Uterine neoplasia

4) Thromboembolism disorder

ADC Test Answer: 4

Thromboembolism is a significant risk associated with oral contraceptives, particularly in women with additional risk factors.

Why is a palatal strap used instead of a narrow bar in removable partial dentures?

1)  More rigid with less thickness.

2) Easier to polish.

3) More stable.

4) Less irritating to the soft tissues.

FPD and RPD Answer: 1

Adjusting the occlusal plane is a foundational step that impacts all subsequent processes in prosthetic rehabilitation. This adjustment should be based on a comprehensive diagnosis and treatment plan to ensure compatibility with the patient’s anatomy and function.

What is the most common cause of tooth sensitivity?

1) Gum recession
2) Tooth decay
3) Cracked teeth
4) All of the above

ORE Test Answer: 4

Tooth sensitivity can arise from various factors, including gum recession, tooth decay, and cracked teeth, exposing the dentin.

What is the most common site for oral cancer within the mouth?
1) Hard palate
2) Lateral borders of the tongue
3) Floor of the mouth
4) Buccal mucosa

ORE Test Answer: 2

The lateral borders of the tongue are the most frequently affected site for oral cancer, particularly in the context of squamous cell carcinoma.

Which immunoglobulin is first produced by the neonate upon birth?

1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgD

ORE Test Answer: 2

IgM is the first immunoglobulin produced by neonates and plays a vital role in their primary immune response, appearing within the first few days of life.

What is the primary function of a wedge in oral surgery?
1) To remove teeth
2) To split teeth
3) To expand the tooth socket
4) To elevate the tooth

Oral Surgery Answer: 3

A wedge is used to create space in the tooth socket, facilitating tooth elevation and reducing the risk of fracture during extraction.

A 50 kg man with severe metabolic acidosis has the following parameters, pB 7.05, pCO2 12 mm/lg, pO2 108 mmHg, BCO) 5 mEq/L, base excess -30 mEq/L. The appropriate quantity of sodium bicarbonate that he should receive in half hour is:

1) 250 mEq

2) 350 mEq

3) 500 mEq

4) 750 mEq

Local Anesthesia Answer: 1

250 mEq

Sodium bicarbonate requirement is calculated by the formula:

0.3 x body weight x base excess (deficit) = 0.3 x 50 x 30 = 500 mEq.

Half correction should be done i.e., 500/2 = 250 mEq. After half an hour get another blood gas report, calculate the soda bicarbonate requirement by the same formula and again correct only half and so on.

What is the dentist's role in identifying signs of domestic violence in a patient?
1) To ask the patient directly if they are being abused
2) To recognize and document physical and behavioral signs of abuse
3) To provide counseling services
4) To provide legal advice

Abuse & Neglect Answer: 2

The dentist's role involves recognizing and documenting any physical injuries or behavioral indicators that may suggest abuse.

Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of ? 

1) Generalized tonic clonic seizures 
2) Absence seizures 
3) Simple partial seizures 
4) Complex partial seizures

Pharmacology Answer: 2

Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures. 

Other drugs used in the management of absence seizures are valproic acid, lamotrigine and clonazepam.

First local anaesthetic used was:
1) Lignocaine
2) Mepivacaine
3) Cocaine
4) Bupivacaine

Local Anesthesia Answer: 3

Cocaine was the first local anaesthetic used by Carl Koller for anaesthetizing the cornea.

A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between 1. first and second molars 2. central and lateral incisors 3. lateral incisor and canine 4. canine and first molar

Dental Anatomy Answer: 4

A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between canine and first molar

What is the primary purpose of informed consent in healthcare?
1) To protect the healthcare provider from legal liability
2) To ensure the patient understands the treatment options
3) To expedite the treatment process
4) To document the patient's medical history

Informed Consent Answer: 2

Informed consent is primarily about ensuring that patients understand the nature of the treatment, its risks and benefits, and alternatives, allowing them to make an informed decision.

If an interproximal composite filling fails, what is likely to happen?
1) Overcontouring
2) Undercontouring
3) Overhang
4) Fracture

ORE Test Answer: 3

An improperly placed interproximal composite filling can create an overhang, leading to plaque accumulation and periodontal issues.

Which clotting factor is primarily associated with initiating the extrinsic pathway of coagulation in DIC?

1) Factor VII
2) Factor X
3) Factor V
4) Factor XII

ORE Test Answer: 1

In DIC, tissue factor (TF) binds with coagulation factor VII, triggering the extrinsic coagulation pathway.

What legal principle underpins the concept of informed consent?

1) Patient confidentiality
2) Patient autonomy
3) Beneficence
4) Non-maleficence

Informed Consent Answer: 2

Informed consent is grounded in the legal and ethical principle of patient autonomy, which is the right of patients to make decisions about their own medical treatment.

The primary purpose of surgical therapy for the treatment of periodontitis is to
1) apically position the flap.
2) eliminate periodontal pockets.
3) remove the ulcerated epithelium of the periodontal pocket.
4) improve access for removal of local etiologic factors.

Periodontics Answer: 4

Surgical therapy, such as flap surgery, aims to expose root surfaces and deep periodontal pockets.
This improves visibility and access for scaling, root planning, and debridement, which are critical for removing the etiologic factors of periodontitis (e.g., plaque and calculus.
Eliminating these factors allows tissues to heal and reduces pocket depths.

Which immunoglobulin is dimeric?
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgA
4) IgE

ORE Test Answer: 3

Secretory IgA is a dimeric form of immunoglobulin that plays a key role in mucosal immunity.