MDS PREP
A patient with a known history of migraines presents with an episode of severe, unilateral, throbbing headache associated with nausea and photophobia. The headache is preceded by a visual aura. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient?
1) Sumatriptan
2) Ibuprofen
3) Metoclopramide
4) Acetaminophen
Sumatriptan is a serotonin (5-HT) receptor agonist that is specifically indicated for the treatment of migraines with or without aura.
What is the most common malignancy associated with Zollinger Ellison syndrome?
1) Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
2) Gastric adenocarcinoma
3) Small intestine adenocarcinoma
4) Hepatic metastasis
While Zollinger Ellison syndrome is primarily associated with gastrinomas, these tumors can be malignant and can metastasize. The most common malignant counterpart is pancreatic adenocarcinoma, which can be found in about 25% of cases.
A 55-year-old diabetic patient presents with a non-healing foot ulcer. What is the most critical component of the initial management?
1) Antibiotic therapy
2) Wound debridement
3) Control of blood glucose
4) Reconstructive surgery
Proper glycemic control is essential for wound healing in diabetic patients. Elevated blood glucose levels impair the immune response and can worsen the ulcer.
Black urine is seen in
1) Billirubinuria
2) Blackwater fever
3) Alkaptonuria
4) All
General Medicine
Answer: 4
Black urine can be associated with several conditions:
Bilirubinuria: The presence of bilirubin in urine can
lead to dark urine, although it is typically more yellow-brown than black.
Blackwater fever: This is a severe complication of
malaria that can cause hemolysis and dark urine due to the presence of
hemoglobin.
Alkaptonuria: This is a rare genetic disorder where
homogentisic acid accumulates in the body, leading to dark urine upon
exposure to air.
Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is an allergic reaction to
1) Drugs
2) House dust
3) Virus
4) Worms
General Medicine
Answer: 4
Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is often linked to parasitic infections, especially related to filarial infections, where the immune response to the worms leads to eosinophilia.
What is the most common cause of secondary hypoadrenalism?
1) Pituitary tumor
2) Adrenal tumor
3) Pituitary apoplexy
4) Sheehan's syndrome
Secondary hypoadrenalism occurs due to decreased stimulation of the adrenal glands by the pituitary gland, most commonly as a result of a pituitary tumor, such as a prolactinoma or nonfunctioning adenoma, which compresses the pituitary gland and impairs its ability to secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
In hyperparathyroidism, which of the following is a distinctive bone manifestation?
1) Osteomalacia
2) Osteopetrosis
3) Osteitis fibrosa cystica
4) Paget's disease
Osteitis fibrosa cystica is a characteristic bone change seen in hyperparathyroidism. It results from excessive osteoclastic activity and is characterized by the replacement of normal bone marrow with fibrous tissue and cyst-like spaces.
In a patient with hyperparathyroidism, which of the following is NOT a feature of osteoporosis?
1) Decreased bone density
2) Increased bone turnover
3) Increased risk of fractures
4) Decreased bone resorption
Hyperparathyroidism typically leads to increased bone resorption due to the actions of PTH, which can result in osteoporosis characterized by decreased bone density and increased risk of fractures despite increased bone turnover.